Ask your doctor about the chickenpox vaccine if you're thinking about getting pregnant and you haven't had chickenpox or received a vaccination yet.
Do chicken pox vaccines exist?To prevent chickenpox, there are two vaccines available: Both children and adults are protected from chickenpox by the vaccine. Children are shielded from measles, mumps, rubella, and chicken pox by the MMRV vaccine.
What if I'm pregnant and my child develops chicken pox?Contact your GP, midwife, or NHS 111 right away if you believe you have chickenpox while pregnant. Getting chickenpox during pregnancy can lead to for both the mother and the unborn child, so you should seek medical attention very once.
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a dairy farmer wants to mix a 75% protein supplement and a standard 50% protein ration to make 1600 pounds of a high-grade 70% protein ration. how many pounds of each should he use?
Let the protein supplement be equal to x. Protein ration be 1600-x compound.
75% protein supplement = x pounds.
50% protein ration = (1600-x) compound.
0.75x + 0.50(1600 - x) = 1600 x 0.7
0.75x + 800 - 0.50x = 1120
0.75x - 0.50x = 1120- 800
0.25x = 320
x = 1280
75% protein supplement = 1280 pounds
50% protein ration = 1600 - 1280= 320 pounds.
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the client has developed a pressure area on the hip that has become infected. if the wound culture reveals vancomycin-resistant enterococci (vre), which medication will the nurse expect to be prescribed?
The medication that the nurse expects to be prescribed for a client who has an infection in the hip is an antibiotic.
What is a pelvic infection?Pelvic inflammation is an infection of the female reproductive organs, such as the cervix, uterus, and ovaries. Pelvic inflammation can be characterized by pain in the pelvis or lower abdomen. This condition needs to be treated to prevent complications, such as ectopic pregnancy or infertility, so antibiotics are needed to prevent enterococci.
Types of bacteria that often cause pelvic inflammation are bacteria that cause sexually transmitted infections, such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
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what are the results of a sound diet versus a poor diet? what changes can you make so that your diet is sound?
The result of a healthy diet versus a bad diet is that a healthy diet will improve nutrition and nutrition in the body and avoid various diseases, while a bad diet can cause various dangerous diseases such as cholesterol, heart failure, or kidney stone disease.
Changes you can make to keep your diet healthy are balancing the nutrients in your diet and not skipping good carbohydrates and fats and exercising regularly.
What is a healthy diet?A healthy diet is an attempt to regulate the portions and types of healthy food consumed in order to maintain health and nutritional status and prevent or help cure disease. Meanwhile, an unhealthy diet can bring various types of diseases.
In carrying out a healthy diet, of course, various changes are made such as doing regular exercise, continuing to consume good carbohydrates and fats, and balancing good nutrition in food.
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the public health nurse has identified obesity as a health problem in the community. which action taken by the nurse demonstrates the core policy development function of public health at the community level?
Action taken by the nurse demonstrates the assurance as a core policy development function of public health at the community level.
AssuranceEnforce laws and rules that safeguard the environment and guarantee safety. Connecting individuals to the necessary environmental health services and ensuring their delivery when those services are unavailable are two ways to ensure their provision.Assurance's job is to audit management plans to make sure that the right standards have been established and that the outcomes of quality control have been implemented. The management plans must to outline processes and procedures as well.Assuring that people's health requirements are properly and securely satisfied includes a variety of tasks. For instance, this category includes the government's function of regulating through inspection and licensing.For more information on assurance kindly visit to
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the nurse is educating the family of a patient in hospice care who is receiving morphine for pain because of a terminal illness. which statement by the family member indicates the need for further teaching?
Nurse can only give the pain medications when requested.
What are hospice care?Hospice care is a sort of medical care that focuses on addressing the emotional and spiritual needs of terminally ill patients as well as relieving their physical symptoms and pain. By minimising pain and suffering, hospice care stresses comfort and quality of life. Hospice care offers a substitute for therapies aimed at prolonging life that may be taxing, likely to worsen symptoms, or not in line with a person's objectives.
The procedures of the Medicare system and other health insurance carriers, which cover inpatient or at-home hospice care for patients with terminal conditions who are expected to live for six months or less, are largely responsible for defining hospice care in the United States. As part of the Medicare Hospice Benefit, hospice care
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a client seen at the health department has been diagnosed with a communicable sexually transmitted disease. the nurse realizes the client will need patient education. what is the best rationale for this education?
The insurance company's desire to stop paying for your benefits and medical care rather than communicable diseases as the main cause for this education.
The actual name of the client?The client is a person who has applied for assistance from a welfare group or has received it at some point in the past. Software or a workstation connected to a server can be used to conduct an information or data search.
As an example, use a client.When you buy a cup of coffee at a cafe kiosk at the train station, you are a customer of the establishment. The proprietor of the coffee shop is the supplier's client, nevertheless, when credit terms are in place.
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the air quality index measures the group of answer choices deterioration in the ozone layer. amount that visibility is diminished by smog. concentration of five air pollutants of concern to health. level of carbon monoxide over the previous ten days.
The Air Quality Index measures the concentration of five air pollutants of concern to health.
What is the Air Quality Index?
The Air Quality Index (AQI) is a numerical scale used to measure the concentration of five major air pollutants: ozone, particulate matter, nitrogen dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and carbon monoxide. The AQI provides a standardized measure of the quality of the air in a specific location and ranges from 0 to 500, with higher values indicating worse air quality.
The AQI is calculated based on the levels of these five pollutants and is intended to help individuals understand the health risks associated with the air they are breathing. By measuring the concentration of these pollutants, the AQI provides information about the potential impacts on human health and the environment.
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true or false? medicare uses resource utilization groups iii as its basis for reimbursement to home health agencies.
False. Medicare doesn't uses resource utilization groups iii as its basis for reimbursement to home health agencies.
What is Medicare defined as?
Medicare is a government health insurance program for persons who are 65 years of age or older, as well as some people under 65 who have specific disabilities or diseases. Some persons with low incomes and resources can receive health coverage through Medicaid, a combined federal and state program.
A compensation technique known as a Prospective Payment System (PPS) bases Medicare payments on a predetermined, fixed sum. The classification system for a certain service determines the payment amount for that service (for example, diagnosis-related groups for inpatient hospital services).
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which finding in fetal heart rate during a non-stress test would indicate to the nurse that a potential problem for the fetus may exist?
A fetal heart rate below the baseline, or a fetal heart rate acceleration that doesn't last at least 15 seconds, would indicate to the nurse that a potential problem for the fetus may exist.
What is fetus?
A fetus is an unborn baby in the period of development between 8 weeks and birth. It is made up of cells that rapidly multiply and develop, forming different body parts and organs. It is nourished by the mother's placenta, which supplies oxygen and nutrients. During this period, its organs and systems form and become ready for life outside the womb.
Therefore, A fetal heart rate below the baseline, or a fetal heart rate acceleration that doesn't last at least 15 seconds, would indicate to the nurse that a potential problem for the fetus may exist.
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what is the most important assessment for the nurse to make when assessing peripheral pulses on a client who is post limb fracture?
symmetry and amplitude of both extremities is the important assesment on client.
R: The characteristics of the pulse should be considered when evaluating any peripheral pulse (e.g., amplitude, rhythm, and rate). It is also necessary to determine whether the peripheral pulses are symmetrical or not. The patient's wrist should be resting on the arm of a exam table as well as chair while they are seated comfortably. symmetry and amplitude of both extremities is the important assesment on client.The pulse is counted for 30 seconds, multiplied by 2, or for a good minute if it is irregular, while the artery is palpated. For further assessment, the provider should be informed if there is an irregular heartbeat. Peripheral pulse assessment involves mentioning the heart rates (absent, bradycardic, normal, or tachycardic), rhythm (regular or irregular), intensity (strength), and any additional observations, such as the presence of tenderness at the site.
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fill in the blank. cholesterol is a___, which___. question 8 options: steroid; is a component of eukaryotic membranes and is the basis for many animal and plant hormones steroid; is a component of eukaryotic membranes steroid; is the basis for many animal and plant hormones terpene; is the basis for many animal and plant vitamins
Option a. Cholesterol is a steroid which is a component of the eukaryotic membrane and the basis for many plant and animal hormones.
What is Cholesterol?a waxy, fat-like substance that is produced in the liver and is present in all of the body's cells, including the blood. The production of cell walls, tissues, hormones, vitamin D, and bile acids depends on cholesterol, which is crucial for good health.
Cholesterol in membranes decreases membrane fluidity and makes selective permeability possible, which is a critical function of membranes. For hormones like cortisol and testosterone, cholesterol is a crucial precursor. The organisation, dynamics, and function of eukaryotic membranes depend heavily on cholesterol, which is a crucial component of those membranes.
Therefore, cholesterol is a steroid that is a part of the eukaryotic membrane and the building block for many plant and animal hormones.
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in an experiment to test the effectiveness of a new drug to treat diabetes, the independent variable will be
In an experiment to test the effectiveness of a new drug to treat diabetes, the independent variable will be medication therapy.
The medication treatment is the independent variable when a researcher administers an active medication to one group and an inactive medication, or placebo, to another group. The dependent variable is how each person responds to the active medication or the placebo.
The proportion of glycated hemoglobin was used as a measure of blood glucose, which was a dependent variable. Two regression analyses reveal a correlation between elevated blood glucose and the absence of texture associated with lower blood glucose levels. Complications were found to have a confusing effect.
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a client tells the nurse about taking vitamin e and vitamin c daily to prevent the uncontrolled formation of reactive oxygen species (ros). which term describes the client's rationale for taking these supplements?
Antioxidants is the term describes the client's rationale for taking vitamin E and vitamin C supplements.
What is antioxidant? The effects of free radicals are lessened or prevented by substances known as antioxidants. As a result, free radicals receive an electron donation, becoming less reactive.Carotenoids including beta-carotene, lycopene, lutein, and zeaxanthin as well as the vitamins C and E are examples of antioxidants. In addition to summarizing the scientific research on antioxidants and health, this fact sheet also offers sources for more information.Fruits, vegetables, items made from plants, and other sources of antioxidants are the best. Among the healthier options are fruits and vegetables including apples, blueberries, raspberries, broccoli, cabbage, spinach, eggplant, and legumes like red kidney beans or black beans. Black tea, red wine, green tea, and dark chocolate also contain them.For more information on antioxidant kindly visit to
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Complete question :
A client tells the nurse about taking vitamin E and vitamin C daily to prevent the uncontrolled formation of reactive oxygen species (ROS). Which term describes the client's rationale for taking these supplements?
Antioxidants
Unpaired electrons
Oxidative stresses
Free radicals
which information is most important for the nurse to include when explaining the need for these tests? (select all that apply.)
The information are emphasizing about prostate enlargement which result in renal damage, related blocks in urine flow and causes kidney damage, which means option C, D and E are correct.
The information is related to disease called as Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, in which the prostrate gland becomes enlarged due to which the process of urination becomes difficult. It can result in prostrate gland cancer in some rare cases if not treated properly. It is common in men and can be treated by some specific medication. The main reason for this disease is the abnormal secretion of male reproductive hormones. Patients in such cases must avoid some specific foods bologna, beef, pork etc. In this condition, either their is high urge to urinate, or difficulty in urination. But it is harmful for kidney and requires specific treatments.
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Refer to complete question below:
Diagnostic Tests: The client is scheduled for a digital rectal exam, serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level, urinalysis, serum creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN). The client states that he has had the rectal exam and PSA levels done before for prostate screening. He asks why the other lab tests (creatinine and BUN levels) are necessary.
Which information is most important for the nurse to include when explaining the need for these tests? (Select all that apply.)
A. Advise the client that normal kidney function will confirm prostate is not enlarged.
B. Explain to the client how repeat tests are needed to evaluate evidence of dehydration that mimics BPH symptoms.
C. Emphasize to the client that prostate enlargement may result in renal damage which these tests will evaluate.
D. Inform the client that repeat testing is necessary as an enlarged prostate gland blocks urine flow and causes kidney damage.
E. Advise the client that it is protocol for the healthcare provider (HCP) to conduct then recheck tests to compare previous results.
a middle-aged client, frustrated by increasingly frequent episodes of constipation, is highly reluctant to take medications. what nonpharmacologic measure should the nurse recommend?
Using a fibre dietary supplement. Ginger, ginseng, and low-fat diets haven't been proven to help customers with constipation.
There is some proof that fibre supplements increase bowel frequency and regularity. There is no evidence to support consuming more fluids than usual. Always consider the patient's most recent stool characteristics before giving a laxative or stool softener, and if loose stools or diarrhoea are present, hold off on giving the drug. Suppositories containing glycerin and bisacodyl can be purchased over-the-counter to treat constipation. In the rectum, glycerin seems to stimulate an osmotic action. Defecation is induced by bisacodyl's effect on rectum neurons.
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Jonah, a 12-month-old, uses the shortened word, ba- to indicate he wants his bottle. What kind of speech does this shortened use of a word represent?
Underextension
Holophrasic speech*
Overextension
Babbling
a nurse is reading a journal article about seasonal allergies and comes across the name of the drug loratadine. the nurse determines this drug name as which type?
The nurse determines this drug name as generic.
Which of the following labels could be put on a medicine during development?
Drugs may be given numerous names along the development process, such as a chemical name, a generic (nonproprietary) name, an official name, and a commercial or brand name.
What area of pharmacology employs medications to treat, prevent, and diagnose illness?
Pharmacotherapeutics, which is also referred to as medical pharmacology, may be considered to be the proper field for such intentional therapeutic uses (i.e., drugs used to prevent, diagnose, and treat diseases). Pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics are additional subcategories of pharmacotherapeutics.
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Elise, an emergency medical technician renders aid to a participant in Forest Trail Marathon, an athletic event. Regarding a suit by the participant against Elise for negligence, Elise is immune from liability under​
a. ​the "danger invites rescue" doctrine.
b. ​the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur.
c. ​an applicable Good Samaritan statute.
d. ​no circumstances.
Elise, an emergency medical technician renders aid to a participant in Forest Trail Marathon, an athletic event. Regarding a suit by the participant against Elise for negligence, Elise is immune from liability under an applicable Good Samaritan law.
The Good Samaritan law provides immediate assistance or assistance to a person injured in an accident, accident, or medical emergency without any expectation of payment or reward, and without a duty of care or special relationship. We allow you to act voluntarily to seek emergency treatment. The Good Samaritan Law was written to encourage bystanders to get involved in these and other emergencies without fear of being sued if they inadvertently cause injury or death to someone.
His four key elements of the Good Samaritan Law are: Permission from the sick/injured if possible. Caring in a rational (uncaring) way. A person who falls under the law of the Good Samaritan is not the person who caused the accident.
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Complete question :
Elise, an emergency medical technician renders aid to a participant in Forest Trail Marathon, an athletic event. Regarding a suit by the participant against Elise for negligence, Elise is immune from liability under
a. an applicable Good Samaritan statute.
b. no circumstances.
c. the "danger invites rescue" doctrine.
d. the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur.
your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive; is moving air freely in and out of the chest; and has pale, moist skin. which action would be most appropriate?
Continuing to monitor changes. Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation are all parts of the pulmonary examination.
Starting at the beginning of the patient interaction, the inspection procedure continues. A palpation and subsequent percussion test determine the level of chest enlargement and pain.
Interpretation of vital signs, examination of the patient's breathing pattern, skin tone, and respiratory state, palpation to find anomalies, and stethescope auscultation of lung sounds are all included in a focused respiratory objective evaluation. To interpret the meaning of the data being gathered, the nurse must be aware of what is typical for the patient's age, gender, development, race, culture, environmental factors, and present state of health.
The complete question is:
Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is moving air freely in and out of the chest and has pale, moist skin. Which action would be most appropriate?
A providing 2 initial ventilations immediately
B administering emergency oxygen to the patient if available
C continuing to monitor for changes
D clearing the airway of debris
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which action can the nurse take to ensure a quality blood sample when drawing blood from a patient's central venous access device (cvad) site?
The nurse should discard the first 4 to 5 mL of blood drawn.
By discarding the initial sample, the possibility of drug concentrations or a diluted specimen is reduced. Allowing fluid infusions to continue until the sample is taken may affect the sample. The quality of the sample would be unaffected by flushing the catheter after aspirating for blood return. The patient is not required to relax before the sample is collected.
A central line is a thin, soft, flexible tube that is also known as a central venous access device (CVAD). This lengthy tube, sometimes known as a catheter, is inserted into a vein leading to your heart. The opposite end of the CVAD catheter either emerges at the skin's surface or rests right under it.
Central venous access devices (CVADs) or central venous catheters (CVCs) are devices that are placed into the body through a vein to allow fluids, blood products, medicine, and other treatments to be administered to the bloodstream.
The complete question is:
Which action can the nurse take to ensure a quality blood sample when drawing blood from a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) site?
A. Allow fluid infusions to continue to flow right up to the time of the sample.B. Flush the catheter after aspirating for blood return.C. Ensure that the patient has been resting quietly for at least 15 minutes before taking the sample.D. Discard the first 4 to 5 mL of blood drawn.To learn more about Central Venous Access Device (CVAD), here
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the nurse is caring for a patient with a healing stage iii pressure ulcer. upon entering the room, the nurse notices an odor and observes a purulent discharge, along with increased redness at the wound site. what is the next best step for the nurse?
The nurse is caring for a patient with a healing Stage III pressure ulcer. Upon entering the room, the nurse notices an odor and observes a purulent discharge, along with increased redness at the wound site. The next best step for the nurse is complete the head-to-toe assessment, including current treatment, vital signs, and laboratory results.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
A sore on the skin or mucous membrane that is also accompanied by tissue disintegration is called an ulcer. The epidermis, frequently sections of the dermis, and even subcutaneous fat can all be completely lost as a result of ulcers. The skin of the lower extremities and the digestive system both frequently develop ulcers.
An ulcer that develops on the skin is frequently noticeable as an area of swollen tissue and reddish skin. In the event of exposure to heat or cold, inflammation, or a difficulty with blood circulation, a skin ulcer is frequently noticeable. Additionally, they may be brought on by immobility, which puts sustained pressure on the tissues.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with a healing Stage III pressure ulcer. Upon entering the room, the nurse notices an odor and observes a purulent discharge, along with increased redness at the wound site. What is the next best step for the nurse?
a. Complete the head-to-toe assessment, including current treatment, vital signs, and laboratory results.
b. Notify the health care provider by utilizing Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation (SBAR).
c. Consult the wound care nurse about the change in status and the potential for infection.
d. Check with the charge nurse about the change in status and the potential for infection.
which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (opas)? question 1 options: a) they require the use of a water-soluble lubricant. b) they do not come in pediatric sizes. c) they cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture d) they cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex
A disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways is that 'they cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex'.
What do you mean by airways?
Airways refer to the passages that allow air to flow into and out of the lungs, including the nose, mouth, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. In humans, the airways are part of the respiratory system, which is responsible for taking in oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide.
A gag reflex is an automatic reaction of the body to prevent foreign objects from entering the throat. When a patient has an active gag reflex, the introduction of an oropharyngeal airway can cause the patient to gag and potentially vomit. This can make the airway ineffective and, in some cases, can even cause aspiration. For this reason, oropharyngeal airways should not be used in patients with a gag reflex.
Hence, option D is correct.
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the emergency responders enter the emergency department with a client in cardiac arrest. one of the responders is performing chest compressions. what is the best assessment for the nurse to determine if the responder is compressing with enough force and depth?
The client can be connected to a heart monitor by the UAP after receiving cardiac arrest. If the UAP is not pregnant and is wearing a shield, they can assist in assisting the patient sit up for a portable chest x-ray.
Which duties could a nurse on a cardiac unit assign to unlicensed support staff?Keep in mind that the RN cannot assign the UAP to handle an unstable client, assessment, instruction, evaluation, or medication. The UAP might bathe the customer who is wearing telemetry.
What responsibilities may you assign to unlicensed assistive persons (UAP)?An experienced UAP can be trusted with routine chores including taking vital signs, monitoring ambulation, changing the bed, assisting with hygiene, and daily living activities.
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you are helping a 21 year old patient to self-administer her epinephrine via auto-injector. she has been stung by a bee. you should
1. Ensure the patient is sitting down in a comfortable position.
What is comfortable?Comfortable can mean different things to different people. Some people may find physical comfort in a warm bed or a cozy couch, while others might feel emotionally comfortable when talking to friends or family. Being comfortable can also be a mental state, like feeling secure in your ability to complete a task or feeling safe in a place.
2. Read the instructions that come with the auto-injector and explain to the patient how to use it.
3. Assist the patient in removing the safety cap from the auto-injector and holding it against her outer thigh.
4. Tell the patient to press the auto-injector firmly against her thigh and hold it in place until it clicks, then remove it.
5. Advise the patient to seek medical attention right away, even if her symptoms improve.
6. Monitor the patient for any signs of an allergic reaction, such as breathing difficulty, hives, or swelling of the face, lips, or tongue.
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you can generally trust nutritional information that comes from qualified professionals. what credential is given to a nutrition expert that must complete a specialized degree in nutrition, dietetics, public health, or another related science? a.) certified in public health b.) dietitian c.) nutritionist d.) registered dietitian nutritionist
registered dietitian nutritionist is given to a nutrition expert that must complete a specialized degree in nutrition, dietetics, public health, or another related science.
What is dietetics?
Dietetics is the science of using food and nutrition to promote health and manage disease. It involves the study of food and nutrition, the planning and management of meals, and the provision of nutrition counseling and education. Dietitians are the professionals who specialize in this field.
Therefore, Option D is correct.
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the nurse is preparing to administer clindamycin intravenously (iv) to a client. how should the nurse set the infusion to run?
Clindamycin injection is a liquid that can be administered intramuscularly or intravenously over a period of 10 to 40 minutes (into a muscle).
Usually, it is administered two to four times a day. The sort of illness you have and how well you respond to the medication will determine how long your treatment will last. When administering clindamycin injection intramuscularly, it should not be diluted. Before being administered intravenously, clindamycin injection must be diluted. Infusion time should be between 10 and 60 minutes. As with any anti-infective, prolonged use of Clindamycin 150mg/ml Solution for Injection and Infusion may cause super-infection from microorganisms that are clindamycin-resistant.
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blood test are only for measuring the number of red blood cells a person has. T/F
Blood test are only for measuring the number of red blood cells a person has------ True
What are the common names for blood tests?A basic metabolic panel (BMP) examines eight distinct blood components. It provides crucial information about the metabolic process and chemical makeup of your body. The way the body uses food and energy is called the metabolic process.
Which three types of blood tests are the most common?A blood test is made up of a complete blood count, a metabolic panel, and a lipid panel. These are the three main tests.
What are red blood cells used for?a kind of blood cell that comes from the bone marrow and is found in the blood. Hemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells, transports oxygen throughout the body from the lungs.
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which statement describes electrocoagulation therapy that a client is receiving? damaged tissue is scooped away. a monopolar electrode is used. there is an increased possibility of scarring. it involves more superficial destruction
Electrocoagulation therapy has an increased possibility of scarring.
Electrocoagulation therapy involves more superficial destruction.
What is electrocoagulation therapy?
A procedure that uses heat from an electric current to destroy abnormal tissue, such as a tumor or other lesion. It can also be used to control bleeding during surgery or after an injury. An electric current is passed through an electrode that is placed on or near the tissue. The tip of the electrode is heated by an electric current to burn or destroy the tissue. Electrocoagulation is a type of electrosurgery. Also called electrocautery, electrofulguration, and fulguration.To know more about electrocoagulation therapy, click the link given below:
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the nurse administers morphine 6mg iv push to the client for postoperative pain. following administration of the medication, the nurse observes bp 100/86, pulse 68, respirations 8, client sleeping quietly. which nursing action is most appropriate?
The most appropriate nursing action would be to document the observations.
following emergency administration of epinephrine subcutaneously (sq) for an acute asthmatic attack, the physician prescribes terbutalin (brethine)tablets three times daily. how is this drug classified? what is it supposed to do? what are its advantages over epinephrine in the treatment of chronic asthma?
Alpha- and beta-adrenergic agonists are a group of medicines that includes epinephrine oral inhalation (sympathomimetic agents). To facilitate breathing, it relaxes and widens airways in the lungs.
What is the ideal asthma treatment?Inhalers, which are devices that let you breathe in medication, are the main therapy option. If your asthma is severe, you could also need tablets and other therapies. Typically, a doctor or asthma nurse will help you develop a personal action plan.
Does epinephrine worsen asthma symptoms?Rarely, this medicine has resulted in a sudden, severe, and fatal worsening of breathing issues or asthma (paradoxical bronchospasm). Wheezing that comes on suddenly should be treated right away.
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