If a nurse is taking care of a preoperative patient who just had intravenous lorazepam and is now asking to urinate. The safest and least invasive nursing intervention is to place the client on a bedpan.
What is lorazepam?
The drug lorazepam, also known by the commercial name Ativan, belongs to the benzodiazepine class. It is used to treat alcohol withdrawal, anxiety disorders, extreme agitation, difficulty sleeping, active seizures, including status epilepticus, and chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. Additionally, it is used to sedate patients who are receiving mechanical ventilation during surgery and to prevent memory formation. Along with other treatments, it is also applied to acute coronary syndrome brought on by cocaine usage. It can be administered orally or as an injection into a vein or muscle.
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a nurse is administering darbepoetin alfa to a client. the nurse assesses an elevated hemoglobin level and prepares to take necessary steps to avoid which potential complication(s)? select all that apply.
Answer is a and b, respectively. Used to stimulate the production of erythrocyte and Drug is a glycoprotein. Injections of darbepoetin alfa are also used to treat anemia brought on by chemotherapy in patients with specific cancers.
Darbepoetin alfa has not been proven to reduce fatigue or a lack of well-being that may be brought on by anemia, and it cannot be used in place of a red blood cell transfusion to treat severe anemia. Subcutaneous injections of this drug can be administered into the thigh, arm, or belly. Additionally, this medicine may be infused directly into a vein. Your height and weight, general health or other health issues, the type of cancer or illness being treated, and the amount of darbepoetin alfa you will receive are just a few of the variables that will determine how much you will receive.
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Question- A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the darbepoetin alfa which the health care provider has prescribed. Which facts about this drug should the nurse incorporate in the teaching? Select all that apply.
A. Used to stimulate the production of erythrocytes
B. Drug is a glycoprotein.
C. Used to stimulate thrombopoiesis
D. Helps stimulate differentiation of leukocytes.
E. Promotes the maturation of megakaryocytes.
the nurse begins the physical examination of a newly admitted client by assessing the client's mental status. what is the nurse's best rationale for performing the mental status exam early in the assessment?
The reason the nurse performs a mental status examination at the start of the assessment is to obtain a comprehensive and cross-sectional picture of the patient's mental state.
What is the metal status?The mental status examination is a comprehensive mental examination intended to include an overall assessment of the subject's personality and cognitive, emotional, and behavioral status.
The mental status examination includes mental status assessment, awareness assessment, psychomotor activity assessment, orientation assessment, perception assessment, thought form and content assessment, mood and affect assessment, impulse control assessment, reality assessment, and insight ability assessment.
In the initial assessment of treatment, mental status is needed in order to get a comprehensive picture and cross-section of the patient's mental state.
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taking care of pt post op, the goal is the increase mobility (ambulation), what is an important intervention to decrease the risk of pressure injury?
An important intervention to reduce the risk of pressure injury is using foam pads and pillows to help relieve pressure on bony parts of the body when lying in bed.
Pressure injuries are sores that appear when bone presses against the outer surface of the skin for a long time. These sores are also known as bedsores. This is very common for people who lie in bed most of the day and use wheelchairs. Pressure sores can occur anywhere on the body. However, they often appear in bony areas, such as the coccyx or spine.
More severe pressure sores are very difficult to heal. And it takes a long time to heal. Therefore, the best course of action is to prevent it. Pressure sores can be avoided by changing the patient's sleeping position every two hours or every 15 minutes if they are in a wheelchair. This will reduce the pressure and improve their blood circulation.
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the nurse assesses a 5-year-old client for a well-child visit prior to the start of school (above). what finding from the assessment requires follow-up?
The assessment by the nurse which requires follow-up while assessing a 5-year-old client for a well-child visit prior to the start of school is: (3) Lateral curvature to the spine noted on examination.
Well-child visits are the normal visits to the doctor to check for the health and normal development of the children. It also focuses on preventing the children from any infectious diseases and ensuring timely immunizations.
Lateral curvature of spine is the curve of the spine sideways. This condition is called scoliosis. The small children are very cpommonly seen affected by this lateral curvature. However the reason for its occurrence remains unknown.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse assesses a 5-year-old client for a well-child visit prior to the start of school (above). What finding from the assessment requires follow-up?
1. Bilateral bowlegs (genu varum).
2. Chest rounded with the anteroposterior diameter equal to the lateral diameter.
3. Lateral curvature to the spine noted on examination
4. Presence of an S3 heart sound.
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_______ is the maximum amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people, and beyond this maximum amount might be toxic
Tolerable Upper Intake Level is the maximum amount of a nutrient that appears safe for most healthy people, and beyond this maximum amount might be toxic.
Tolerable Upper Intake Level or UL is the highest level of nutrient intake that poses (most likely) no risk of adverse health effects in the general population. In another word, the UL is the maximum amount of nutrients that one can consume regularly without causing any adverse health effects on their body.
An example of UL is a 2,000 mg a day UL for vitamin C. Too much vitamin C generally can cause diarrhea, vomiting, and nausea. It can even cause stomach cramps, bloating, and heartburn.
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the spouse of a client believed to be a victim of intimate partner violence refuses to leave the room for the nurse to complete an assessment. what should the nurse do first?
In order for the nurse to do an evaluation and allow the client make a decision, the spouse of a client who is thought to be a victim of intimate relationship abuse refuses to leave the room.
Encourage the client to go to support groups.
Teach methods for solving issues and managing stress.
According to a nurse who wishes to assist those who have been the victims of intimate partner violence, "power and control are crucial to the dynamic of intimate partner violence."
Intimate partner violence results from resentment over the interference with the developing pregnancy and change in the woman's body.
Intimate relationship violence frequently happens because the partner thinks the kid will be a rival after birth.
Intimate partner violence is brought on by insecurities and jealousies over the pregnancy and the responsibilities it brings.
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all of the following represent states of malnutrition, except which answer? weight loss resulting from increased physical activity. overweight status as a result of regular ingestion of large portions of energy-dense foods. osteoporosis as a result of long-term inadequate intake of calcium and vitamin d. vitamin a toxicity as a result of excessive intake of vitamin supplements
All of the following are states of malnutrition, except d. vitamin A toxicity as a result of excessive intake of vitamin supplements.
What is nutrition?Nutrition is a substance as a building component of the human body to maintain and repair tissues so that the function of the human body can run as it should. Ignoring nutritional intake also means letting the body's tissue functions not work optimally. Sources of nutrition are found in every food and drink we have consumed so far.
Malnutrition is a condition in which the body does not get enough nutrition, such as protein, vitamins, calories, and minerals intake. If someone is poisoned because of excess vitamins, that is not one of the causes of malnutrition, because the effects of malnutrition will cause a thin body, wasting, and even stunting.
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a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa has taken a saline cathartic to lose weight. what is the client at risk for?
A client who is suffering from anorexia nervosa that has taken a saline cathartic to lose weight is at risk for diarrhea.
Anorexia nervosa is a type of eating disorder. It's characterized by a distorted body image and abnormally body weight, accompanied by an intense and unwarranted fear of gaining weight.
People with anorexia prone to take saline cathartic, which is an agent that quickens and increases evacuation from the bowl (kind of like laxatives) to get rid of their weight gain. Since saline cathartic acts like laxatives, it increases the risk of getting diarrhea for the person.
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a client has been prescribed oral cyclosporine following a successful liver transplant. when providing education, the nurse should advise the client to avoid mixing the drug with what liquid?
Following a successful liver transplant the nurse should advise the client to not mix cyclosporine with any form of grapefruit juice.
For a short time after delivery, grapefruit juice slows the metabolism of cyclosporine, which may be explained by the suppression of cytochrome P450 enzymes in the gut wall and, to a lesser extent, the liver. While taking cyclosporine medication, avoid consuming grapefruit or grapefruit juice. The amount of medication in the body will be increased by grapefruit and grapefruit juice. A crucial enzyme called CYP3A4 is involved in the small intestine's role in the metabolism (drug breakdown) of many medications. As a result, more of the drug enters the bloodstream and is retained longer by the body rather than being digested by intestinal CYP3A4. Too much medication in your body as a result.
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The above question is incomplete. Check below the complete question-
A client has a successful liver transplant. The nurse should advise the client prescribed oral cyclosporine to avoid mixing the drug with what form of liquid?
A. any type of grapefruit juice
B. Apples juice
C. Coffee
D. Sugarcane juice
pauline is middle-aged. her greatest health concern is most likely to be pauline is middle-aged. her greatest health concern is most likely to be
The arthritis is middle-aged. her greatest health concern is most likely to be.
What is health concern ?
The patient, the patient's family, or the patient's healthcare professional may be interested in, concerned about, or interested in matters relating to health.
What is arthritis?
It is believed that the immune system's flaw, which leads the body to attack its own tissues in the joints, is what causes the majority of kinds of arthritis. This could be passed down through genetics. An immune system disorder or a metabolic disorder like gout can lead to the development of other types of arthritis.
Therefore, arthritis is middle-aged. her greatest health concern is most likely to be.
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a doctor orders 5.0 ml of phenobarbital elixir. if the phenobarbital elixir is available as 60. mg per 15 ml , how many milligrams is given to the patient?
A barbiturate is PHENOBARBITAL. You might use it to aid with sleep or to assist reduce seizures. If you have any questions, speak with your doctor or pharmacist.
The phenobarbital elixir in an image Phenobarbital produces blood levels of around 20 mcg/mL quickly after administration in paediatric patients and newborns when given at a loading dose of 15 to 20 mg/kg. Phenobarbital has been used to prevent febrile seizures as well as treat them. One technique entails replacing each 100- to 200-mg dose of barbiturate the patient has been taking with a 30-mg dose of phenobarbital. The total daily dose of phenobarbital is then given in 3 or 4 divided doses, with a maximum daily dose of 600 mg.
Solution:
Minimal dose.
= 60/15
= 4
Dosage of phenobarbital
= 4* 5.0
= 20 mg.
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a client is diagnosed with a postpartum infection. the nurse is most correct to provide which instruction?
A client that is diagnosed with a postpartum infection. The proper instructions give to the client which is diagnosed with a postpartum infection by the nurse is to finish all antibiotics to decrease a genital tract infection.
A postpartum infection is known as an infection of the genital tract after delivery through the first 6 weeks postpartum. It is considered to be the most important to include finishing all antibiotics in nursing instructions. Endometritis is considered to be an infection of the mucous membrane or endometrium of the uterus. Cystitis is also an infection of the bladder. Infection of the perineum or episiotomy is known as a localized infection and not inclusive of the entire genital tract.
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the nurse is explaining to a group of college students how the body tries to maintain a steady supply of glucose for energy between meals. the nurse explains that the liver breaks down which substance to release glucose?
A nurse is teaching to a group of college students how the body attempts to maintain a constant supply of glucose for energy between meals. The nurse explains that glycogen is broken down by the liver to release glucose.
Who is nurse?According to Merriam-Webster, nurses are certified healthcare professionals who practice independently or under the supervision of a physician, surgeon, or dentist and are experienced in promoting and preserving health. Nurses are present in every community, large and small, providing competent care from birth to death. Nurses' responsibilities span from direct patient care and case management to implementing quality assurance processes and overseeing complicated nursing care systems. Nurses treat injuries, dispense prescriptions, do regular medical exams, document complete medical histories, monitor heart rate and blood pressure, run diagnostic tests, handle medical equipment, draw blood, and admit/discharge patients as directed by physicians.
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a 72-year-old woman has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of bacterial pneumonia. at the beginning of shift, the nurse notes that the client's previously existing wheeze is not as loud as it had been the day prior and is now audible only on inspiration. how should the nurse best interpret this change in the client's condition?
The nurse should interpret this change as a sign of improvement in the client's condition. This could indicate that the treatment is beginning to take effect and the client is starting to respond positively to the treatment.
What is treatment?
Treatment is any form of medical or psychological care that is provided to a patient in order to diagnose, manage, or alleviate a health condition. This can include medication, counseling, physical therapy, or lifestyle changes.
Therefore, The nurse should interpret this change as a sign of improvement in the client's condition. This could indicate that the treatment is beginning to take effect and the client is starting to respond positively to the treatment.
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codeine sulfate is prescribed for a client with severe back pain. which parameters does the nurse monitor while the client is taking this medication?
The parameter that the nurse monitors when the client takes codeine sulfate is to monitor bowel activity.
Codeine is a drug for moderate and severe pain. Usually, this drug is combined with other drugs to treat coughs and treat diarrhea. This drug is included in the class of opioid analgesic drugs which can help relieve pain but do not cure the cause while speeding up the body's recovery process from illness.
The way these drugs work is to change the way the brain and nervous system deal with pain. When this medication is used to relieve a cough, it can reduce activity in the part of the brain that causes coughing.
The adverse reactions most commonly observed with codeine administration include drowsiness, dizziness, lightheadedness, sedation, shortness of breath, nausea, vomiting, sweating, and constipation. Other adverse reactions include allergic reactions, euphoria, dysphoria, abdominal pain, and pruritis. Monitoring bowel activity can cause the patient to be constipated.
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flvs driver education according to lesson 4.5, what are 3 of the 4 questions you can ask yourself when assessing your fitness to drive?
3 of the 4 questions you can ask yourself when assessing your fitness to drive are:
If you really have the psychological capabilities to drive at that moment.If my paperwork granting me the permission to drive are still valid.If I am familiar with traffic lawsWhat is driving education?
Driver's education, often known as driver's ed, driving tuition, or driving lessons, is a structured class or programme that gets a new driver ready to get their learner's permit or driver's licence. Current licence holders may also be prepared for a driving test, medical evaluation, or refresher course through the formal class programme. A mixture of the above may be used, as well as a classroom, a car, or the internet.
What is driving ?
Driving, which can apply to cars, motorbikes, trucks, buses, and bicycles, is the controlled operation and movement of a vehicle. Drivers are required to abide by the local traffic and road laws when driving on public highways. Permission to drive on public highways is granted subject to a number of requirements being met.
If you really have the psychological capabilities to drive at that moment.
If my paperwork granting me the permission to drive are still valid.
If I am familiar with traffic laws
Therefore, Assessing the driver, the four questions i would ask are mentioned one by one .
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the nurse is caring for a client who requires a vegan diet. the nurse notices that most of the client's meal was not eaten. lunch consisted of a burrito that was made with refried beans, lettuce, tomato, and soy cheese; a side salad without dressing; fresh watermelon; and a glass of coconut milk. which food item did the client not consider part of the vegan diet?
The nurse is caring for a client who requires a vegan diet but she notices that most of the client's meal was not eaten and the lunch consisted of a burrito that was made with refried beans, lettuce, tomato, and soy cheese, a food item the client did not consider part of the vegan diet.
All animal products, such as dairy, meat, and eggs, are forbidden in a vegan or plant-based diet. When vegan diets are properly followed, they may be very nourishing, lower the risk of developing chronic illnesses, and help individuals lose weight. However, those who primarily consume plant-based meals must be more knowledgeable about how to receive certain minerals, such as iron, calcium, and vitamin B-12, which are often found in an omnivorous diet. A 2017 research found that adopting a vegan diet may 15% lower one's chance of developing cancer. The fact that plant-based diets are rich in fiber, vitamins, and phytochemicals biologically active plant molecules that fight cancer may be the cause of this health advantage.
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a nurse should monitor a client taking short-term high-dose methylprednisolone (medrol) for signs and symptoms of cushing's syndrome that include what sign or symptom? (select all that apply.)
Long-term usage of high dosages of glucocorticoids can result in the condition known as Cushing's syndrome. The common symptoms are buffalo hump, moon face, oily skin, acne etc. So, option E is correct.
A nurse should monitor a client taking short-term high-dose methylprednisolone for signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome, which can include the following:
1. Weight gain: Most patients with Cushing's syndrome experience rapid weight gain, especially in the face, neck, trunk, and upper extremities.
2. Round face: The face may become rounded, with full cheeks and a moon-like shape.
3. Bruising: Easy bruising is a common side effect of Cushing's syndrome, and the skin may also be thin and fragile.
4. Acne: The skin may get infected with acne, hirsutism, and a purple-red stretch mark.
5. Fatigue: Patients frequently experience weakness and fatigue, and they may experience this even after getting a good night's sleep.
6. Hypertension: High blood pressure can develop, increasing the risk of stroke and heart disease.
7. Mood changes: People who have Cushing's syndrome may experience mood changes such irritability, despair, and anxiety.
Finally, it is critical for the nurse to keep an eye out for any signs or symptoms of Cushing's syndrome in the patient receiving short-term, high-dose methylprednisolone and to notify the doctor of any changes. By doing so, the client will receive the right care, helping to stop or slow the development of Cushing's syndrome.
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The question seems incomplete. The complete question seems to be :-
A nurse should monitor a client taking short-term high-dose methylprednisolone (Medrol) for signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome that include which of the following? Select all that apply:
A) Buffalo hump
B) Moon face
C) Oily skin
D) Acne
E) All of the above
physicians draw on numerous sources of information on patient health. the function of lungs, for instance, can be checked through careful listening with a stethoscope. such practice is called auscultation and falls under which of the following particular physiological specialties?
Auscultation falls under the specialty of pulmonology, which is the study of the respiratory system and the diseases related to it.
Pulmonology: The Study of Respiratory Health and Auscultation
Pulmonology is a medical specialty that focuses on the study of the respiratory system and the diagnosis and treatment of respiratory diseases. This specialty is concerned with the function and structure of the lungs, bronchi, trachea, and alveoli, as well as the muscles used for breathing. One of the important diagnostic techniques used in pulmonology is auscultation, which involves listening to the sounds made by the lungs and chest with a stethoscope. Auscultation is a valuable tool for evaluating the function of the lungs and detecting any abnormal sounds that may indicate the presence of a respiratory condition. In combination with other diagnostic tools and medical history, auscultation helps pulmonologists diagnose and treat a wide range of respiratory diseases, including asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), lung cancer, and more.
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how can radiation be controlled and safely used in medicine? how can radiation be controlled and safely used in medicine? apply radiation throughout the body at uncontrolled doses. apply radiation to specific parts of the body at controlled doses. apply radiation to specific parts of the body at uncontrolled doses. apply radiation throughout the body at controlled doses.
The radiation can be controlled and safely used in medicine if we apply radiation to specific parts of the body at controlled doses, thus option D is the correct answer.
The most popular form of radiation therapy used to treat cancer is external radiation, often known as external beam radiation. High-energy external rays or particles are directed towards the tumor using a machine. More frequently than particle proton, neutron, or electron beams, photon x-ray beams are used as external beam radiation. External beam radiation therapy may now be administered with extreme care thanks to radiation technology. The devices precisely target the radiation beam so as to increase the amount of radiation that reaches the tumor while also minimizing the impact on healthy tissues.
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The complete question is:
How can radiation be controlled and safely used in medicine?
A) Apply radiation throughout the body at uncontrolled doses.
B) Apply radiation throughout the body at controlled doses.
C) Apply radiation to specific parts of the body at uncontrolled doses.
D) Apply radiation to specific parts of the body at controlled doses.
while receiving a shift report on a patient, the nurse is informed that the patient has urinary incontinence. upon assessment, which finding will the nurse expect?
When a nurse receives a shift report on a patient, she learns that the patient suffers from urine incontinence. The nurse would anticipate detecting reddened inflamed skin on the buttocks during the evaluation. Option B is correct.
Current UTI signs and symptoms. Document any concomitant discomfort or soreness in the suprapubic, flank, or costovertebral angle (CVA) areas, as well as any urinary frequency or urgency, nocturia, bloody urine, incontinence, hesitation, or dysuria.
Urinary incontinence is the uncontrollable elimination of pee; if the urine comes into prolonged contact with the skin, skin breakdown can result. Urine retention can be treated using an indwelling Foley catheter. Infection is frequently indicated by blood clots and foul-smelling discharge. The insertion of an indwelling urethral catheter (IDC) is just an invasive procedure that should only be done under aseptic conditions.
Insertion of such an indwelling urethral catheter (IDC) is an invasive operation that should only be performed by a nurse or doctor using an aseptic technique if problems or difficulties with insertion are expected. Chattelization of a urinary tract should be performed only when a particular and appropriate clinical justification exists, as there is a risk of infection.
The complete Question is
While receiving a shift report on a patient, the nurse is informed that the patient has urinary incontinence. Upon assessment, which finding will the nurse expect?
a. An indwelling Foley catheter
b. Reddened irritated skin on buttocks
c. Tiny blood clots in the patient's urine
d. Foul-smelling discharge indicative of infection
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examine the nutrition facts label for almonds. approximately what percent of calories comes from saturated fat in this food product?
One ounce of almonds provides 5% saturated fat.
Saturated fat is often referred to as bad fat. When consumed in excess, this type of fat can increase the risk of various dangerous diseases, such as heart disease and stroke. Therefore, it is important to limit the consumption of foods that contain saturated fat.
When consumed in excess, saturated fat can trigger an increase in bad cholesterol (LDL) levels in the blood and increase the risk of various health problems, such as cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes.
Saturated fats can also come from plants. Usually, this type of saturated fat is contained in vegetable oils, such as palm oil, almond oil, and coconut oil.
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how long should eyes be flushed at the eyewash station?
Keep in mind that any chemical splashes should be washed for at least 15 minutes, but up to 60 minutes. The water's temperature needs to be bearable for the necessary amount of time.
Hypothermia can develop from prolonged flushing with cold water, therefore it's important to take the correct amount of time in the shower or rinse. According to the American Heart Association, cooling thermal burns with water between 15 and 25°C lowers pain, edema, and the extent of the injury. Workers won't be able to rinse or shower for as long as they should if the water is excessively cold or hot. Install anti-scalding devices, flow meters, and other equipment to assist keep the temperature and flow rate consistent. Emergency showers with heated piping are provided for cold or outdoor areas. A tempering valve should be included in outdoor emergency showers in hot areas to prevent employees from coming into contact with overheated water.
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the primary health care provider prescribed ketoconazole for a child with ringworm. which statement by the parents indicates the nurse needs to provide additional teaching on the prescription?
The statement by the parents that indicates the nurse needs to provide additional teaching on the prescription is "I will wrap the skin tightly after applying the medication."
What is the use of ketoconazole?Tinea infections are treated with the antifungal ketoconazole. The nurse would advise against tightly concealing portions of skin that had been treated. To lessen side effects, the location must permit air to circulate to the skin. The rest of the sentences demonstrate accurate comprehension.A number of fungal infections are treated with ketoconazole, an antiandrogen and antifungal drug that is marketed under the trade names Nizoral among others. Infections caused by fungi on the skin, including as tinea, cutaneous candidiasis, pityriasis versicolor, dandruff, and seborrheic dermatitis, can be treated with this medication when applied topically.The antifungal drug ketoconazole belongs to the imidazole class of drugs. It functions by preventing infection-causing fungus from growing as quickly.For more information on ketoconazole kindly visit to
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Complete question : The primary health care provider prescribed ketoconazole for a child with ringworm. Which statement by the parents indicates the nurse needs to provider additional teaching on the prescription?
A) "I will wrap the skin tightly after applying the medication."
B) "I will wash my hands before and after I apply this medication."
C) "If this medication gets in my child's eyes, I will rinse with water immediately."
D) "My child needs to take the full prescribed dosage."
when cleaning the pins on a patient in skeletal traction, the nurse should: (select all that apply) group of answer choices
When drawing the legs on a case in cadaverous traction, the nanny should clean closest to the skin perforation point in a indirect motion secure ends of line with cork or tenacious tape recording.
A career in nursing focuses on furnishing care to individualities, families, and communities in order for them to achieve, maintain, or recapture optimal health and quality of life. The way nursers watch for cases, their education, and the extent of their practice can set them piecemeal from other healthcare professionals. nursers work in a variety of specializations with varying degrees of defining power. utmost healthcare workplaces are dominated by nursers, still there's substantiation of a global deficit of good nursers. nursers unite with croakers, nanny interpreters, physical therapists, and psychologists, among other healthcare professionals. In the US, nursers typically can not define medicines, in discrepancy to nanny interpreters. nursers holding a graduate degree in advanced practice nursing are known as nanny interpreters.
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the nurse is caring for a client who has developed obvious signs of pulmonary edema. what is the priority nursing action?
The client being looked after by the nurse has apparent pulmonary edema symptoms. The top nursing directive is to remain stay the patient.
Here, correct answer will be C) Stay with the patient.
A buildup of fluid in the lungs' alveoli disrupts gas exchange and is known as pulmonary edema. There are two main types of pulmonary edema: cardiogenic and noncardiogenic.
Comprehensive screening and monitoring by nurses are crucial for the early diagnosis of pulmonary edema with impending respiratory distress. Complex comorbidities, medication nonadherence, and lifestyle risk factors that put the client at risk for pulmonary edema will be found through an effective history-taking procedure.
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Complete question is:-
The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed obvious signs of pulmonary edema. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Lay the patient flat.
B) Notify the family of the patients critical state.
C) Stay with the patient.
D) Update the physician.
Antipsychotic drugs reduce delusions and hallucinations by blocking receptor sites for dopamine. they are, therefore, dopamine?
Since dopamine is a neurotransmitter, it transmits signals throughout your brain.
What is dopamine?
Dopamine (DA), a neuromodulatory molecule with the chemical name 3,4-dihydroxyphenethylamine, has a number of critical functions in living cells. The catecholamine and phenethylamine families of organic chemicals make up this substance. In the brain, catecholamines make up around 80% of the total amount.
What is Antipsychotic drugs ?
Antipsychotics, usually referred to as neuroleptics, are a group of psychotropic drugs used largely to treat psychosis (which includes delusions, hallucinations, paranoia, or disordered thought), most commonly in schizophrenia but also in a variety of other psychotic illnesses. Along with mood stabilisers, they are essential in the management of bipolar disorder.
Therefore, dopamine is a neurotransmitter, it transmits signals throughout your brain.
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Which of the following activities are addressed by most public health departments on the federal, state, and local levels? (Select all that apply.)
A. Collecting and analyzing various health statistics
B. Fining or terminating business at any facility that engages in unsafe commercial practices
C. Identifying and planning for high-risk populations
D. Planning for and responding to emergencies
The correct options are A,C and D, that are collecting and analyzing various health statistics, identifying and planning for high-risk populations, and planning for and responding to emergencies.
Determine and keep track of the health state of the population, health-related issues, and community needs and resources. investigate, identify, and resolve the population's health issues and threats. Inform and educate people about health, issues that affect it, and ways to enhance it through effective communication. To enhance health, consolidate, encourage, and activate partnerships and communities. Create, support, and put into action laws, strategies, and policies that have an impact on health. Use legislative and regulatory measures created to enhance and safeguard the public's health. Ensure an efficient system that allows everyone to have equal access to the personal services and care they require to stay healthy. Develop and sustain a trained and diversified public health staff.
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the nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed sumatriptan. in order to maximize therapeutic benefit while reducing the risk of adverse effects, the nurse should encourage the client to implement which intervention?
The nurse should encourage the client to take sumatriptan as prescribed, including the dosage, timing, and frequency.
The nurse should also advise the customer to take the drug with food to reduce the threat of gastrointestinal adverse goods. The nurse should further explain the significance of not taking further than the maximum recommended tablet of sumatriptan in a 24- hour period, as this could lead to serotonin pattern.
The nurse should also advise the customer that if no relief is felt after taking the first cure, that a alternate cure shouldn't be taken. The nurse should also encourage the customer to report any adverse goods that may do, similar as casket pain, miserliness, or discomfort, as these could be signs of a heart attack.
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Hemorrhoids and diverticula may sometimes result from excessive straining during defecation due to ?
Hemorrhoids and diverticula may result from straining during bowel movements due to constipation.
Hemorrhoids are usually caused by straining with bowel movements, obesity, or pregnancy. Discomfort is a common symptom, especially during bowel movements and while sitting. Other symptoms include itching and bleeding. Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by the development of small bulging sacs in the colon (colon). Diverticulosis occurs when small, swollen sacs (diverticula) develop in the digestive tract. When one or more of these sacs becomes inflamed or infected, it is called diverticulitis. Diverticula are small, bulging sacs that form inside the digestive system.
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