An enlarged chest (barrel chest), wheezing during regular breathing, and taking longer to fully exhale; reduced breath sounds or unusual breath sounds like wheezes or crackles are signs of COPD.
Describe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
The term "chronic obstructive pulmonary disease," or COPD, refers to a range of illnesses that impair breathing and impede airways. Emphysema and persistent bronchitis are among them. For the 16 million Americans with COPD, breathing becomes difficult.
In around 9 out of every 10 cases, smoking is regarded to be the primary cause of COPD. The lining of the lungs and airways can become damaged by the toxic compounds in smoke. Quitting smoking can help stop the deterioration of COPD. Many people can retain a high standard of living while dealing with COPD.
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a client is scheduled for outpatient surgery for a toenail removal. when performing the preoperative teaching with the client, the nurse would instruct the client to avoid taking any salicylates for at least how many days before the surgery?
The exact time that a client should avoid taking salicylates before surgery can vary depending on the specific medication and the type of surgery.
What are salicylates?
Salicylates are a group of medications that are used to relieve pain and reduce inflammation. They work by blocking the production of certain prostaglandins, which are chemicals that cause pain and inflammation. Salicylates are commonly used to treat a variety of conditions, including headaches, menstrual cramps, arthritis, and fever.
As a general guideline, it is typically recommended that clients avoid taking salicylates, such as aspirin, for at least 7-10 days before surgery.
This is because salicylates can interfere with blood clotting, which can increase the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. By avoiding salicylates for a sufficient period of time before the procedure, the client can help reduce the risk of bleeding and ensure that the surgery can be performed safely.
It is important for the client to discuss their medications with their healthcare provider and follow their instructions regarding when to stop taking any specific medications before the surgery.
The preoperative teaching provided by the nurse should be individualized to the client and their specific surgical procedure, and should emphasize the importance of following all instructions provided by the healthcare provider to minimize the risk of complications during and after the procedure.
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which actions by the nurse are appropriate when administering a vaginal cream? select all that apply.
Administer perineal care Insert a vaginal application, pointing it backward and downward, and maintain the plunging applicator fully depressed while cleaning just above the vaginal entrance downward.
Perineal care is what?Peri-care, commonly referred to as perineal care, entails cleaning a patient's private parts. This area needs to be cleansed at least once a day and more frequently if their loved one has urination because it is susceptible to infections.
What does nursing perineal care entail?Washing the vaginal and rectal regions of the body is a part of perineal care. It should be carried out at least once daily during a bath in the tub, shower, or bed. That whenever a patient is bed ridden, it happens more frequently. Infection, smells, and irritation are avoided as a result.
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the nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child. the child tells the nurse about her friend, nancy, who lives in her room at home. the mother tells the nurse that nancy is not a real person. the nurse would use which term when documenting this assessment finding?
Answer:
Imaginary friend
Primary Care Providers are the gatekeepers or the first point of contact for a managed care patient.
The healthcare system's entry points are often primary care doctors. Many health insurance policies restrict patients' access to specialists and require a referral from a gatekeeper.
A healthcare professional who is the patient's initial point of contact and decides the patient's next level of treatment is known as a gatekeeper. The healthcare system's entry points are often primary care doctors. In certain health insurance plans, a gatekeeper is in charge of managing the patient's medical care. All medical treatments, laboratory tests, specialty referrals, and hospitalisations are organized and approved by the gatekeeper. Many people think that adopting gatekeeping to prevent needless medical care interventions is a good strategy to control expenses. In general, basic care services are less expensive than secondary and specialized care services, as are the associated tests and diagnosis.
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The complete question is:
In some MCOs, the primary care provider is the gatekeeper or the first point of contact for a managed care patient. Any secondary or tertiary care would be coordinated by the gatekeeper. Explain.
needlesticks, patient or employee falls, medication errors, or any event not consistent with routine patient care activities would require risk reporting documentation in the form of an
Needlesticks, patient or employee falls, medication errors, or any event not consistent with routine patient care activities would require risk reporting documentation in the form of an incident report.
An incident report or accident report is a form that is filled out in a health care facility, such as a hospital, nursing home, or assisted living, to record information about an unexpected event that occurs at the facility, such as an injury to a patient. The goal of the incident report is to accurately describe what happened while it is still recent in the thoughts of people who were present.
In the future, when dealing with liability concerns resulting from the incident, this knowledge might be helpful. Health care recommendations state that the report should typically be completed as soon as feasible after the incident (but after the situation has been stabilized).
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a nurse has questioned why a client's health care provider has prescribed a narrow-spectrum antibiotic rather than a broad-spectrum drug in the treatment of an infection. which facts provide the best rationale for the use of narrow-spectrum antibiotics whenever possible?
The possibility of a superinfection can increase with the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
What dangers do broad-spectrum antibiotics pose?Taking broad-spectrum antibiotics can cause "C. diff," a deadly type of diarrhea. The bowel may need to be removed. In the US, it claims the lives of roughly 15,000 individuals annually. Other adverse effects of antibiotics include vaginal infections, nausea, and vomiting.
What aspect determines if a bacteriostatic antibiotic will be effective?Depending on the type of infection and the patient's immune system, doctors must decide whether to administer bacteriostatic or bactericidal medication. Bacteriostatic and bactericidal medications can be successful in attaining clinical cure in a patient with robust immune responses.
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the nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated client and knows that older adults are at highest risk for weaning failure. what age-related changes contributes to failure with weaning off a ventilator? select all that apply.
Age-related changes affecting weaning off a ventilator in older adults: decreased lung function, decreased cardiac output, increased dysrhythmias, and increased susceptibility to infections.
Age-related factors affecting weaning off a ventilator in older adultsIn older adults, various age-related changes can contribute to failure when attempting to wean off a ventilator. The lungs lose their elasticity and compliance, making it harder to generate sufficient air pressure to clear the airways. Respiratory muscle strength also decreases, which reduces the ability to breathe effectively. Cardiac output decreases, leading to increased dysrhythmias and decreased oxygenation capacity. Additionally, older adults are more susceptible to infections such as pneumonia, which can further compromise respiratory function. Cognitive and sensory impairment can also affect the ability to cooperate with the weaning process. These age-related changes can significantly increase the risk of weaning failure in older adults and must be carefully considered when planning and carrying out the weaning process.
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how many 20-oz cokes could an average adult consume and stay within the limit of less than 10% of calories from sugar if she did not eat any other sugar that day?
If she didn't eat any additional sugar that day, a typical adult may drink 65g of cokes and yet stay within the threshold of fewer than 10% of calories from sugar.
How much sugar does the average person consume daily?
American adults, teenagers, and children ingest 17 teaspoons (or 270 calories) of added sugar on average per day. [1] Even though we occasionally add sugar or sweeteners like honey to meals or beverages, packaged and prepared foods actually contain the majority of added sugar.
Over processed white sugar, brown sugar is without a doubt a better option. To retain as much of the sugarcane's natural nutrition, including vitamins and minerals, it is completely organically processed.
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a 22-year-old woman presents with dyspnea. she has a history of asthma and noted increased difficulty breathing starting yesterday. she says she has been using her albuterol inhaler every 15 minutes for the last four hours without relief. what laboratory abnormality is likely to be found in this patient?
In a 22-year-old woman with a history of asthma who presents with dyspnea and has been using her albuterol inhaler frequently without relief, an elevated level of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood is likely to be found.
Asthma is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, which can result in difficulty breathing. In severe cases, such as this patient's, the airways can become severely obstructed, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood. This is a sign of respiratory distress and can indicate the need for prompt and aggressive treatment.
Other laboratory abnormalities that may be seen in this patient include a low oxygen saturation level, elevated white blood cell count, and elevated levels of certain inflammatory markers such as eosinophils. However, the presence of an elevated CO2 level is the most specific laboratory abnormality that can indicate severe asthma exacerbation.
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all of the following are true of topical anesthetics used in dentistry except one. which one is the exception? group of answer choices lidocaine may contain preservatives such as the parabens that could induce an allergic response. topical anesthetics are possible allergens. benzocaine is a commonly used amide topical anesthetic that can contribute to an allergic reaction. tetracaine can contribute to an allergic response.
The topical anesthetics used in dentistry - lidocaine, benzocaine etc. Tetracaine is used by ophthalmologist dentist.
The correct option is d.
To numb the eye before to surgery, particular examinations, or treatments, tetracaine eye drops are utilised. The eye drops are used throughout the treatment to lessen any discomfort. Tetracaine is a member of the class of drugs known as local anaesthetics. It functions by suppressing pain impulses at the eye's nerve endings.
Topical anaesthetics with benzocaine or lidocaine are the most often used ones in dentistry. A local ester anaesthetic is benzocaine (ethyl aminobenzoate). It can be found in concentrations of up to 20%.
The most common and widely used topical anaesthetic in dentistry is by far benzocaine. Although it comes in a variety of concentrations, 20% formulations like Gingicaine are the most popular. Benzocaine begins to work quickly.
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which of the following can cause respiratory depression? question 11 options: a) end-stage copd changes the stimulus to breathe from high carbon dioxide levels to low oxygen levels, causing breathing to become depressed when oxygen is administered b) high concentrations of oxygen depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction to administered oxygen. c) the lungs react unfavorably to high concentrations of oxygen administered for long periods of time and breathing becomes depressed d) the eyes develop scar tissue on the retina from high
'The lungs react unfavorably to high concentrations of oxygen administered for long periods of time and breathing becomes depressed'. This can cause respiratory depression.
What do you mean by respiratory depression?
Respiratory depression is a condition in which breathing slows down or becomes shallow and insufficient to meet the body's needs. It can be caused by drug overdose, stroke, or other medical conditions, and can lead to hypoxia (low oxygen levels) and, in extreme cases, death.
Respiratory depression occurs when the lungs are exposed to high concentrations of oxygen for prolonged periods. This can cause a decrease in the rate and depth of breathing as the body's respiratory system becomes over-stimulated by the high levels of oxygen. This can lead to a decrease in the amount of oxygen reaching the body's tissues and organs and can result in serious health complications and even death.
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which symptoms does theophylline treat? select all that apply. diabetes retinopathy asthma atherosclerosis bronchitis emphysema
Theophylline treats asthma , bronchitis and emphysema.
What is the purpose of theophylline?
The symptoms of emphysema, asthma, and other lung conditions are treated with theophylline in combination with other medications. Theophylline is a member of the class of drugs known as bronchodilators. The muscles in the bronchial tubes (the lung's air channels) are relaxed by bronchodilators, which are medications.
Wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness brought on by emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma, and other lung conditions can be prevented and treated with theophylline. It eases breathing by relaxing the body and widening the lungs' airways. COPD has long been treated with oral theophylline as a bronchodilator.
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which response would the nurse have for the parent of a school-age child who expresses concern that the child appears thinner than in years prior?
The appropriate response by the nurse to the parent of a school-age child who expresses concern that the child appears thinner than in years prior should be that: the body fat diminishes and fat distribution pattern changes in these years of development.
Fat is the derivative of fatty acids present inside the body. Fats provide the maximum amount of energy to the body. However if remain unhydrolyzed, they can get stored inside the body. This site of storage keeps changing with age and is barely stored in the kids because of their hyperactive metabolism.
Development refers to the growth of a living body. The development begins from the stage of being a zygote to a a completely grown individual. The process of development never stops inside the body. However its effect may or may not be directly visible morphologically.
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an older client visits the clinic accompanied by his daughter. the daughter tells the nurse that her father has been experiencing severe headaches that usually begin in the morning and become worse when he coughs. the client tells the nurse that he feels dizzy when he has the headaches. the nurse refers the client for further evaluation because these symptoms are characteristic of a
The nurse refers the client for further evaluation because these symptoms are characteristic of a 'tumor-related headache'.
What do you mean by tumor?
A tumor is an abnormal growth of cells in the body. It is a mass of tissue that can either be benign (noncancerous) or malignant (cancerous). Tumors can occur anywhere in the body and can be either solid or filled with fluid. Benign tumors are often not a serious health risk, but malignant tumors can be life-threatening if they spread to other parts of the body. Treatment for tumors may involve surgery, chemotherapy, radiation, or a combination of these.
A tumor-related headache is a type of headache that is caused by pressure on the brain or brain stem from a tumor. These headaches usually start in the morning and become worse when coughing or straining. They may also be accompanied by dizziness and other symptoms. As these symptoms are consistent with a tumor-related headache, the nurse is referring the client for further evaluation to determine the cause of the headaches.
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the nurse patted a client's back while providing care. the client felt offended by the nurse's gesture. which boundary is in jeopardy in this situation?
Personal boundaries are limits set by a client that may include how the client allows others to invade his or her physical space.
Therefore because the client was offended by the nurse patting his or her back, the personal boundary is in jeopardy.
What are personal boundaries?
The concept of personal limits or the act of setting boundaries has gained popularity since the middle of the 1980s thanks to self-help authors and support organisations.
It is the act of publicly stating and upholding one's principles in an effort to stop them from being compromised or violated.
The term "boundary" is a metaphor, with in-bounds designating appropriate behaviour and out-of-bounds designating unacceptable behaviour.
Without values and bonds, our identities become dispersed, and they are frequently shaped by the definitions others give them.
The concept of boundaries has received widespread support from the counselling community.
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a control group is an experimental group in which subjects can control the dose of a drug that is administered.(True or False)
A control group is an experimental group in which subjects can control the dose of a drug that is administered. It is false.
What is a drug?Drugs can also alter how the brain and the rest of the body function, resulting in alterations in mood, awareness, thoughts, feelings, or behaviour.
Anything other than food that is used to treat, identify, or alleviate the symptoms of a disease or another abnormal condition In addition to altering mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behaviour, drugs can also change how the brain and the rest of the body function. Some drug types, such as opioids, have the potential to be abused or lead to addiction.
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when assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli, what finding by the nurse indicates possible deep vein thrombosis?
Pain in the calf is indicated by the nurse as a probable deep vein thrombosis. Option 2 is correct
When assessing the client's risk of pulmonary emboli, the nurse looks for a positive Homan's sign. The client leans back and elevates one leg and one foot. If the client experiences calf discomfort (a positive Homan's sign) during this operation, he or she may have deep vein thrombosis. When a clump of material, most usually a blood clot, becomes stuck in a pulmonary artery, restricting blood flow, this is referred to as a pulmonary embolism.
Deep vein thrombosis is a condition in which blood clots develop in the legs' deep veins. Multiple clots are commonly involved. Each blocked artery deprives the parts of the lung served by it of blood, and they may perish. A pulmonary infarction is the medical term for this. This makes it more difficult for ones lungs to provide oxygen to the rest of your body.
The complete question is
When assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli, what finding by the nurse indicates possible deep vein thrombosis?
1. Negative Homan's sign
2. Pain in the calf
3. Pain in the feet
4. Inability to dorsiflex
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a false negative pregnancy test may result from group of answer choices high protein in the diet. taking the test too early in the morning. taking the pregnancy test too early in the pregnancy. high sodium in the diet.
Taking a pregnancy test is the only surefire way to determine whether you are pregnant. The question of whether or not you require a test is common, nevertheless.
Which week will the first signs of pregnancy appear?Early on in pregnancy, you could experience morning sickness, nausea, and vomiting. Pregnancy weeks four to six are when nausea and morning sickness typically start, peaking in weeks nine. Even though it is referred to as morning sickness, it can happen at any hour of the day or night.
In the first trimester, how should your stomach feel?You might not notice much, if any, change in the size of your tummy for the most of the first trimester. Similar to when you feel bloated after your period or after eating a substantial meal, it will likely be soft and appear a little bigger.
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discharge information should include: a. significant findings, reason for hospitalization or care, treatment provided, condition at discharge, instruction to patient and/or family, arrangement for services needed to meet the patient's medical needs after discharge, relevant observations, and medications or services prescribed. b. significant findings, reason for hospitalization or care, treatment provided, condition at discharge, instruction to patient and/or family, arrangement for services needed to meet the patient's medical needs after discharge, and medications or services prescribed. c. significant findings, treatment provided, condition at discharge, instruction to patient and/or family, and medications or services prescribed. d. significant findings, reason for hospitalization or care, treatment provided, condition at discharge, instruction to patient and/or family, and medications or services prescribed.
Significant diagnosis, therapy treatment, state at discharge, instructions to the patient and/or family, and recommended drugs or services should all be included in the discharge summary.
The correct option is c.
Hospital discharge is the procedure a person go through when he/she is ready to leave the hospital after receiving treatment. When he/she is able to go home and no longer require inpatient care, a hospital will release him/her.
Alternately, a hospital may also release and transfer the patient to a different hospital.
The diagnosis, current problems, treatment, required services, warning signals, and emergency contact information are all included in a documented transition plan or discharge summary.
After being discharged from the hospital, a patient's care transition is considered to become vulnerable. Its successful execution has a substantial impact on how quickly a patient recovers.
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the critical care nurse is caring for a client with cardiogenic shock. what is the premise for inserting an intra-aortic balloon pump?
An intra-aortic balloon pump is inserted in a client with cardiogenic shock to increase cardiac output and decrease myocardial oxygen demand.
Cardiogenic shock is a medical emergency that occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. This can lead to decreased cardiac output and reduced blood flow to vital organs, potentially leading to organ failure and death. An Cardiogenic shock intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) is a device that is inserted into the aorta, typically through a femoral artery, to assist the heart in pumping blood. The IABP is a temporizing measure and is used in intra-aortic balloon pump conjunction with other treatments, such as medications and interventions to improve coronary blood flow, to support the heart and improve blood flow to the body's vital organs. The Cardiogenic shock care nurse must closely monitor the client's response to the IABP and adjust the therapy as necessary to ensure effective treatment.
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a client with a rare genetic disorder is prescribed a medication specific to this disorder. what is the name given to drugs manufactured by companies that receive tax benefits to invest in these drugs?
A patient with a rare genetic disorder is prescribed a medication specific to this disorder. Orphan drugs are the name given to drugs manufactured by companies that receive tax benefits to invest in these drugs.
Orphan drugs are pharmaceuticals used to treat uncommon illnesses or disorders that only affect a limited number of patients. These illnesses are frequently referred to as "orphan diseases" because researchers and pharmaceutical corporations frequently ignore them because of their low prevalence and little potential for financial reward. Since there is little information on the efficacy and safety of orphan medications, developing and approving them can be a difficult and expensive procedure. However, individuals with uncommon disorders who might otherwise have few therapeutic alternatives may benefit greatly from the approval of orphan drugs.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is given as,
A patient with a rare genetic disorder is prescribed a medication specific to this disorder. What is the name given to drugs manufactured by companies that receive tax benefits to invest in these drugs?
a) Ghost drugs
b) Rare drugs
the nurse is reviewing the client's history, identifies themes, and considers how the nurse can be most therapeutic to a client who was recently admitted to a psychiatric unit. the nurse is functioning in which phase of the therapeutic relationship?
The nurse is functioning in orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship.
What is Therapeutic relationship?The therapeutic relationship is defined as a relationship between a health care professional and a client or patient, meaning that a therapist and a client hope to engage with each other and effect beneficial change in the client.
This relationship is defined as "an interpersonal relationship with the patient and family that is caring, clear, bounded, positive, and professional.
Thus, the nurse is functioning in orientation phase of the therapeutic relationship.
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1. the health care team member is changing a sterile central line dressing for a patient who is immunosuppressed. the best way to decrease the risk of transmitting infection to the patient is for the health care team member to wear sterile gloves and which other item?
The best way to decrease the risk of transmitting infection to the patient is for the health care team member to wear sterile gloves, a face mask, a face shield, disposable gown, and disposable booties
What is transmitting infection?Transmitting infection is the process by which a microorganism, such as a virus, bacterium, or parasite, is spread from one person or animal to another. This can occur directly through physical contact, through the air by coughing or sneezing, or indirectly through contact with contaminated surfaces or objects. It is important to practice good hygiene and infection control to prevent the spread of infection. This includes frequent handwashing, proper use of personal protective equipment, and avoiding contact with people who are ill.
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lee wants to gain 10lbs of lean muscle mass. his dietitian suggested he consume 2500 kcal each day and that 20% of his kcal come from protein. how many grams of protein should he consume each day?
To build 10 pounds of lean muscle mass, Lee should consume roughly 125 grams of protein each day.
Who is dietitian?A dietitian, medical dietitian, or dietician is a nutritionist who specializes in recognizing and treating disease-related malnutrition as well as providing medical nutrition treatment, such as developing an enteral tube feeding regimen or minimizing the symptoms of cancer cachexia. Nutritionists and dietitians advise clients on nutrition and good eating habits. Dietitians and nutritionists specialize in the use of food and nutrition to enhance health and disease management. They organize and carry out food service or nutritional initiatives to assist individuals in living healthy lifestyles. A medical practitioner who has had specialized training in food and nutrition. Dietitians advise individuals on nutrition and appropriate eating habits in order to improve their health and well-being.
Here,
To determine the amount of protein Lee should consume each day to gain 10 lbs of lean muscle mass, we need to first calculate the amount of calories he should get from protein.
Given that 20% of his kcal should come from protein, and he should consume 2500 kcal per day, then the amount of calories from protein would be:
2500 kcal * 20% = 500 kcal
Next, we need to convert the amount of calories from protein into grams of protein. One gram of protein provides 4 kcal, so to get 500 kcal from protein, Lee should consume:
500 kcal / 4 kcal/g = 125 g
Therefore, Lee should consume approximately 125 grams of protein each day to gain 10 lbs of lean muscle mass.
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in los angeles, juice cleansing is very popular. some people have claimed that the cleanses are beneficial for weight loss, body detoxification, and treatment and prevention of illnesses. can we conclude that juice cleansing causes these health benefits?
No, the claims are anecdotes and do not give us a true comparison group to find health differences.
Juice fasting, also known as juice cleaning, is a fad diet in which a person solely eats fruit and vegetable juices while avoiding solid meals. It is used for detoxification as an alternative medicine treatment and is frequently included in detox diets. The diet normally lasts one to seven days and includes a variety of fruits and vegetables, as well as spices, that are not commonly found or consumed in the average Western diet.
Because of Norman W. Walker and Jay Kordich, who tried to turn the juice drink into a diet, juice fasting became a rising fad in the United States. The diet is occasionally advertised with illogical and unverified health claims.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has a lack of appetite. what is most likely to influence a client's core body temperature?
Since protein has the biggest thermic effect, the nurse should advise the client to eat more of it to influence a client's core body temperature.
How do you measure your body's core temperature?
The most accurate approach to assess core temperature is with a rectal thermometer. With this form of measurement, there is little variance in the results, and the precision is exceptionally good.
Protein has a substantially stronger thermic effect than fat or carbohydrates—20-35% compared to 5-15%—and is typically consumed at temperatures between 36.6 °C and 38.0 °C. It has been demonstrated that eating a lot of protein considerably speeds up metabolism and increases calorie expenditure. This can result in an additional 80–100 calories burnt per day.
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the nurse is assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 3.2 kg at birth. the nurse would expect the infant to now weigh approximately how many kilograms?
The nurse would expect the infant to now weigh approximately 6.3 kilograms. Option b is correct.
At roughly 5 to 6 months, the birth weight doubles. A youngster that weighed 3.2 kg at birth would weigh around 6.3 kg at 6 months. The child would have dropped from the 50th to the 5th percentile after delivery; 5.2 kg is insufficient. By 6 months, the child would have treble its birth weight; 8.7 kg to 9.6 kg is too much. Growth is an excellent predictor of overall health. Babies that are developing well are typically healthy, however slow growth may indicate a problem.
Healthy newborns come in a variety of sizes. Most infants delivered between 37 and 40 weeks weigh between 5 and 8 pounds, 8 ounces (2,500 to 2,500 grammes) (4,000 grams). Infants who are lighter or heavier than the norm are typically OK. However, they may get additional attention from physicians and nurses following birth to ensure that there are no complications. A baby's birth weight can be affected by a variety of factors. The duration of the pregnancy is critical. Babies born around or after their due date are often bigger than those born before.
The complete Question is
The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 3.2 kg at birth. The nurse would expect the infant to now weigh approximately how many kilograms?
A. 5.2
B. 6.3
C. 8.7
D. 9.6
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select all that apply which of the following patterns of illness suggest a genetic link? multiple select question. the presence of disease in family members who have good health habits a brother who develops lung cancer from smoking multiple members of the same side of the family experiencing the same disease a grandmother with an early onset of alzheimer's disease
The right options are :
The presence of disease in family members who have good health habits.Multiple members of the same side of the family experience the same disease.A grandmother with an early onset of Alzheimer's disease.Due to their near proximity on a chromosome, linked genes are more likely to be transmitted jointly. Separate chromosomes do not ever have connected genes. A potent method for identifying the chromosome position of disease genes is genetic linkage analysis. It is based on the discovery that during meiosis, genes that are located physically close to one another on a chromosome continue to be connected.
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the nurse gives the furosemide ivp very slowly hesi. which side effects can result from iv furosemide?
Iv furosemide can cause a number of common adverse effects, including diarrhea, cramping, decreased appetite, loss of sensation, headache, dizziness, or lightheadedness.
Define diarrhea.Diarrhea, which results in loose, mushy bowel disturbances which could become more common, is a common problem. It could interact with other symptoms like weight loss, headache, vomiting, or abdominal discomfort or it might be the sole symptom present. Nevertheless, diarrhea usually only lasts a few days at most.
How can you get rid of diarrhea?Consume lots of liquids, including water, juices, especially broths. Eliminate both alcohol and coffee. Introduce poor and powder foods gradually when your bowel movements return to normal. Try chicken, soda bread, toast, beans, rice, and so forth.
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the nurse is teaching the client about benzodiazepines. which comments by the client indicate adequate understanding of the drug effects/side effects?
The nurse is teaching the client about benzodiazepines. The comments by the client that indicate adequate understanding of the drug effects/side effects are:
1., 2., 4. & 5.
Who is a nurse?
Working collaboratively with doctors, therapists, patients, patients' families, and other team members, nurses create a care plan that emphasises treating illness to improve quality of life.
In accordance with specific state laws, clinical nurse specialists and nurse practitioners in the US and the UK diagnose health problems and recommend the proper medications and other treatments.
Drugs like benzodiazepines can impair general alertness and slow reaction times. Until the medication's effects are felt and the patient can safely drive, the client should not operate machinery. Medication containing benzodiazepines is typically prescribed for brief periods of time. Abuse of benzodiazepines is common. Customers grow tolerant of and dependent on the drugs.
3. Incorrect: The client should not self-regulate dosage. There is a potential for tolerance & dependence to develop. Dosage should be monitored carefully by the primary healthcare provider.
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