In nutrition, the word essential means a necessary nutrient that can be obtained only from the diet.
Nutrition is the biochemical and physiological process through which an organism eats food to support its existence. It provides organisms with nutrients that can be digested to make energy and chemical structures. When adequate nutrients are not acquired, malnutrition results. The study of nutrition with an emphasis on human nutrition is known as nutritional science.
Food and nutrition analysis became scientific during the late-nineteenth-century chemical revolution. Chemists in the 18th and 19th centuries worked with various elements and food sources to establish nutritional theories. Nutrients are chemicals that give the organism with energy and physical components, allowing it to survive, develop, and reproduce. Nutrients can range from simple atoms to large macromolecules.
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the nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted to the cardiac care unit after open-heart surgery. the current assessment by the nurse reveals 0 pedal pulse on the left foot and 2 pedal pulse on the right foot. what should the nurse do first?
The nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted to the cardiac care unit after open-heart surgery. the current assessment by the nurse reveals 0 pedal pulse on the left foot and 2 pedal pulse on the right foot. The nurse should notify the health care provider of this abnormal finding.
Missing pulse after heart surgery is not normal. This finding may indicate a thromboembolic obstruction and should be reported to your doctor. The right leg has a normal pulse, so there is no need to raise the right leg. Reassessment within 1 hour is not appropriate and no pulse is not normal. Adding heat doesn't solve the problem of the pedal losing momentum. This condition is called postoperative tachycardia, and the heart rate exceeds 100 beats per minute. A rapid heart rate is common after cardiac surgery and is normal when a patient is recovering from cardiac surgery. Atrial fibrillation, abnormal or irregular heart rhythm, can occur in up to 25% of patients after cardiac surgery. Atrial fibrillation should be monitored because it can increase the risk of stroke.
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lee wants to gain 10lbs of lean muscle mass. his dietitian suggested he consume 2500 kcal each day and that 20% of his kcal come from protein. how many grams of protein should he consume each day?
To build 10 pounds of lean muscle mass, Lee should consume roughly 125 grams of protein each day.
Who is dietitian?A dietitian, medical dietitian, or dietician is a nutritionist who specializes in recognizing and treating disease-related malnutrition as well as providing medical nutrition treatment, such as developing an enteral tube feeding regimen or minimizing the symptoms of cancer cachexia. Nutritionists and dietitians advise clients on nutrition and good eating habits. Dietitians and nutritionists specialize in the use of food and nutrition to enhance health and disease management. They organize and carry out food service or nutritional initiatives to assist individuals in living healthy lifestyles. A medical practitioner who has had specialized training in food and nutrition. Dietitians advise individuals on nutrition and appropriate eating habits in order to improve their health and well-being.
Here,
To determine the amount of protein Lee should consume each day to gain 10 lbs of lean muscle mass, we need to first calculate the amount of calories he should get from protein.
Given that 20% of his kcal should come from protein, and he should consume 2500 kcal per day, then the amount of calories from protein would be:
2500 kcal * 20% = 500 kcal
Next, we need to convert the amount of calories from protein into grams of protein. One gram of protein provides 4 kcal, so to get 500 kcal from protein, Lee should consume:
500 kcal / 4 kcal/g = 125 g
Therefore, Lee should consume approximately 125 grams of protein each day to gain 10 lbs of lean muscle mass.
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a patient is in the family planning clinic to learn about her cycle and the best times to get pregnant. what information should the nurse plan to teach her?
The nurse should plan to teach the patient about the menstrual cycle, ovulation, and fertility window.
What is the role of a nurse in family planning Counselling?
Nurses play a key role in family planning counselling. They provide client-centred education and counselling on all methods of contraception, including long-acting reversible contraceptives, emergency contraception and natural family planning. They also provide support in areas such as sexual health, reproductive health, and healthy relationships. Nurses also provide counselling on other family planning issues, such as fertility awareness and preconception care, as well as information on sexually transmitted infections and their prevention.
The nurse should explain the average length of a menstrual cycle and how ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next period. The nurse plan to teach her is that an ovum can be fertilized for 12 to 24 hours after ovulation. The nurse should also explain that the best time for the patient to try to get pregnant is during the fertile window, which is typically five days before and one day after ovulation. The nurse may also discuss other methods of contraception and family planning strategies.
Therefore, menstrual cycle, ovulation, and fertility window are the things that the nurse plan to teach her.
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when teaching a client with diabetes about monitoring for episodes of hypoglycemia, which symptom would the nurse include in the teaching plan
When teaching a client with diabetes about monitoring for episodes of hypoglycemia, the symptoms that the nurse includes in the teaching plan are coma, anxiety, confusion, headache, and cool, moist skin.
Who is a nurse?Nurses develop a care plan that emphasises treating illness to improve quality of life by working cooperatively with doctors, therapists, patients, patients' families, and other team members.
Clinical nurse specialists and nurse practitioners in the US and the UK diagnose health issues and suggest the appropriate medications and other treatments in accordance with particular state legislation.
Anxiety, restlessness, headache, irritability, confusion, diaphoresis, cool skin, tremors, coma, and seizures are signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, which is indicated by a blood glucose level of 45 mf/dl.
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in los angeles, juice cleansing is very popular. some people have claimed that the cleanses are beneficial for weight loss, body detoxification, and treatment and prevention of illnesses. can we conclude that juice cleansing causes these health benefits?
No, the claims are anecdotes and do not give us a true comparison group to find health differences.
Juice fasting, also known as juice cleaning, is a fad diet in which a person solely eats fruit and vegetable juices while avoiding solid meals. It is used for detoxification as an alternative medicine treatment and is frequently included in detox diets. The diet normally lasts one to seven days and includes a variety of fruits and vegetables, as well as spices, that are not commonly found or consumed in the average Western diet.
Because of Norman W. Walker and Jay Kordich, who tried to turn the juice drink into a diet, juice fasting became a rising fad in the United States. The diet is occasionally advertised with illogical and unverified health claims.
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a 22-year-old woman presents with dyspnea. she has a history of asthma and noted increased difficulty breathing starting yesterday. she says she has been using her albuterol inhaler every 15 minutes for the last four hours without relief. what laboratory abnormality is likely to be found in this patient?
In a 22-year-old woman with a history of asthma who presents with dyspnea and has been using her albuterol inhaler frequently without relief, an elevated level of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood is likely to be found.
Asthma is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, which can result in difficulty breathing. In severe cases, such as this patient's, the airways can become severely obstructed, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood. This is a sign of respiratory distress and can indicate the need for prompt and aggressive treatment.
Other laboratory abnormalities that may be seen in this patient include a low oxygen saturation level, elevated white blood cell count, and elevated levels of certain inflammatory markers such as eosinophils. However, the presence of an elevated CO2 level is the most specific laboratory abnormality that can indicate severe asthma exacerbation.
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the nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated client and knows that older adults are at highest risk for weaning failure. what age-related changes contributes to failure with weaning off a ventilator? select all that apply.
Age-related changes affecting weaning off a ventilator in older adults: decreased lung function, decreased cardiac output, increased dysrhythmias, and increased susceptibility to infections.
Age-related factors affecting weaning off a ventilator in older adultsIn older adults, various age-related changes can contribute to failure when attempting to wean off a ventilator. The lungs lose their elasticity and compliance, making it harder to generate sufficient air pressure to clear the airways. Respiratory muscle strength also decreases, which reduces the ability to breathe effectively. Cardiac output decreases, leading to increased dysrhythmias and decreased oxygenation capacity. Additionally, older adults are more susceptible to infections such as pneumonia, which can further compromise respiratory function. Cognitive and sensory impairment can also affect the ability to cooperate with the weaning process. These age-related changes can significantly increase the risk of weaning failure in older adults and must be carefully considered when planning and carrying out the weaning process.
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a client with a rare genetic disorder is prescribed a medication specific to this disorder. what is the name given to drugs manufactured by companies that receive tax benefits to invest in these drugs?
A patient with a rare genetic disorder is prescribed a medication specific to this disorder. Orphan drugs are the name given to drugs manufactured by companies that receive tax benefits to invest in these drugs.
Orphan drugs are pharmaceuticals used to treat uncommon illnesses or disorders that only affect a limited number of patients. These illnesses are frequently referred to as "orphan diseases" because researchers and pharmaceutical corporations frequently ignore them because of their low prevalence and little potential for financial reward. Since there is little information on the efficacy and safety of orphan medications, developing and approving them can be a difficult and expensive procedure. However, individuals with uncommon disorders who might otherwise have few therapeutic alternatives may benefit greatly from the approval of orphan drugs.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is given as,
A patient with a rare genetic disorder is prescribed a medication specific to this disorder. What is the name given to drugs manufactured by companies that receive tax benefits to invest in these drugs?
a) Ghost drugs
b) Rare drugs
the nurse is preparing to medicate a client for migraines. the nurse teaches the client that migraine headaches frequently occur due to what reason?
The nurse taught that migraine headaches often occur because the body is tired, sleep quality and poor posture, experiencing sleep disturbances, hypoglycemia, and after strenuous exercise.
What is a migraine?Migraines are a type of headache that feels like a throbbing sensation, and generally only occur on one side of the head. Migraine is a neurological disease that can trigger a series of symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to sound or light.
Migraines followed by excruciating pain can last for several hours or even days. Migraines can be caused by stress, body fatigue, sleep quality and poor posture, sleep disturbances, hypoglycemia, and after strenuous exercise.
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the nurse is teaching the client about benzodiazepines. which comments by the client indicate adequate understanding of the drug effects/side effects?
The nurse is teaching the client about benzodiazepines. The comments by the client that indicate adequate understanding of the drug effects/side effects are:
1., 2., 4. & 5.
Who is a nurse?
Working collaboratively with doctors, therapists, patients, patients' families, and other team members, nurses create a care plan that emphasises treating illness to improve quality of life.
In accordance with specific state laws, clinical nurse specialists and nurse practitioners in the US and the UK diagnose health problems and recommend the proper medications and other treatments.
Drugs like benzodiazepines can impair general alertness and slow reaction times. Until the medication's effects are felt and the patient can safely drive, the client should not operate machinery. Medication containing benzodiazepines is typically prescribed for brief periods of time. Abuse of benzodiazepines is common. Customers grow tolerant of and dependent on the drugs.
3. Incorrect: The client should not self-regulate dosage. There is a potential for tolerance & dependence to develop. Dosage should be monitored carefully by the primary healthcare provider.
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the nurse patted a client's back while providing care. the client felt offended by the nurse's gesture. which boundary is in jeopardy in this situation?
Personal boundaries are limits set by a client that may include how the client allows others to invade his or her physical space.
Therefore because the client was offended by the nurse patting his or her back, the personal boundary is in jeopardy.
What are personal boundaries?
The concept of personal limits or the act of setting boundaries has gained popularity since the middle of the 1980s thanks to self-help authors and support organisations.
It is the act of publicly stating and upholding one's principles in an effort to stop them from being compromised or violated.
The term "boundary" is a metaphor, with in-bounds designating appropriate behaviour and out-of-bounds designating unacceptable behaviour.
Without values and bonds, our identities become dispersed, and they are frequently shaped by the definitions others give them.
The concept of boundaries has received widespread support from the counselling community.
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a nurse is educating a group of nursing students about the different types of vaccines. which should the nurse mention as a killed virus vaccine?
Influenza is the vaccine should the nurse mention as a killed virus vaccine.
What is vaccine ?
Products called vaccines help people develop immunity to a particular disease. A person who has an immunity to a sickness is considered to be resistant to that illness (you can be exposed to it without becoming sick). A needle is used to administer the majority of vaccines, however some are also administered orally or via the nasal cavity (sprayed into the nose).
What is influenza ?
Influenza viruses are what cause the flu. The majority of the time, people contract the flu by inhaling microscopic droplets that are released into the air when a sick person coughs or sneezes. Additionally, if you contact your mouth, nose, or eyes after touching something that has the flu virus on it, you could get sick.
Therefore, Influenza is the vaccine should the nurse mention as a killed virus vaccine.
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when patient records are no longer required and deemed unnecessary, they must be destroyed, regardless of the format (paper, ehr, etc.). the guidance states that the destruction must be
Acceptable methods currently used to destroy records may include shredding, incinerating, pulping, and shredding.
Federal law allows healthcare providers to destroy her medical records after six years, but some states require longer retention periods. If medical records pertain to children, they may need to be kept for 10 years or more. All records must be retained for at least the number of years included in the statute of limitations, and where federal and state law conflict, records must always be retained for a longer period of time than specified. Most states have laws that require her to keep medical or hospital records for 7 to 25 years.
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a nurse has questioned why a client's health care provider has prescribed a narrow-spectrum antibiotic rather than a broad-spectrum drug in the treatment of an infection. which facts provide the best rationale for the use of narrow-spectrum antibiotics whenever possible?
The possibility of a superinfection can increase with the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
What dangers do broad-spectrum antibiotics pose?Taking broad-spectrum antibiotics can cause "C. diff," a deadly type of diarrhea. The bowel may need to be removed. In the US, it claims the lives of roughly 15,000 individuals annually. Other adverse effects of antibiotics include vaginal infections, nausea, and vomiting.
What aspect determines if a bacteriostatic antibiotic will be effective?Depending on the type of infection and the patient's immune system, doctors must decide whether to administer bacteriostatic or bactericidal medication. Bacteriostatic and bactericidal medications can be successful in attaining clinical cure in a patient with robust immune responses.
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you are talking to your class of nursing students about the adverse effects of corticosteroid therapy. what dietary change would you tell the students may help prevent osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid administration?
Eat more whole grains, fruits, and vegetables. Pick wholesome protein and fat sources. Take in a lot of calcium. Do not overuse salt, sugar, or phosphate additives. Consume these substances in moderation.
What is long-term corticosteroid administration?
More severe side effects, such as osteoporosis, aseptic joint necrosis, adrenal insufficiency, gastrointestinal, hepatic, and ophthalmologic effects, hyperlipidemia, growth inhibition, and potential congenital malformations, may result from long-term corticosteroid use.
The condition is known as osteoporosis results in the bones becoming weaker and thinning. Even with minor trauma, sudden fractures can happen when bones become weaker. In order to maintain ideal bone health and ward off osteoporosis, a diet high in calcium is crucial. The same goes for vitamin D, which aids in the body's ability to absorb calcium and store it in bones. With age, more calcium and vitamin D are required for optimal bone health.
Nutrients are necessary for the growth and maintenance of bones. A good way to stop ongoing bone loss is with a diet that is bone-healthy. This diet ought to be a part of a healthy lifestyle that also includes exercise and ideal levels of calcium and vitamin D.
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the nurse is assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 3.2 kg at birth. the nurse would expect the infant to now weigh approximately how many kilograms?
The nurse would expect the infant to now weigh approximately 6.3 kilograms. Option b is correct.
At roughly 5 to 6 months, the birth weight doubles. A youngster that weighed 3.2 kg at birth would weigh around 6.3 kg at 6 months. The child would have dropped from the 50th to the 5th percentile after delivery; 5.2 kg is insufficient. By 6 months, the child would have treble its birth weight; 8.7 kg to 9.6 kg is too much. Growth is an excellent predictor of overall health. Babies that are developing well are typically healthy, however slow growth may indicate a problem.
Healthy newborns come in a variety of sizes. Most infants delivered between 37 and 40 weeks weigh between 5 and 8 pounds, 8 ounces (2,500 to 2,500 grammes) (4,000 grams). Infants who are lighter or heavier than the norm are typically OK. However, they may get additional attention from physicians and nurses following birth to ensure that there are no complications. A baby's birth weight can be affected by a variety of factors. The duration of the pregnancy is critical. Babies born around or after their due date are often bigger than those born before.
The complete Question is
The nurse is assessing a 6-month-old healthy infant who weighed 3.2 kg at birth. The nurse would expect the infant to now weigh approximately how many kilograms?
A. 5.2
B. 6.3
C. 8.7
D. 9.6
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the removal of a small section of a lesion and a small border of normal tissue when performing a biopsy is known as .
The removal of a small section of a lesion and a small border of normal tissue when performing a biopsy is known as Excisional biopsy.
A surgical procedure in which an incision is made in the skin to remove a lesion or an entire suspicious area so that it can be examined under a microscope for signs of disease. A small amount of healthy tissue around the abnormal area may also be removed. There are few risks and minimal recovery time. It is usually done for skin cancer, lymph node cancer, and when a large tumor sample is needed to confirm the diagnosis.
If the complete tumor is extracted, it is called an excisional biopsy. If only part of the tumor is removed, it is called an incisional biopsy. For example, an excisional biopsy is usually the method of choice when melanoma is suspected.
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which instruction is important for the nurse to provide to the client after cataract surgery? remain flat for 3 hours eat a soft diet for 2 days breathe and cough deeply avoid bending from the waist
The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to the client after cataract surgery is to "remain flat for 3 hours." This is because cataract surgery typically involves making a small incision into the eye.
Removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial lens. During the first few hours after surgery, it is important for the client to remain flat to reduce pressure in the eye, promote healing, and prevent complications such as bleeding or infection.
By remaining flat, the client helps to reduce blood flow to the eye and reduce pressure in the area, allowing the incision to heal and the eye to settle into its new shape. In addition, remaining flat helps to prevent any movement or straining of the eye, which could disrupt the delicate healing process and increase the risk of complications.
While the client is instructed to remain flat, they should also be encouraged to breathe and cough deeply to prevent the formation of blood clots. It is also important for the client to follow a soft diet for the first 2 days after surgery, as this helps to reduce the risk of complications and promote healing. Finally, the client should be advised to avoid bending from the waist, as this could put pressure on the eye and increase the risk of complications.
The most important instruction for the nurse to provide to the client after cataract surgery is to remain flat for 3 hours. This helps to reduce pressure in the eye, promote healing, and prevent complications. The nurse should also advise the client to breathe and cough deeply, follow a soft diet for 2 days, and avoid bending from the waist. By following these instructions, the client can help ensure a smooth recovery after cataract surgery and achieve optimal outcomes.
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needlesticks, patient or employee falls, medication errors, or any event not consistent with routine patient care activities would require risk reporting documentation in the form of an
Needlesticks, patient or employee falls, medication errors, or any event not consistent with routine patient care activities would require risk reporting documentation in the form of an incident report.
An incident report or accident report is a form that is filled out in a health care facility, such as a hospital, nursing home, or assisted living, to record information about an unexpected event that occurs at the facility, such as an injury to a patient. The goal of the incident report is to accurately describe what happened while it is still recent in the thoughts of people who were present.
In the future, when dealing with liability concerns resulting from the incident, this knowledge might be helpful. Health care recommendations state that the report should typically be completed as soon as feasible after the incident (but after the situation has been stabilized).
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a nurse is administering moderate sedation to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd). the nurse bases her next action on the principle that:
A nurse is administering moderate sedation to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse bases her next action on the principle that it may be necessary to raise the head of this client's bed.
The progressive lung condition known as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterised by persistent respiratory symptoms and restricted airflow. Breathlessness and a cough that may or may not produce mucus are the prominent symptoms. COPD gets worse with time, making it harder to do simple things like walk or get dressed. Despite being incurable, COPD can be avoided and treated.
Emphysema and chronic bronchitis are the two phenotypes of COPD that are the most often occurring. Emphysema is characterized by expanded alveoli (air pockets) whose walls have collapsed, causing long-term harm to the lung tissue. A productive cough that lasts for at least three months each year for two years qualifies as chronic bronchitis.
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select all that apply which of the following patterns of illness suggest a genetic link? multiple select question. the presence of disease in family members who have good health habits a brother who develops lung cancer from smoking multiple members of the same side of the family experiencing the same disease a grandmother with an early onset of alzheimer's disease
The right options are :
The presence of disease in family members who have good health habits.Multiple members of the same side of the family experience the same disease.A grandmother with an early onset of Alzheimer's disease.Due to their near proximity on a chromosome, linked genes are more likely to be transmitted jointly. Separate chromosomes do not ever have connected genes. A potent method for identifying the chromosome position of disease genes is genetic linkage analysis. It is based on the discovery that during meiosis, genes that are located physically close to one another on a chromosome continue to be connected.
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the nurse is in the emergency department is using a triage system because this system ranks clients by
Answer: The severity of the illness of the patients
Explanation:
which of the following can cause respiratory depression? question 11 options: a) end-stage copd changes the stimulus to breathe from high carbon dioxide levels to low oxygen levels, causing breathing to become depressed when oxygen is administered b) high concentrations of oxygen depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction to administered oxygen. c) the lungs react unfavorably to high concentrations of oxygen administered for long periods of time and breathing becomes depressed d) the eyes develop scar tissue on the retina from high
'The lungs react unfavorably to high concentrations of oxygen administered for long periods of time and breathing becomes depressed'. This can cause respiratory depression.
What do you mean by respiratory depression?
Respiratory depression is a condition in which breathing slows down or becomes shallow and insufficient to meet the body's needs. It can be caused by drug overdose, stroke, or other medical conditions, and can lead to hypoxia (low oxygen levels) and, in extreme cases, death.
Respiratory depression occurs when the lungs are exposed to high concentrations of oxygen for prolonged periods. This can cause a decrease in the rate and depth of breathing as the body's respiratory system becomes over-stimulated by the high levels of oxygen. This can lead to a decrease in the amount of oxygen reaching the body's tissues and organs and can result in serious health complications and even death.
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janet, the mother of an infant, gently strokes the bottom of her baby's foot. as she does this, the baby's toes moved outward and then curl in. which of the following reflexes is the newborn demonstrating?
The new-born is demonstrating the Babinski reflex.
What is the Babinski reflex?The baby's foot is stroked from the top of the sole towards the heel to check for the Babinski reflex. The big toe will point upward and the baby's toes will spread apart. The foot and toes will curl inward on an adult.
The Babinski reflex is among a baby's typical reflexes. The body responds in reflexive ways to certain stimuli. The Babinski reflex appears after vigorously massaging the sole of the foot. The big toe then curves upward or towards the top of the foot. The other toes dispersed. This response is not unusual in children under the age of two. It disappears as the child ages.
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the nurse gives the furosemide ivp very slowly hesi. which side effects can result from iv furosemide?
Iv furosemide can cause a number of common adverse effects, including diarrhea, cramping, decreased appetite, loss of sensation, headache, dizziness, or lightheadedness.
Define diarrhea.Diarrhea, which results in loose, mushy bowel disturbances which could become more common, is a common problem. It could interact with other symptoms like weight loss, headache, vomiting, or abdominal discomfort or it might be the sole symptom present. Nevertheless, diarrhea usually only lasts a few days at most.
How can you get rid of diarrhea?Consume lots of liquids, including water, juices, especially broths. Eliminate both alcohol and coffee. Introduce poor and powder foods gradually when your bowel movements return to normal. Try chicken, soda bread, toast, beans, rice, and so forth.
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which symptoms does theophylline treat? select all that apply. diabetes retinopathy asthma atherosclerosis bronchitis emphysema
Theophylline treats asthma , bronchitis and emphysema.
What is the purpose of theophylline?
The symptoms of emphysema, asthma, and other lung conditions are treated with theophylline in combination with other medications. Theophylline is a member of the class of drugs known as bronchodilators. The muscles in the bronchial tubes (the lung's air channels) are relaxed by bronchodilators, which are medications.
Wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness brought on by emphysema, chronic bronchitis, asthma, and other lung conditions can be prevented and treated with theophylline. It eases breathing by relaxing the body and widening the lungs' airways. COPD has long been treated with oral theophylline as a bronchodilator.
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a 4-year-old child is admitted to the hospital for surgery. before the nurse administers medicine, the best way to identify the child would be to:
The best way to identify the child would be to read the child's armband.
What is surgery?
A person may undergo surgery[a] to investigate or treat a pathological condition, such as an illness or injury, to enhance physical function or attractiveness, or to mend unwelcome ruptured portions.
A surgical procedure, an operation, or simply "surgery" can be used to describe the process of doing surgery. The word "operate" here refers to performing surgery. Surgery-related items, such as surgical instruments or a surgical nurse, are described by the term surgical. A person or an animal may be the object or subject on which surgery is conducted.
A surgeon is someone who performs surgery, while a surgeon's assistant is someone who provides aid during surgery.
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when assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli, what finding by the nurse indicates possible deep vein thrombosis?
Pain in the calf is indicated by the nurse as a probable deep vein thrombosis. Option 2 is correct
When assessing the client's risk of pulmonary emboli, the nurse looks for a positive Homan's sign. The client leans back and elevates one leg and one foot. If the client experiences calf discomfort (a positive Homan's sign) during this operation, he or she may have deep vein thrombosis. When a clump of material, most usually a blood clot, becomes stuck in a pulmonary artery, restricting blood flow, this is referred to as a pulmonary embolism.
Deep vein thrombosis is a condition in which blood clots develop in the legs' deep veins. Multiple clots are commonly involved. Each blocked artery deprives the parts of the lung served by it of blood, and they may perish. A pulmonary infarction is the medical term for this. This makes it more difficult for ones lungs to provide oxygen to the rest of your body.
The complete question is
When assessing a client's potential for pulmonary emboli, what finding by the nurse indicates possible deep vein thrombosis?
1. Negative Homan's sign
2. Pain in the calf
3. Pain in the feet
4. Inability to dorsiflex
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a client is scheduled for outpatient surgery for a toenail removal. when performing the preoperative teaching with the client, the nurse would instruct the client to avoid taking any salicylates for at least how many days before the surgery?
The exact time that a client should avoid taking salicylates before surgery can vary depending on the specific medication and the type of surgery.
What are salicylates?
Salicylates are a group of medications that are used to relieve pain and reduce inflammation. They work by blocking the production of certain prostaglandins, which are chemicals that cause pain and inflammation. Salicylates are commonly used to treat a variety of conditions, including headaches, menstrual cramps, arthritis, and fever.
As a general guideline, it is typically recommended that clients avoid taking salicylates, such as aspirin, for at least 7-10 days before surgery.
This is because salicylates can interfere with blood clotting, which can increase the risk of bleeding during and after surgery. By avoiding salicylates for a sufficient period of time before the procedure, the client can help reduce the risk of bleeding and ensure that the surgery can be performed safely.
It is important for the client to discuss their medications with their healthcare provider and follow their instructions regarding when to stop taking any specific medications before the surgery.
The preoperative teaching provided by the nurse should be individualized to the client and their specific surgical procedure, and should emphasize the importance of following all instructions provided by the healthcare provider to minimize the risk of complications during and after the procedure.
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which response would the nurse have for the parent of a school-age child who expresses concern that the child appears thinner than in years prior?
The appropriate response by the nurse to the parent of a school-age child who expresses concern that the child appears thinner than in years prior should be that: the body fat diminishes and fat distribution pattern changes in these years of development.
Fat is the derivative of fatty acids present inside the body. Fats provide the maximum amount of energy to the body. However if remain unhydrolyzed, they can get stored inside the body. This site of storage keeps changing with age and is barely stored in the kids because of their hyperactive metabolism.
Development refers to the growth of a living body. The development begins from the stage of being a zygote to a a completely grown individual. The process of development never stops inside the body. However its effect may or may not be directly visible morphologically.
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