Activity intolerance related to pump failure would be a priority nursing diagnosis for the client with heart failure and pulmonary edema.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
Edema, often spelled oedema, is the accumulation of fluid in body tissue and is also referred to as fluid retention, dropsy, hydropsy, and swelling. Legs or arms are most frequently afflicted. Skin that feels tight, an area that feels heavy, and joint stiffness are some symptoms. The fundamental reason will determine any additional symptoms.
Deep vein thrombosis, heart failure, kidney issues, liver issues, low protein levels, angioedema, certain medicines, and lymphedema are some of the possible causes. Additionally, it may happen after extended periods of sitting or standing, menstruation, or pregnancy. If the illness develops quickly if there is discomfort or shortness of breath, it is more serious.
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Many healthcare facilities require a nursing assistance to use a blank belt one helping people to stand walk or transfer?
Many healthcare facilities require a nursing assistance to use a transfer belt one helping people to stand walk or transfer.
Patients in majority of diseases feel difficulty in walking and standing. They need external support so that they can rise and stay stiff. It is because of this reason that stretchers, wheel chairs, movable beds etc. are used in hospitals. The transfer belts provides support to the body. It helps in easy placement of the patient from one bed to another. Ventilator beds are such that their rising level can be adjusted. These transfer belts are made up of thick fabric and are attached near the center of mass of the patient so that the body weight can be balanced properly.
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a 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute onset vertigo. she denies associated decreased hearing or tinnitus. vital signs are normal. horizontal head impulse test shows a corrective saccade when the head is turned to the left. dix-hallpike maneuver elicits a leftward rotary nystagmus that is fatigable. which of the following mechanisms will provide the most definitive treatment of this condition?
The best option is to move free-floating otoconia. The Epley procedure moves floating otoconia into the utricle, where they are less prone to produce vertigo, down the semicircular canals. So, option A is correct.
Using gravity, the Epley technique moves floating otoconia via semicircular canals and into the utricle, where they are less prone to produce vertigo.
The most effective treatment for BPPV will be delivered through the following mechanisms.
Vertigo is a symptom rather than an actual sickness. It is the sensation that you or your environment is spinning or moving.
This feeling may not even be present to you, or it may be so intense that it interferes with your ability to balance and perform daily tasks.
Attacks of vertigo might come on quickly and last only a few seconds or they can continue a long time. When you have severe vertigo, it can be quite difficult to go about your everyday activities because the symptoms might last for several days and be persistent.
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The complete question is:
A 65-year-old woman with acutely developing vertigo arrives at the emergency room. She disputes any accompanying hearing loss or tinnitus. Vital indicators are typical. When the head is rotated to the left during a horizontal head impulse test, a corrective saccade is seen. The dix-hallpike maneuver causes a fatigable leftward rotational nystagmus. which of the following mechanisms will provide the most definitive treatment of this condition?
1) Relocation of free floating otoconia
2) positive and fatigable Dix-Hallpike test
3) both the skew test and the horizontal head impulse test.
4) horizontal head impulse test
non-cancerous lesions usually have well-defined borders and are mainly round or ovoid. cancers have poorly defined borders and, thus, an irregular shape. (True or False)
This statement is true: non-cancerous lesions usually have well-defined borders and are mainly round or ovoid. cancers have poorly defined borders and, thus, an irregular shape.
A breast cancer tumor is frequently visible as hypoechoic on ultrasonography. It may appear spiculated and has wavy edges. Among the additional ultrasound results that point to breast cancer are:
a non-parallel position (not parallel to the skin)
a mass that is larger in height than in width
Sound-based shadowing (a finding that indicates a solid mass)
Microlobulation (groups of small lobes on the surface of a solid material) (groups of small lobes on the surface of a solid mass)
extended ducts (a breast duct widens and the wall thickens)
A branching structure
a cyst's internal bulk
Margin angles (an irregular or jagged appearance)
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excessive thirst and frequent urination are signs of diabetes. to remain healthy, your fasting blood glucose level should always be at least 140 mg/dl. a healthy person's hemoglobin a1c level is greater than 7.5%. people who have excess body fat are more likely to develop type 1 diabetes than type 2 diabetes.
People who have excess body fat are more likely to develop type 1 diabetes than type 2 diabetes. Option 4 is correct alternative.
The severity of the body's ability to control and utilize sugar (glucose) as fuel is a symptom of type 2 diabetes. This chronic (long-term) illness causes an excess of sugar to circulate in the bloodstream. Problems with the immunological, neurological, and cardiovascular systems may develop over time as a result of high blood sugar levels. There are basically two connected issues when it comes to type 2 diabetes. Insulin, a hormone that controls how much sugar gets into your cells, is not produced by your pancreas in sufficient amounts. Your cells thus react poorly to insulin and absorb less sugar. Despite the fact that both type 1 and type 2 diabetes can develop in childhood and later in life, type 2 diabetes used to be known as adult-onset diabetes.
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The complete question is:
Which of the following statement is TRUE
1) Excessive thirst and frequent urination are signs of diabetes.
2) To remain healthy, your fasting blood glucose level should always be at least 140 mg/dl.
3) A healthy person's hemoglobin A1c level is greater than 7.5%.
4) People who have excess body fat are more likely to develop type 1 diabetes than type 2 diabetes.
Do skin creams contain chemicals associated with healthy skin?
a client with the diagnosis of breast cancer is scheduled to receive radiation therapy to the affected area. the nurse teaches the client about how to care for the area that will be irradiated. which client statement indicates the nurse needs to follow up? 'i will leave the skin markings intact.' 'i will protect the skin from sources of heat.' 'i will wear soft clothing over the upper body.' 'i will use an oatmeal-based lotion after each treatment.'
Starting the day you start radiation therapy and continuing until you finish radiation and your skin feels normal is what you should do.
1. Bathing and shaving: Radiation therapy can make the skin exceedingly sensitive.
2. When getting dressed, avoid using talcum powder and antiperspirant, and treat wounds as prescribed.
3. Leisure activities and time outside
4. Remaining at home
Lotions, powders, and ointments shouldn't be applied to the area while receiving radiation therapy. Since the skin markings serve as the criteria for radiation administration, they shouldn't be removed. Avoid heat and sunshine on irradiated skin to protect it. To avoid damaging the fragile skin that has been exposed to radiation, non-irritating garments should be worn over the area.
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With a blood alcohol concentration of 50 mg/100 ml a person will experience:
A. Lapses in consciousness and vomiting
B. Dizziness and a heightened emotional state
C. Failure of the central nervous system and possible death
D. More selfconfidence and a shorter attention span.
Option D
More self-confidence and a shorter attention span.
which of the following choices INCORRECTLY describes the component of a healthy diet and it's expected outcome?
a. variety - increased likelihood of consuming a broad array of essential nutrients and phytochemicals
b. balance - consuming equal amounts of food from each of the food groups
c. adequacy - consuming enough calories and essential nutrients
d. moderation - avoid consuming excess amounts of potentially harmful foods
(b) Balance—consuming equal amounts of foods from each of the food groups is the statement that INCORRECTLY describes the component of a healthy diet and its expected outcome.
Consume whole-grain products that are high in fiber (3 to 6 servings a day). Refined or processed carbs should be reduced or eliminated from your diet; instead, focus on whole grains. Drink low-fat or fat-free milk and consume low-fat dairy foods. These are the ingredients of a balanced diet.
Meals, mealtimes, and meal selection all fall within the Rule of Three. There are three regular meals every day that you must consume if you want to eat healthily. Meal skipping is bad for your body in many ways and is bad for your health.
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true/false. the world health organization's definition of health recognizes physical, social, emotional, and psychological factors that contribute to the overall quality of a person's life.
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
When using the absolute method to assess muscular endurance, you should adjust the weight according to each individual's strength ability.Please select the best answer from the choices provided.O TrueO False
The statement "when using the absolute method to assess muscular endurance, you should adjust the weight according to each individual's strength ability" is true.
What is muscular endurance?The ability of a muscle or group of muscles to sustain returning reductions against a defense over an extended period of time is referred to as muscular endurance. It, along with muscular strength and energy, is a component of muscular fitness. You must regularly exercise and build the muscle groups you want to enhance in order to boost muscular endurance. Bodyweight exercises like sit-ups, press-ups, and short cuts are included in circuit training.
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1. : Short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibers.
2. : Collateral ganglia.
3. : Known to be active during rest and digest responses.
4. : Decreases heart rate.
5. : Maintenance functions.
6. : Stimulates ciliary muscles of the eye, which makes the lens bulge for close vision.
7. : Active during fight and flight responses.
A) Sympathetic: Short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibers;
Collateral ganglia; Increases blood pressure.
B) Parasympathetic: Active after you have eaten a meal; Decreases heart rate; Maintenance functions; Stimulates ciliary muscles of the eye, which makes the lens bulge for close vision.
"Fight-or-flight" reactions are managed by the sympathetic nervous system. In other words, this method gets the body ready for hard exercise. The bodily processes that we would anticipate to enable this to happen do, in fact, take place. The parasympathetic nervous system controls "rest and digest" processes.
This article provides a thorough analysis of the autonomic nervous system (ANS). As it prepares the pharmacy student for additional studies in pathophysiology, pharmacology, and therapeutics, having a good understanding of this system is crucial. The preservation of homeostasis depends heavily on the ANS. Additionally, medicines that impact this system may help or worsen a variety of disease symptoms and processes. This system may be involved in a number of systemic diseases.
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Complete Question is:
Match the following:
A) Sympathetic
B) Parasympathetic
5) Short preganglionic, long postganglionic fibers. A
6) Collateral ganglia. A
7) Active after you have eaten a meal. B
8) Decreases heart rate. B
9) Maintenance functions. B
10) Stimulates ciliary muscles of the eye, which makes the lens bulge for close vision. B
11) Increases blood pressure. A
which of the following statements most accurately describes the deficits of someone with prosopagnosia?
"I see faces, but I can never be certain of a person's identity based solely on their face." - this claim best captures the deficiencies of a person with prosopagnosia.
A person with prosopagnosia has trouble identifying and recognizing distinct faces, particularly those of acquaintances, family members, and familiar faces. Even after repeatedly meeting someone, people with prosopagnosia frequently have trouble recognizing them based on their facial features. This can cause substantial social challenges and anxiety, particularly in settings where face recognition is crucial, like the workplace or intimate relationships. When prosopagnosia prevents them from recognizing faces, they may instead rely on other cues, such a person's voice, walk, or body type to identify them.
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Which of the following best sums up the shortcomings of someone who has prosopagnosia?
1) "I see faces, but I can never be certain of a person's identity based solely on their face."
2) "I have a soft feeling for her, but I can't tell her."
3) "I know him, but can't recall his name."
4) "I hate you"
when exercising or engaging in physical activity, it's important to realize that your personal decisions have little effect on your safety.True or False
consuming more carbohydrates than you need can result in an increase in your body fat. people can gain body fat when they consume more micronutrients in relation to their macronutrient intakes. high-fiber diets are associated with greater weight gain in adults because fiber-rich foods are less filling than foods that contain sugars. foods that are high in simple carbohydrates are fattening because they usually contain a lot of protein.
The true statement in this answer is, "Consuming more protein than you need can result in an increase in your body fat."
"People can gain body fat when they consume more micronutrients in relation to their macronutrient intakes" is False
"High-fiber diets are associated with greater weight gain in adults because fiber-rich foods are less filling than foods that contain sugars" is False.
"Foods that are high in simple carbohydrates are fattening because they usually contain a lot of protein" is False.
The correct response is, "Eating more protein than you require can cause an increase in body fat." Despite only having 4 calories per gramme, the body can theoretically store ANY extra calories as fat.
Because vitamins and minerals are micronutrients and do not contain calories, the statement "People can gain body fat when they ingest more micronutrients in relation to their macronutrient intakes" is untrue.
False: "High-fiber diets are linked to higher weight gain in adults because they are less satisfying than foods with added sugars." Those high in fibre are more satiating and have been demonstrated to increase satiety compared to foods high in sugar.
Because they frequently include a lot of protein, foods high in simple carbs are satiating. This statement is false for a variety of reasons. First off, simple carbohydrate-rich diets typically have low levels of protein. Table sugar, white bread, and white rice all provide a lot of simple carbohydrates but little to no protein. Second, simple carbohydrate-rich diets don't always make you fat. Even a diet intended to promote weight loss might incorporate these foods. If they were consumed in excess, it would not be advisable since the extra calories could be stored as fat and the intake would probably push out other important macronutrients from the diet.
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Complete Question is:
Which of the following statements is true?
People can gain body fat when they consume more micronutrients in relation to their macronutrient intakes.
High-fiber diets are associated with greater weight gain in adults because fiber-rich foods are less filling than foods that contain sugars.
Foods that are high in simple carbohydrates are fattening because they usually contain a lot of protein.
Consuming more protein than you need can result in an increase in your body fat.
jay coakleys argument that sports are institututionalized competitions aligns itself with which of guttmanns 7 characteristics of modern sport? group of answer choices
jay coakleys argument that sports are institututionalized competitions aligns itself with Bureaucratization of guttmanns 7 characteristics of modern sport.
Both a collection of non-elected leaders and an administrative policy-making body are referred to as bureaucracies. A bureaucracy, historically, was a form of government administration where departments were run by non-elected people. Any significant institution today, whether it is privately or publicly held, is governed by bureaucracy. Bureaucracy is exemplified by the public administration in many jurisdictions and sub-jurisdictions, but it may also be seen in any institution with a centralised hierarchical structure, such as hospitals, academic institutions, commercial businesses, professional societies, social clubs, etc.
Bureaucracy faces two main problems. Whether bureaucrats should be independent or directly answerable to their political overlords is the first conundrum.
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this lesson cites research suggesting that diversity among health professionals may improve equity. which of the following is a research-supported statement about why this might be the case?
The research supported statement is Health care professionals from minority backgrounds are more likely to work in service to those populations, which means option B is the right answer.
The health care professionals differ in race and ethnic minority, and the difference they create in the jobs is mainly by their attitude to work for betterment and not to widen the gap. The term equity is linked with equality and in healthcare system, it symbolizes the fact that all are given equal opportunity to access the healthcare system, socio economic system, gender identity etc. Health equity aims at reducing the disparity in the system on any ground be it moral, ethical or practical.
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Refer to complete question below:
This lesson cites research suggesting that diversity among health professionals may improve equity. Which of the following is a research-supported statement about why this might be the case?
(A) Health care professionals from minority backgrounds have more responsibility than others for health equity.
(B) Health care professionals from minority backgrounds are more likely to work in service to those populations.
(C) Jobs in health care can help people advance their socioeconomic status.
(D) A and C
FILL IN THE BLANK. Linda has a daughter named Allison who is 2 years old. Every time Allison takes a toy from her baby brother, he cries. Linda punishes Allison by putting her in a time-out chair each time she does this. While she may not realize it, Linda is using a behavior modification technique that is based on the theories of the _____ school.
Linda punishes Allison by putting her in a time-out chair each time she does this. While she may not realize it, Linda is using a behavior modification technique that is based on the theories of the behavioral school.
Behavior therapy includes behaviour change. By using rewards and/or penalties, B. F. Skinner showed how behaviour may be changed. According to Skinner, a reinforcer is a result that makes it more likely that the behaviour will occur again, whereas a punishment lessens the likelihood. In mathematics, the phrases positive and negative are employed. Positive and negative expressions both denote the addition or addition of something, respectively. Therefore, when a behaviour is rewarded, positive reinforcement takes place. Candy is a positive reinforcer (reward) since it is something that is given or added when the behaviour occurs, which makes it appropriate if a youngster enjoys candy and cleaning the room is the desired behaviour. This increases the likelihood of the behaviour returning.
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Sexual behavior and attitudes about sex change over time. What do you think are the biggest changes in sexual attitudes that have happened in our society during your lifetime? Have they been accompanied by changes in behavior?
The biggest changes in sexual attitudes that have happened in our society during my lifetime are that people now identify with different sexual orientations and they go for sex change surgeries.
These changes have been accompanied by changes in behavior in that people try out different sexual practices.
What are some recent changes in sexual orientation?Some recent changes in sexual orientation are those individuals now identify with different sexes other than the one in which they were originally born.
This had led to an increase in sex reconstruction surgeries.
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which of these credentials is mandatory for certain health professionals to practice in their field?
A license is required (mandatory) if a particular medical (health) professional wishes to practice in that field.
Who is considered a medical professional?Medical professionals investigate, diagnose, treat, and prevent human illnesses, injuries, and other physical and mental disorders according to the needs of the people they serve.
Why are healthcare professionals important?Health care providers play an important role in our lives. We rely on them when we are sick or injured and visit for annual checkups to make sure our health is in check.
What are the duties and responsibilities of healthcare professionals?Helps move the patient. Monitor patients and perform basic health checks. Make the patient feel comfortable. Wash and dress the patient. Serving meals and assisting patients with eating.
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which part of the female reproductive system sheds during the menstrual cycle
Answer:
the egg sacks the vagina
Explanation:
eli has a friend who is a new father. this man knows that eli is taking a psychology course and asks him what he can expect during the first year of his child's development. based on sigmund freud's stages of development, eli tells the new father that the first stage his child will pass through is called the stage. please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices oral phallic mouth genital
Eli has a friend who is a new father. This man knows that Eli is taking a psychology course and asks him what he can expect during the first year of his child's development. Based on Sigmund Freud's stages of development, Eli tells the new father that the first stage his child will pass through is called the Oral stage.
According to the psychosexual theory, tensions during the oral stage are what lead to oral fixation. The psychosexual development process begins at this point.
Between birth and roughly 18 months is when the oral stage begins. An infant's mouth provides the majority of their enjoyment throughout this period. This goes along with actions like feeding and sucking one's thumb.
According to Freud, if an infant's oral demands aren't addressed, they may develop oral fixation. They may experience this if they are weaned too soon or too late. They can't effectively adapt to new eating habits in this case.
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Complete Question is:
Eli has a friend who is a new father. This man knows that Eli is taking a psychology course and asks him what he can expect during the first year of his child's development. Based on Sigmund Freud's stages of development, Eli tells the new father that the first stage his child will pass through is called the _____ stage.
phallic
oral
genital
mouth
Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for a client with heart failure? Select all that apply.
A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased peripheral blood flow secondary to decreased cardiac output.
B. Activity intolerance related to increased cardiac output.
C. Decreased cardiac output related to structural and functional changes.
D. Impaired gas exchange related to decreased sympathetic nervous system activity.
The nursing diagnoses which would be appropriate is Ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased peripheral blood flow secondary to decreased cardiac output and Decreased cardiac output related to structural and functional changes. (Option A and C)
Heart failure is the condition when the heart is not able to pump sufficient amount of blood to the lungs and other body parts. Ineffective blood perfusion represents the situation when oxygenated blood is unable to reach the vital organ system due to which their functioning is affected and they certainly stop working which results in death of the person. Whenever, a person suffers from heart attack, they must be allowed to lie own in Fowler's position and enough oxygen must be pumped into the body artificially or by pressing the heart, the life must be sought back again.
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tropic hormones include which of the following? a) ACTH. b) both ACTH and CRH. c) cortisol. d) cortisol, ACTH and CRH. e) CRH.
Tropic hormones include ACTH and CRH. So, option B is the correct alternative.
The anterior pituitary produces and secretes the tropic hormones. The anterior pituitary is the target of these tropic hormones secreted by the hypothalamus, whereas thyroxine is produced by the thyroid. One of the tropic hormones, this is thought to affect the hypothalamus.
The pituitary gland creates the hormone adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Its purpose is to promote the release of cortisol from the cortex, or outside, of the adrenal gland.
The body responds to stress by secreting corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH). A variety of undesirable outcomes can result from having too much or too little corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).
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TRUE OR FALSE Goggles shield the wearer's eyes from impact, heat, chemical, and dust hazards depending upon the type of lenses, frame and ventilation
TRUE, Depending on the kind of lenses, frame, and ventilation, goggles can protect the wearer's eyes against impact, heat, chemical, and dust risks.
The lenses and frames are far more robust than those in a typical pair of eyeglasses. Safety eyewear must adhere to American National Standards Institute guidelines. Look for the Z87 designation on the lens or the frame. Safety glasses provide eye protection in typical working conditions where there may be dust, chips, or flying particles. A pair of safety glasses with side shields and a wraparound design may provide extra side protection. Safety lenses are available in plastic, polycarbonate, and TrivexTM materials. The best level of impact defence is provided by polycarbonate lenses, while all four types of lenses must meet or exceed the minimal requirements for eye protection. Goggles. Goggles provide eye protection from impact, dust, and chemical splash. Like safety glasses, safety goggles are very impact-resistant. Safety glasses may look like regular dress eyewear, but they are made to offer a lot more eye protection. They also offer a safe protection that covers the full eye.
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Collectively, the people suing a medical device company, alleging injuries from a product, would be called ________.
A) the prosecutors.
B) the defendants
C) the counterdefendants in a
counterclaim.
D) the counterplaintiffs in a
counterclaim.
E) a class for a tort action.
Collectively, the people suing a medical device company, alleging injuries from a product, would be called E) a class for a tort action.
A class for a tort case would be used to refer to all of the plaintiffs in a medical device company lawsuit who are claiming product-related injuries.
For the purpose of diagnosing, treating, or preventing various medical diseases, medical device businesses create medical gadgets and surgical tools. Medical devices include, among others, pacemakers, prosthetic joints, ventilators, stents, and strong depressors. According to the definition of "Medical Device Company" under the Food and Drug Administration's Current Good Manufacturing Practice rule, this type of business produces and sells completed medical devices. A medical device can be any instrument, apparatus, tool, machine, appliance, implant, in vitro reagent, software, substance, or other similar or related item that is intended by the manufacturer to be used, either alone or in combination, for a medical purpose.
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which of the following is a good reason for a couple to receive genetic counseling before they plan a pregnancy?
Answer:
to prevent sickle-celled children
Explanation:
When a couple gets married without any genetic testing and counselling. If they are both AS's they have a risk of.giving birth to a child who is sickle-celled due to the fact that AS+AS=AA, AS,AS and SS
Match the plasma components with their function. 1. Protein that maintains osmotic pressure (Click to select 2. Transports lipids (Click to select 3. A type of antibody for defense (Click to select 4. Helps with blood clotting (Click to select 5. Used and produced during cellular respiration (Click to select 6. Vitamins, lipids, sugars, amino acids transported to cells for use in metabolic processes (Click to select 7. Waste produced in metabolism and amino acids
Match the plasma components with their function.
1. Protein that maintains osmotic pressure: Albumin
2. Transports lipids: Alpha and beta globulin
3. A type of antibody for defense: Gamma globulin
4. Helps with blood clotting: Fibrinogen
5. Used and produced during cellular respiration: Plasma gases
6. Vitamins, lipids, sugars, amino acids transported to cells for use in metabolic processes: Plasma nutrients
7. Waste produced in metabolism and amino acids: Nonprotein nitrogenous substances correct
Red, white, and platelet-containing red blood cells are suspended in plasma, an aqueous component of blood that contains proteins and salt. It makes up about 55% of the total blood volume. Albumin, coagulation factors, fibrinolytic proteins, immunoglobulin, and other proteins are significant plasma components.
Within hours following donation, plasma is frequently refrigerated to protect the clotting components. Within 24 hours after thawing, frozen plasma products are transfused and have a shelf life of 12 months. About 90% of the material in plasma is water, while the other 10% is made up of ions, proteins, dissolved gases, nutrition molecules, and wastes. The clotting factors, albumin, and fibrinogen proteins, which keep the serum osmotic pressure constant, are among the proteins found in plasma.
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on her way to visiting rwanda for the first time, dian wonders what the people there will expect from her during their interactions. dian is concerned about
Dian is on her way to Rwanda for the first time, and she is unsure of what to anticipate from the locals there. Dian is concerned about social roles
People can influence our behavior in a variety of ways, but the expectation-setting impact of their presence is perhaps one of the most important. Social norms are the unstated standards for attitudes, behaviors, and beliefs that are considered appropriate in a particular social group or society. We have an assumed understanding of how to behave thanks to norms, which help to maintain order and predictability in society.
Understanding social influence generally and conformity specifically can be aided by the concept of norms. The recognized norms of social groups are known as social norms.
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The complete question is:
on her way to visiting Rwanda for the first time, Dian wonders what the people there will expect from her during their interactions. Dian is concerned about ___________________
stress has not only become a way of life, but it has also become a sometimes-welcomed friend. add it to your college, job, family, and you have the potential for continual stress. understanding that stress is a part of life and cannot be avoided, strategies must be developed to facilitate adaptation. discussion questions: 1-what is your definition of stress? 2-what are the phycological and physiological indicators of stress? 3-identify a personal situation you found highly stressful? 4-which techniques can be used to manage or reduce stress? note: you are to submit your answers in the discussion board and to reply to two peers. support your responses with at least 2 peer-reviewed references within 5 years of publication. all responses must be in a narrative format and each paragraph must have at least 4 sentences.
Stress could lead to the loss of some of the functions of the body and extreme dizziness.
What are the phycological and physiological indicators of stress?Stress has to do with a condition that a person has become overstretched such that the person can no longer be able to carry out regular activities.
The psychological indicators of stress include: anxiety, irritability, restlessness, sadness, depression, and mood swings. Physiological indicators of stress include: increased heart rate, elevated blood pressure, muscle tension, headache, sweating, dizziness, fatigue, and difficulty sleeping.
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T/F the greatest benefit from static stretching can be achieved when it is performed within 10-minutes of ceasing exercise, practice or competition.
It is true that the greatest benefit from static stretching can be achieved when it is performed within 10 minutes of ceasing exercise, practice, or competition. (Option - True)
Stretch a specific muscle until you feel the tension as if hold the position for 15 to 60 seconds. This is considered the safest way to stretch. It is done gently. It let the muscles and connective tissue time to “reset” the stretch reflex.
Static stretching has a relaxing effect on muscles. This increases the range of motion and decreases musculotendinous stiffness. Stretching also reduces the risk of acute muscle strain injuries. It is a controlled movement that emphasizes postural awareness and alignment of the body.
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