If an individual has two heterozygous gene pairs, two genetically different gametes can be formed.
Any one of a number of different DNA sequences can be found at a given gene locus. Matching genes, one from our biological father and one from our biological mother, are called alleles. Every gene we possess has two copies. They may be the same, yet they also frequently have minute distinctions.
An individual who is heterozygous possesses two alleles that are distinct from one another. As a consequence, it would have the genotype Aa. An individual who possesses the genotype Aa is capable of producing both the A and a types of gametes.
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the amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the testes is dependent on the influence of fsh alone. true or false?
The given statement "the amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the testes is dependent on the influence of FSH alone" is true because oxytocin combines with enzymes in semen to enhance sperm motility.
In humans, testosterone is essential for the growth of the testes and prostate, as well as for the promotion of secondary sexual traits including increased bone and muscle mass and the development of body hair. Testosterone is made by the testicles. During foetal development, testosterone activates the development of the male internal and external reproductive organs.
The influence of FSH alone determines how much testosterone and sperm the testes generate. When a couple is experiencing trouble conceiving, it is important to look at the male's sperm. Oxytocin, a hormone, and semen enzymes work together to improve sperm motility.
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A membranous organelle that is covered in ribosomes
Rough ER, is membranous organelle that is covered in ribosomes .
In general , the rough ER, is organelle which is covered by ribosomes from its outer surface, they also functions in protein processing. The outer surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum also known as RER is embedded with the structure of protein-manufacturing ribosomes hence, granting him the rough appearance.
Rough ER is also characterized with the existence of membrane-bound ribosomes that help them in giving it a special appearance when observed under the microscope. These ribosomes appears like beaded structure and distinguish the organelle from the smooth sections of the ER.
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which major evolutionary episode corresponds most closely in time with the formation of pangaea?
Extinction in the Permian is the major evolutionary episode that corresponds most closely in time with the formation of Pangaea.
The largest mass extinction on Earth occurred approximately 299 million years ago during the Permian period. Due to its vast size, the newly formed supercontinent of Pangaea experienced severe climate and environmental extremes. Much of the south was covered in ice caps, making it cold and dry. The massive Permian-Triassic mass extinction (252 million years ago) and the Triassic-Jurassic extinction event (201 million years ago) occurred simultaneously during the Pangean period. Around the beginning of the Permian, the world's scattered continents came together to form the Pangaea, a single continent with a surface area of nearly 200 million square kilometers.
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rna polymerase is in the process of transcribing an rna. as it passes the region highlighted in bold red, what sequence is produced? hint: your answer will be based on the four nucleotides highlighted in red. you need to first figure out the direction of transcription, based on the location of the 5' and 3' ends on the template and sense strands. based on this information, pick the sequence with the correct 5' and 3' orientation and sequence that would be produced as an rna.
RNA polymerase is in the process of transcribing an RNA through the process called transcription. 5’ GACU 3’ sequence would be produced as an RNA from the given template and sense strand.
RNA polymerase, also known as DNA-directed/dependent RNA polymerase, is an enzyme that transforms a DNA template into RNA (DdRP). RNA polymerase, RNAP, or RNApol are some of its prevalent names in molecular biology. In order for one strand of the exposed nucleotides to serve as a template for the production of RNA, a process known as transcription, the RNAP enzyme uses helicase to open double-stranded DNA locally. Before RNAP can start the DNA unwinding at a given place, a transcription mediator complex, along with a transcription factor, must be attached to a promoter region, a DNA binding site. RNAP starts the transcription of RNA and controls the positioning of nucleotides, promotes adhesion, and promotes elongation.
The complete question is:
RNA polymerase is in the process of transcribing an RNA. As it passes the region highlighted in bold red, what sequence is produced? Hint: Your answer will be based on the four nucleotides highlighted in red. You need to first figure out the direction of transcription, based on the location of the 5′ and 3′ ends on the template and sense strands. Based on this information, pick the sequence with the correct 5′ and 3' orientation and sequence that would be produced as an RNA. 5′-ATCGACTATC-3' Template & 3′−TAGCTGATAG−5′ Sense strand.
a) 3’ AGUC 5’
b) 3’ GACU 5’
c) 5’ GACU 3’
d) 5′ AGGC 3′
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In terms of mechanism, recessive traits are usually....
A. Non-functional versions of the normal 'wildtype' protein or enzyme.
B. Only expressed in the 'phenotype' when two such (recessive) alleles are present.
C. An example of dominant-negative mutations.
D. Present in the population-mostly in carriers (heterozygous individuals)
In terms of mechanism, recessive traits are usually examples of dominant-negative mutations.
Mutations are changes in the DNA sequence caused by DNA copy mistakes or by environmental influences such as UV light or cigarette smoke. An individual inherits her two versions of each gene, known as alleles, from each parent. For recessive traits, the alleles of the gene causing the trait are the same and both (recessive) alleles must be present for the trait to be expressed. A recessive allele produces no trait at all when only one copy is present. In terms of mechanism, recessive traits are usually examples of dominant-negative mutations.
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what type of epithelium contains cells able to withstand a significant amount of stretch?
The type of epithelium that contains cells able to withstand a significant amount of stretch is called "Stratified Squamous Epithelium".
Stratified squamous epithelium is a type of epithelial tissue composed of multiple layers of flat, scale-like cells. It is found in areas of the body that are subjected to mechanical stress or friction, such as the skin and mucous membranes. The cells in the outer layers of this type of epithelium are keratinized, meaning they contain the protein keratin, which provides strength and protection. These cells are also able to withstand a significant amount of stretch, making them well-suited for their role in protecting underlying tissues. Stratified squamous epithelium also serves as a barrier, preventing the entry of foreign substances and microbes into the body.
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what are the energy-producing (caloric) and non-energy-producing (noncaloric) nutrients? what are their primary functions in your body?
Calories are produced when an energy-producing substance is digested by the body. Non-Energy-Producing: Do not produce Calories but serve other functions. Non-Energy-Producing-Nutrients Are devoid of calories. Water, vitamins and minerals (macronutrients).
Food value is measured in calories per gram. A calorie (small c) is the amount of heat necessary to increase the temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius (more specifically from 15oC to 16oC). The huge calories (with a capital C) or Kilocalarie are equivalent to 1000 calories.
What does it mean to be non-energy yielding?A non-nutrient energy-yielding chemical is a source of calories that is not a nutrition. Alcohol has 7 calories per gram, making it less energy dense than fat but more energy dense than carbs and protein.
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who were the founders of genetics and when was it discovered
Answer: Gregor Mendel
Gregor Mendel, OSA (1822-1884), founder of scientific genetics.
Explanation:
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Which of the following phrases best describes the function of the vertebral curves? a. to accommodate the weight of the pelvic girdle b. to absorb shock and trauma c. to provide resilience and flexibility d. to accomodate muscle attachment
The function of the vertebral curves is to accommodate the weight of the pelvic girdle.
What are Vertebral Curves?
Vertebral Curves are the curvature present in the vertebral column that has important functions. The spine, also known as the vertebral column, is made up of a number of bones called vertebrae that are stacked on top of one another and joined by cartilaginous intervertebral discs to form a column. Based on the structure and placement of the vertebrae, it is split into five zones to construct the skeleton of the neck and back. The four typical curves are formed by the vertebrae's placement within the vertebral column.
The vertebral column plays a significant role in body posture and movement since it is very flexible and capable of a variety of motions and movements, including flexion, extension, lateral flexion, and rotation.
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Which of the following structures is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a. Golgi apparatus.
b. Cell membrane.
c. Endoplasmic reticulum.
d. Chloroplast.
The structure present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell is: (b) Cell membrane.
Prokaryotic cells are the primitive types of cells that are devoid of a true nucleus, instead they consist of nucleoid which is the open genetic material lying in the cytoplasm. The prokaryotic cells do not contain any cell organelle. These are covered on the outer surface by cell membrane.
The cell membrane is also called the name plasma membrane. It is a structure that covers the cells to separate them from the outer environment. The structure of cell membrane is composed of lipid bilayer along with some proteins, cholesterol and carbohydrates.
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The white cattail is a hybrid species of plant that is a result of the cross between the broad-leaved cattail and the narrow-leaved cattail. Over time, the white cattail has established itself in the wetlands of Midwestern states.Which of these explains the success of the white cattail? Favorable genes from parental generations provide advantageous characteristics to the hybrid species.
The favorable genes from the parental generations are able to provide advantageous characteristics to the hybrid species which allows the white cattail to be able to grow in the wetlands.
The white cattail are a type of plant which are are adapted to grow in the wetlands. The white cattail species that are present in the nature are a result of the natural hybridization, which is mixing of the genes of two different species which belong to the same genus.
The white cattail when grown in the Midwestern states gets well adapted to grow in that area and the reason behind which could be accounted to the genes which are obtained from the parental plants provide a lot of advantages to the hybrid species which are newly formed.
--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"The white cattail is a hybrid species of plant that is a result of the cross between the broad-leaved cattail and the narrow-leaved cattail. Over time, the white cattail has established itself in the wetlands of Midwestern states. Which of these explains the success of the white cattail? Favorable genes from parental generations provide advantageous characteristics to the hybrid species.
a. Favorable genes from parental generations provide advantageous characteristics to the hybrid species.
b. Hybridization produces offspring traits that allow different species to survive in extreme environments.
c. Inherited traits passed on from parental generations make hybrid species more susceptible to disease.
d. Hybrid species display more adaptation due to their reduced genetic diversity"--
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a cell that can divide to give rise to any cell type is group of answer choices a differentiated cell. a progenitor cell. totipotent. multipotent. pluripotent.
Embryonic stem cells are thought to be pluripotent because they have the capacity to develop into any form of cell in the body.
The variable capacity of stem cells to develop into specific cell types is referred to as cell potency. More cell types can be produced by cells with higher potency than by cells with lower potency. Totipotent cells have the ability to develop into any type of cell in the body, including extraembryonic or placental cells. The only cells that are totipotent are those that form during the first few cell divisions following fertilization. Embryonic stem cells are regarded as pluripotent cells since they have the capacity to differentiate into any form of body cell. Adult stem cells and cord blood stem cells are both categorized as multipotent cells because they have the capacity to differentiate into many cell types but have less potential than pluripotent cells.
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true or false. A tetrad is composed of one pair of homologous chromosomes at synapsis of prophase I.
The given statement "A tetrad is composed of one pair of homologous chromosomes at synapsis of prophase I." is true because a tetrad consists of four chromatids or one pair of homologous chromosomes.
In meiosis, the each pair of chromosomes is known as a tetrad, or we can say a bivalent which consists of four chromatids. At this very point, the homologous chromosomes happen to exchange genetic material by the process of crossing over which takes place during the prophase I of the cell cycle.
The homologous pairs then separate and each of these pair are then pulled to opposite ends of the cell which then divides in half to form two daughter cells. Chromosomes get duplicated during the interphase, that is, at synapsis of prophase I, one chromosome in a tetrad gets inherited paternally while the other is maternally inherited.
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removal or shading of which part of a plant will result in growth from an axillary bud?
The axillary bud grows when the apical bud is removed or shaded, enabling the plant to continue growing and adapt to environmental changes.
What is an axillary bud?An axillary bud will grow if the plant's apical bud is removed or shaded. The growing tip of a stem known as the apical bud is what gives plants their initial growth. Other buds further down the stem cannot grow because of the hormones it produces. The axillary buds, which are found at the base of leaves or at the intersection of the stem and leaves, get more light and start to grow after the apical bud is cut off or shaded.
In conclusion, axillary buds will grow when the apical bud of a plant is removed or shaded, allowing the plant to continue growing and adapt to environmental changes.
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Select all of the characteristics exhibited by BOTH bacterial and eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes.
1. Phospholipid bilayer
2. Embedded proteins
3. Sterols
4. Selectively permeable barrier
5. Transport systems
Both bacterial and eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes exhibit several common characteristics that define their structure and function. So all the options are correct.
Firstly, both types of membranes are composed of a phospholipid bilayer, which forms the basic structure of the membrane and provides a selectively permeable barrier to the movement of substances in and out of the cell. Secondly, both types of membranes have embedded proteins that serve various functions such as transport, signaling, and recognition. Thirdly, both bacterial and eukaryotic membranes contain some type of sterols, which help to maintain the fluidity of the membrane and prevent it from becoming too stiff. Finally, both types of membranes have transport systems that allow for the regulated movement of substances into and out of the cell. These characteristics are essential for the proper functioning of cytoplasmic membranes in both bacteria and eukaryotes.
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which of the answer choices is a common feature of the lateral line of fish, and statocysts of crustaceans and mammals?
Answer: hair cells with stereocilia is the answer.
as a culture of clostridium enters the decline phase of the growth curve, the vegetative cells will have
Option A is Correct. The vegetative cells of a Clostridium culture will begin to create endospores as it moves into the decline phase of its development curve.
Bacteria pass through a death phase, or decline phase. Lack of nutrients, ambient temperatures outside or inside the species' acceptable range, or other harmful circumstances could be to blame for this. This is the bacterial growth's final stage. At this point, the rate of cell death exceeds the rate of cell division.
Cell death is caused by a lack of nutrition, physical ailments, or other damage to the cell. This summarizes the bacterial growth curve in its entirety. Waste materials build up and nutrients that are readily available are scarce in the culture tube. Oxygen might also be in insufficient supply, for example.
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Correct Question:
As a culture of Clostridium enters the decline phase of the growth curve, the vegetative cells will have
A. produce endospores.
B. synthesize a slime layer.
C. lose their cell walls.
D. form a thick capsule.
A common ancestor is an animal…
A. from which two species evolved
B. related to several species
C. with several offspring
D. with many adaptations
A common ancestor is an animal A. from which two species evolved and therefore have homologies with the species.
What is a common ancestor in evolutionary terms?A common ancestor in evolutionary terms refers to a species and or taxonomic group from which two or more distinct taxonomic groups descended, thereby sharing phenotypic features in the evolution of these species or groups.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that common ancestor in evolutionary terms can be defined as the shared features in species that descend from one group in the course of evolution.
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the sequence of organelles and cell parts that a secretion encounters is group of answer choices vesicles, golgi apparatus, mitochondrion, cell membrane. nucleus, nucleolus, nuclear envelope, cell membrane. cell membrane, vesicles, golgi apparatus, er, nucleus. mitochondrion, vesicles, golgi apparatus, er, cell membrane. nucleus, er, golgi apparatus, vesicles, cell membrane.
nucleus, er, golgi apparatus, vesicles, cell membrane.
What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum (er)?
The endoplasmic reticulum (ER), a continuous membrane structure in biology, is vital for the synthesis, folding, modification, and transport of proteins. It forms a series of flattened sacs within the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells. Endoplasmic reticulum can be found in all eukaryotic cells (ER). The ER typically makes up more than 50% of the cell's membranous composition in animal cells. The two forms of ER, known as rough ER and smooth ER, can be distinguished by differences in certain morphological and functional properties.
The following tasks are carried out by the endoplasmic reticulum: It is in charge of producing and releasing steroid hormones. It is also in charge of producing crucial lipids like cholesterol and phospholipids. Carbohydrate metabolism is carried out by it.
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Help me fill in the answers with the word bank pls
1- 8
The correct order of the molecules involved in protein synthesis is as follows;
DNAmRNACodontRNAAnticodonAmino acidRibosomeProteinWhat is protein synthesis?
Protein synthesis, also known as protein biosynthesis, is the process by which proteins are made from the information stored in DNA molecules through the mRNA at the ribosomes.
It is a fundamental biological activity that takes place inside cells to counteract the loss of cellular proteins (via export or degradation) by producing new proteins. As structural proteins, hormones, or enzymes, proteins serve a variety of important biological purposes.
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select the most complete explanation of what the ph scale actually measures.
The ph scale actually measures the amount of hydrogen ions in a solution. Here option A is the correct answer.
The acidity or basicity (alkalinity) of a solution is gauged using the pH scale. It accomplishes this by determining the amount of hydrogen ions (H+) present in the solution.
The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, with a pH of 7 being neutral, less than 7 being acidic, and greater than 7 being basic. The pH of a solution can have a significant impact on living organisms and their ability to function, as well as chemical reactions that take place in the solution.
An understanding of pH is crucial in fields such as biology, chemistry, environmental science, and medicine.
Complete question:
Select the most complete explanation of what the ph scale actually measures.
A) The amount of hydrogen ions in a solution
B) The concentration of water in a solution
C) The acidity or basicity of a solution
D) The temperature of a solution.
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The basal body, hook, and filament are components of _______ in bacteria
flagella. The curved hook joins the flagellar basal body to the whip-like flagellar filament that extends several micrometers from the bacterial cell while the flagellar basal body traverses the cell wall.
The flagellum has historically only been thought of as an organelle involved in motility, but it has recently become clear that flagella also serve a variety of other biological purposes. It is well known that the flagellum's major subunit, flagellin, or FliC, participates in innate immunity and serves as a dominant antigen in the adaptive immune response. Importantly, it has been suggested that flagella serve as adhesins. Bacterial adhesion to and invasion into host cells have been linked to whole flagella. Flagellin and/or the distally located flagellar cap protein have been reported to serve as adhesins in a number of pathogens, including Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Clostridium difficile.
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How is Pneumonia Transmitted
Need asap
Answer:
The main way people spread Streptococcus pneumoniae to others is through direct contact with respiratory droplets.
Explanation:
The bacteria often spread within households and in crowded conditions. Pneumococcal infections are more common during the winter and early spring.
Answer:
Explanation:
direct contact with respiratory droplets
high blood pressure can have what effect on your eyes?
High blood pressure, also known as hypertension, can have a number of negative effects on the eyes.
Chronic high blood pressure can cause damage to the blood vessels in the eyes, leading to conditions such as retinopathy, which can cause vision loss, blindness, or even complete detachment of the retina. Hypertension can also increase the risk of developing cataracts, which are clouding of the lens in the eye. High blood pressure can also increase the risk of developing glaucoma, a condition in which damage to the optic nerve leads to vision loss. To protect their eyes and maintain good vision, people with high blood pressure should work with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and monitor their eye health regularly.
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what is the name of the tendon that attaches the gastrocnemius to the bone?
The name of the tendon that attaches the gastrocnemius to the bone is the achilles tendon.
Your calf's midsection is where the Achilles tendon begins, and it runs all the way down to your heel. It joins the heel bone in your foot to the calf muscles (gastrocnemius and soleus muscles) in the back of your lower leg. The powerful fibrous band that connects the calf muscles to the calcaneus bone is known as the Achilles Tendon. Being the most often ruptured tendon in the human body, an Achilles Tendon Rupture (ATR) is a common pathology.
The main plantar flexor of the ankle joint is the gastrocnemius, together with the soleus. The muscle has a strong knee flexor as well. It cannot exert its full strength instantaneously at both joints; for instance, while the knee is flexed, the gastrocnemius cannot produce as much force at the ankle.
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the branch-like fibers extending in clusters from the neuron’s cell body are called ________.
Dendrites are the structures that come from the neuron and are branch-like structures. Thus the correct answer is option B.
Each neuron has a cell body, or soma, that contains a nucleus, smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, and other cellular components, just like other cells do. Additionally, the layouts of neurons are distinct for both receiving and transmitting the electrical signals necessary for brain communication. At specialized connections known as synapses, dendrites, which are tree-like projections that extend from the cell body, receive messages from other neurons. Some types of neurons have numerous dendrites, despite the fact that some neurons have no dendrites at all. Dendritic spines, minuscule protrusions that increase the surface area for potential synaptic connections, may be present on dendrites.
The complete question is:
The branchlike fibers extending in clusters from the neuron s cell body are called __________.
a. glial fibers
b. dendrites
c. terminal buttons
d. axons
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Phospholipids with an ether link between glycerol and the fatty acids are found in
A. archaea.
B. bacteria.
C. plants.
D. fungi.
Phospholipids with an ether link between glycerol and fatty acids are found in Archaea.
What are Archaea Phospholipids?
All living things have phospholipids as important parts of their cellular membranes. The majority of the time, they create a lipid bilayer that embroiders the cell or cellular organelles, acts as a barrier for ions and tiny solutes, and serves as a matrix for the function of membrane proteins. The two prokaryotic domains of Archaea and Bacteria have very diverse membrane phospholipid chemical compositions.
In contrast to bacterial phospholipids, which are made up of straight fatty acids bonded by ester bonds to the enantiomeric glycerol-3-phosphate backbone, archaeal lipids are made up of highly methylated isoprenoid chains that are ether-linked to a glycerol-1-phosphate backbone. Archaeal lipids' diverse composition and chemical structure enable the stability needed in harsh environmental conditions.
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.
Proteins with more than one polypeptide chain are said to have a ______ structure.
Proteins with more than one polypeptide chain are said to have a quaternary structure.
The complete stable structure of a particular proteins has 4 different levels which are namely the primary structure, the secondary structure, tertiary structure, as well as quaternary structure. The primary structure is the one which has specific amino acid sequence which is held together with the help of peptide bonds.
The secondary structure is the structure containing repeated arrangement of the amino acid backbone. The tertiary structure is basically the three-dimensional arrangement and the quaternary structure involves association of different polypeptide bonds in a more complex way and contains more than one polypeptide chain.
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Which cell has a large nucleus that fills most of the cell?
a. red blood cell
b. platelet
c. eosinophil
d. lymphocyte
Lymphocyte they have a large nucleus that fills most of the cell. The correct option is D
What is lymphocyte ?Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune system. They are responsible for recognizing and responding to pathogen such as viruses and bacteria, as well as abnormal cells, such as cancer cells.
There are two main types of lymphocytes such as :
B cells produce antibodies, which are proteins that help to neutralize pathogensT cells directly attack infected or abnormal cellsLymphocytes are produced in the bone marrow and mature in the lymphatic system. They circulate in the bloodstream and can also be found in the lymph nodes and other lymphatic tissues.
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feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes, y and b, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. yybb, yybb, or yybb is green; yybb or yybb is blue; yybb or yybb is yellow; and yybb is white. two blue budgies were crossed. over the years, they produced twenty-two offspring, five of which were white. what are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies? feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes, y and b, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. yybb, yybb, or yybb is green; yybb or yybb is blue; yybb or yybb is yellow; and yybb is white. two blue budgies were crossed. over the years, they produced twenty-two offspring, five of which were white. what are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies? yybb and yybb yybb and yybb yybb and yybb yybb and yybb
The most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies are yyBb and yyBb.
We are given:
YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is whiteproduced twenty-two offspring, five of which were white.From the case, yyBB or yyBb is blue and two blue budgies were crossed. It means:
Line
P1 y B B
P2 y b b
Thus, yyBB, yyBb, yyBb, yybb.
yybb is white, so yyBB and yyBb is blue.
Your question is incomplete, but most probably your options were
A. yyBB and yyBB
B. yyBB and yyBb
C. yyBb and yyBb
D. yyBb and yybb
Thus, C is the correct answer.
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