Cells consist of what that contains organelles?

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Answer 1

Cells consist of a fluid material referred to as cytoplasm that contains organelles.

What is a cell?

A cell is the smallest unit of life that is typically regarded as being alive. Every living thing is made up of cells, ranging in number from one (unicellular) to billions (multicellular).

The study of cells, their physiology, structure, and life cycle is known as cell biology.

The cell membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm are the three components that make up a cell.

Intricate arrangements of fine fibres and hundreds or even thousands of tiny, distinct structures known as organelles can be found in the cytoplasm.

Thus, cytoplasm is the fluid where organelles are present in a cell.

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Related Questions

A recent paper in the journal PNAS reported that genes that encode for antibody proteins that help fight against infections are transcribed more often in the cells of people that gain happiness from eudonistic sources (serving others) than in the cells of people whose happiness comes from hedonistic sources (materialism). Which of the following would you also expect to be different in cells from eudonistic and hedonistic individuals?
a. The TATA box sequence in front of antibody genes
b. RNA polymerase
c. Transcriptional activator proteins that regulate antibody genes

Answers

Transcriptional activator proteins that regulate antibody genes you also expect to be different in cells from eudonistic and hedonistic individuals. The correct option to this question is C.

By binding to particular sequences, transcriptional factors (TFs), which are proteins, can control whether a gene is turned "on" or "off." Transcriptional activators are one type of transcription factor.

In the process of turning DNA into RNA, or transcription, proteins are involved. RNA polymerase is not one of the many proteins that initiate and control the transcription of genes; instead, transcription factors encompass a large number of other proteins.

In the development of a preinitiation complex, general transcription factors are involved. TFIIA, TFIIB, TFIID, TFIIE, TFIIF, and TFIIH are the most widely used abbreviations. They are all over the place and engage in interaction with the main promoter region that is close to the transcription start site(s) of all class II genes.

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Help with this drag box thing pls and thank u

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1) The types of crosses represented on the punnett square:

      A      a

A   AA    Aa

a   Aa    aa

2) “A” is a dominant trait that represents the presence of purple skin in monsters and “a” is a recessive trait that represents pink skin.

3) The percentage of offspring that will have pink skin is 25%

4) The percentage of offspring with purple skin is 75%

5) The parents of this cross are heterozygous for skin color traits.

Terms in genetics:The Punnett diagram is a diagram by Reginald Punnet that is used by biologists to determine the probability of a cross having a specific genotype.Dominant: the trait that covers.Recessive: trait that is coveredHomozygous: having genotypes with the same letter size (MM or mm)Heterozygous: having genotypes with different letter sizes (Mm, Bb)

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Place the following in correct developmental sequence:1. reticulocyte2. proerythroblast3. normoblast4. late erythroblastSelect one:a. 2, 1, 3, 4b. 2, 4, 3, 1c. 1, 3, 2, 4d. 1, 2, 3, 4

Answers

Option b is Correct. The proper developmental order is 2, 4, 3, 1. The erythrocyte goes through the rubricyte, prorubricyte, rubriblast, and metarubricye stages.

The development of the normoblast stage can also be used to designate the stages. This results in the stages of polychromatic cell, pronormoblast, early normoblast, intermediate normoblast, and late normoblast. Transferrin receptor loss occurs gradually, making it a useful indicator of reticulocyte maturation (Malleret et al., 2013).

Malleret et al. (2013) established four phases of reticulocyte maturity, namely CD71high, CD71medium, CD71low, and CD71negative, based on CD71 labeling of cord blood derived reticulocytes. These phases consist of: Megaloblast erythropoiesis, also known as the pre-erythroblast stage, is where the initial cells are produced or synthesized and they are formed from CFU-E.

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Correct Question:

Place the following in correct developmental sequence:

1. reticulocyte

2. proerythroblast

3. normoblast

4. late erythroblast

Select one:

a. 2, 1, 3, 4

b. 2, 4, 3, 1

c. 1, 3, 2, 4

d. 1, 2, 3, 4

if the ecosystem is a closed system do you think the total amount of matter in an ecosystem changes?

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Any ecosystem is an example that describes the open ecosystem, if the ecosystem is a closed system, it exchanges energy but does not matter.

What happens to matter in the closed ecosystem?

Based on the movement of total matter into or outside the entire system, ecosystems can be divided into two general categories: open and closed. Closed systems exchange only energy, not matter, and are incredibly self-contained.

Physical and chemical changes can cause matter to change into different forms, but no matter what happens, the matter is always conserved.

Therefore, there is no creation or destruction of matter; the amount of matter is the same before and after the change.

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FILL IN THE BLANK one of the most important bioethical issues facing us today is the issue of ______ , or a loss thereof.

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The problem of biodiversity, or the loss thereof, is one of the most significant bioethical issues that we currently face.

Biodiversity or organic variety is the difference and instability of history on Earth. Biodiversity is a measure of alternatives at the historical, class, and environmental levels. Biodiversity is essential for the processes that support all existence on Earth, containing persons. Without an off-course range of mammals, plants, and microorganisms, we cannot have the healthful environments that we rely on to specify us accompanying the air we sigh and the fare we bite. And society too advantage type essentially.

One of the ultimate questionable materials in bioethics is mercy killing. According to the BBC: “Euthanasia is the end of a very person being treated for medical problem's growth in consideration of responsibility bureaucracy of their pain.

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explain what a stationary front looks like on a weather chart please help me​

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Answer:

A stationary front is depicted by an alternating red and blue line with a triangle on the blue portion and half-moon on the opposite side of the red portion of the line.

Explanation:

i looked it up. Hope it helps

allolactose induces the synthesis of the enzyme lactase. an e. coli cell is presented for the first time wih the sgar lactose (containing its isomer allolactose) as a potential food source. which of the following occurs when lactose enters the cell?

Answers

When lactose enters the cell, allolactose binds to the repressor protein, which in turn prevents the transcription of the lac operon.

This prevents the production of the enzyme lactase, which is necessary for the metabolism of lactose. As a result, the cell is unable to utilize lactose as a food source, as it cannot break it down into usable molecules.

Enzyme lactase, also known as lactase-phlorizin hydrolase, is an enzyme found in the small intestine that is responsible for breaking down the sugar lactose into its component parts, glucose and galactose. This process is necessary for the digestion of lactose, which is a type of sugar found in dairy products. The enzyme lactase is found in all mammals, and the levels of lactase production and activity vary among individuals. People with lactose intolerance have lower levels of lactase, which makes it difficult for them to digest lactose.

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3. Record your observations for each simulation test trial in the tables below and write 3-4 sentences describing your observations.

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Any change that might occur in any population size of a trophic chain affects the whole equilibrium. Herbivores feed on producers and increase their population size. Producers decrease in number because more herbivores are feeding on them. Carnivores increase in number because there are more herbivores available for them to eat.

What is a trophic web?

The trophic web is a relationship process between different organisms, through which occurs transference of energy. The ones placed at lower levels pass energy to the ones at the higher levels.

Organisms at each level feed on the preceding one and become food for the next one.

The first link corresponds to a producer organism -autotroph-. The following links are the consumers -heterotrophs-: herbivores and carnivores. The last links are the decomposers that degrade organic matter from dead organisms.

As it is a web, all organisms are equilibrated until a change occurs. When the change affects any of the involved links, there can be a cascade effect on the web. A change in a link population size (increasing or decreasing) will affect the superior links and the immediately anterior link.

To answer this question, we need to focus on this las paragraph. When a population increases in size,

the anterior link decreases because more individuals are feeding on these organismsthe posterior link increases because there is more available food.

Since I do not have access to the simulation, I will propose an example of these tables (test trials)

Table : Test trial simulation

Organisms            Start (number you added)        End (number you ended)

Carnivore                               30                                                60  

Herbivore                               50                                                70    

Producer                                 100                                              50

In this example, we started the experiment with

30 carnovires (let us imagine a mountain lion)50 herbivores (let us imagine rabbits)100 producers (let us imagine grass plants)

Analysis,

Since rabbits prey a lot on grasses, we expect them to eat, develop, and reproduce. Since they reproduce, their population number increases sharply.

The more rabbits there are, the less grasses there will be because more herbivores are feeding on them. Grass population size will decrease.

The more rabbits there are, there more mountain lions there will be, because there is more food for them. Assuming rabbits are mountain lions prey, if the rabbit population increases, there will be more food for carnivores, and their population will increase in size.

Herbivores increased in number because they fed on grasses. Producers decreased in number because more rabbits were feeding on them. Carnivores increased in size because more herbivores were available.

Now, following this example, you can make you simulation.

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phenolic compounds are effective against . multiple choice question. all enveloped viruses most vegetative bacterial cells bacterial endospores

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Phenolic compounds are effective against Most vegetative bacterial cells.

Found in detergents, Lysol, work in the presence of organic material, and mycobacterium species.

An aromatic ring holding one or more hydroxyl groups is a characteristic of phenolic chemicals, which are characterized as plant-based substances. They are the most prevalent secondary metabolites of plants and are also the ones that are distributed the widest throughout the plant kingdom.

Simple compounds like arbutin, eugenol, hydroquinone, khellin, and myristicin are among them, as are more complicated ones like griseofulvin, podophyllotoxin, procyanidin, rotenone, tetrahydrocannabinol, and usnic acid.

In general, these substances help shield vegetables, fruits, and plants from oxidative damage. The widespread presence of phenolic compounds in plant foods and drinks and their contribution to the overall organoleptic qualities of plant foods explain why they are present in these products.

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A standard petri dish has a surface area of 314 millimeters squared, which is equivalent to 314,000 micrometers squared. What is the maximum number of prokaryotic cells that could fit on the petri dish and completely cover the surface? Use the range given for prokaryotic cell size.
A. 0.4–40 cells
B. 40–4000 cells
C. 40,000–40,000,000 cells
D. 4000–400,000 cells

Answers

314 millimeters squared, or 314,000 micrometers squared, is the surface area of a typical petri dish. 4000–400,000 prokaryotic cells may entirely cover the surface of the petri dish and fit there.

An uncomplicated, single-celled organism known as a prokaryote is devoid of a nucleus and organelles that are attached to membranes. Prokaryotic DNA is mostly located in the nucleoid, which is the center of the cell. Circular chromosomes are the most common type of prokaryotic DNA. Prokaryotic cells typically have a diameter of 0.1 to 5.0 micrometers (μm), which is considerably smaller than that of eukaryotic cells, which typically have a diameter of 10 to 100 μm.

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you want to label a structure of the specimen you are viewing. which of the following is true about labels and label lines?

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A: "Lines should be straight, with all labels to one side (right or left) of the drawing" is the correct way to label a structure of the specimen .

Labels and label lines are used to identify structures in a scientific illustration or diagram. To make the drawing clear and easy to read, it is important to use straight lines for the labels and to place all labels on one side of the drawing, either on the right or the left. This helps to avoid confusion and makes it easier for the viewer to understand the relationships between the labeled structures. Straight lines also give a clean and professional appearance to the illustration.

"

Complete question

you want to label a structure of the specimen you are viewing. which of the following is true about labels and label lines?

A: Lines should be straight, with all labels to one side (right or left) of the drawing

B: Lines should be straight, with all labels  on both sides (right and left) of the drawing

"

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which of the following procedures can be used as a diagnostic tool to collect biopsy samples and as a treatment to remove abnormal tissue?

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Option D, A biopsy is a procedure that LEEP and Conization can be used as a diagnostic tool to collect a sample of tissue for examination and as a treatment to remove abnormal tissue.

This can be done through various methods, including fine needle aspiration, core biopsy, incisional biopsy, and excisional biopsy. Each method is used based on the LEEP and Conization specific diagnostic or therapeutic goal, the type of tissue being sampled, and the location of the abnormal tissue. The sample collected during a biopsy is then examined under a microscope to make a as a treatment to remove abnormal tissue diagnosis or to evaluate the effectiveness of a treatment.

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The complete Question is:

Which of the following procedures can be used as a diagnostic tool to collect biopsy samples and as a treatment to remove abnormal tissue?

A. LEEP

B. Conization

C. Colposcopy

D. Both A and B

E. All of the above

brown beetles survive to reproduce jore than green beetles do. the brown allele increases in frequency

Answers

It is true that "brown beetles survive to reproduce more than green beetles do. the brown allele increases in frequency" is an example of change in population.

Population change or the change in population is basically the change in the number of individuals in a specified area during a particular time period. There are certain statistics which are studied to understand population change. These statistics include migration rates, birth rates, death rates, and sex ratios.

The three components of population change are birth, death and migration. Brown beetles surviving in order to produce more than green beetles do is an example of change in population.

--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is

"Is it true that the following statement is an example of change in population- brown beetles survive to reproduce more than green beetles do. The brown allele increases in frequency?"--

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predict which of the following outcomes would be seen for e.coli cells that have been transformed by taking up plasmids with both the selection gene for ampicillin resistance and the gfp reporter gene.

Answers

There won't be any bacterial growth just on LB/Amp plate without the plasmid since the bacterium neither grow in the presence of a antibiotic ampicillin without it.

Ampicillin (AMP), an semi-synthetic -lactam antibiotic, is frequently used to treat E. coli infections in people and animals, although its incidence of resistance has lately risen.There won't be any bacterial growth just on LB/Amp plate without the plasmid since the bacterium neither grow in the presence of a antibiotic ampicillin without it. When bacteria are actively reproducing, AMP prevents the production of their cell walls. Antibiotics either eradicate or stop the development of microorganisms. On the ampicillin pate, there must be very little to no growth. If any bacteria develop on the ampicillin plate, it indicates that they are antibiotic-resistant.

(What is the role of E. coli in gene cloning during transformation process?)

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pendas complex inheritance (achieving): drag and drop the options that best answer the questions.

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A Punnet square is a monohybrid cross and is going to be used to compare the traits of the example given earlier.

What do you mean by monohybrid cross?

A monohybrid cross is a cross between two organisms with different variations at one genetic locus of interest. The character being studied in a monohybrid cross are governed by two or multiple variations for a single location of a gene.

“A monohybrid cross is the hybrid of two individuals with homozygous genotypes which result in the opposite phenotype for a certain genetic trait.” “The cross between two monohybrid traits is called a Monohybrid Cross.” Monohybrid cross is responsible for the inheritance of one gene.

One plant was tall and another plant was dwarf. Both the plants were homozygous. The genotype (genetic composition) of a tall plant was TT and that of short plant was tt. Mendel crossed the two plants which produced offspring or progeny known as F1 generation.

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Explain the results by diagramming the crosses. (As yellow seeds are dominant, set up the symbols G = yellow seeds, g = green seeds.) Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets

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The outcome of the cross between a homozygous dominance yellow seed plant (GG) and a homozygous recessive green seed plant (gg) can be represented using a Punnett square.

A Punnett square is a diagram that shows the possible offspring genotypes from a cross between two parents. In this cross, the alleles from each parent are placed along the top and the left side of the square, and the resulting offspring genotypes are placed in the boxes within the square. In this case, the offspring will all be heterozygous (Gg) and have yellow seeds because the dominance allele (G) masks the expression of the recessive allele (g). Therefore, the cross between a homozygous dominance yellow seed plant and a homozygous recessive green seed plant will result in all offspring having yellow seeds, even though they carry both yellow and green alleles.

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The Complete Question is:

What is the outcome of a cross between a homozygous dominance yellow seed plant (GG) and a homozygous recessive green seed plant (gg)?

the total magnification achieved by the microscope is calculated by ____ the magnification of the objective and the ocular lens.

Answers

The total magnification is calculated by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens by the magnification of the objective lens. Light is passed through the sample (called transmitted light illumination).

In optics, magnification refers to the image's size in relation to the item that produced it. The ratio of the image length to the object length, as measured in planes perpendicular to the optical axis, is referred to as linear magnification, also known as lateral or transverse magnification.

An inverted image is shown by a linear magnification value that is negative. The size-increasing factor, as determined along the optical axis, is known as longitudinal magnification.

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What are the two most likely sequences of these genes on a gene map for this chromosome? Select two options. A. B, A, C B. A, B, C C. C, B, A

Answers

B, A, C are the two most likely sequences of these genes on a gene map for this chromosome. Therefore, the correct option is option A.

What is gene?

A gene is a unit of genetic information that resides at a specific location (locus) on something like a chromosome. Genes exert their influence through controlling protein synthesis.

Genes in prokaryotes (organisms without a separate nucleus, including such bacteria) are housed on a particular chromosome that floats freely in the cell cytoplasm. Many bacteria also include plasmids, which are extrachromosomal genetic components with a limited number of genes. B, A, C are the two most likely sequences of these genes on a gene map for this chromosome.

Therefore, the correct option is option A.

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1. List the order in which rock layers formed and events occurred A
through E.
2. How can you tell that intrusion D is older than fault E?
3. Using relative dating methods, which of the following are scientists
able to do?
a. Identify the order in which rock units formed.
b. Assign a numerical date to each rock layer studied.
c. Determine the age of the fossils within each layer.
d. Identify what rock types are present.


PLEASE HELP

Answers

Answer:

1. B, A, D, E

2. the intrusion is not lined up

3. a

Explanation:

Place the following steps in order to describe Griffith's experimental design. Recall that S strain bacteria are encapsulated and therefore deadly and R strain bacteria are not encapsulated and therefore not deadly.

Answers

The correct placement of the steps in order to describe Griffith's experimental design is given below:

1. Griffith showed the presence of a genetic "transforming factor" that could be transferred from cell to cell2. Avery indicated that because DNAse inactivated "the transforming factor", the genetic component of cells was most likely DNA3. Hershey and Chase confirmed that DNA was the genetic material of cellsWhat is R-strain bacteria?

The R bacteria developed colonies, or groups of related bacteria when cultivated in a petri dish, and these colonies had distinct borders and a rough look (hence the abbreviation "R").

The R bacteria were nonvirulent, which means that when administered to a mouse, they did not result in illness. S ailment.

The correct steps are given above.

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During hard physical work the body loses a lot of sodium ions in sweat

Answers

Answer:Sweat typically contains 40-60 mmol/L of sodium, leading to approximately 20-90 mmol of sodium lost in one exercise session with sweat rates of 0.5-1.5 L/h. Reductions in sodium intake of 20-90 mmol/day have been associated with substantial health benefits.

Explanation:

What is the final outcome of the replication process

Answers

One new strand of dna

identify the most descriptive structures or bonds found in dna or rna shown, and identify each structure as either hydrophobic, hydrophilic, or amphipathic.

Answers

The correct answer is hydrophobic , A substance's hydrophobic quality is its ability to resist water. It refers to a lack of affection for water and a tendency to resist or not absorb water. Hydrophobic molecules are non-polar compounds that tend to clump together.

Non-polar molecules in hydrophobic compounds reject bodies of water while attracting other neutral molecules and non-polar solvents. Alkanes, oils, and lipids in general are examples of these compounds.

The hydrophobic interactions are caused by two features of water: its polarity and its capacity to form strong hydrogen bonds with other polar molecules. Water may dissolve other polar molecules due to its polarity since it can easily establish hydrogen bonds with them.

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Complete the Concept Map to relate plasma membrane structure to active and passive transport processes.
Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.

Answers

Active and passive transport differ in the size and charge of molecules they transport, molecules' direction concerning their electrochemical gradient, and use of energy. In the attached files you will find the complete map.

What are active and passive transports?

Active and passive transports are cell mechanisms for taking substances into and out of the cell through the cell membrane.

The main difference between them is the size and charge of the molecule transported, the use of energy, and the substances' motion direction.

Passive transport moves substances from the more concentrated side to the less concentrated one. This is, substances move following their electrochemical gradient. Because of this, this transport does not require energy to occur.

There are two types of passive transports,

Simple diffusion (osmosis is one type of simple diffusion)Facilitated diffusion

Active transport acts against the electrochemical gradient, so it does need energy to transport substances. It carries molecules from a low-concentration side of the membrane to a high-concentration side.

Energy is obtained in two ways,

In primary active transport, the energy needed comes from the ATP molecule.In secondary active transport, the energy comes from the membrane's electric potential.

Among others, endocytosis and exocytosis are two types of active transport.

Concepts map in the attached files.

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Part A- Catabolic and anabolic reactions Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. Words will be used more than once. View Available Hint(s) Reset Help catabolic 1. pathways break down macromolecules into simple component parts. anabolic 2. pathways release energy. pathways build up macromolecules by combining simpler molecules. pathways require energy. 5. pathways provide the building blocks and the energy needed for reactions 6. Some energy released by reactions is stored in the form of chemical bonds in ATP. 7. reactions couple with ATP synthesis. 8. reactions couple with ATP breakdown

Answers

Catabolic reactions: 1. pathways break down macromolecules into simple component parts. 2. pathways release energy. 4. pathways require energy. 6. Some energy released by reactions is stored in the form of chemical bonds in ATP. 8. reactions couple with ATP breakdown.

Anabolic reactions: 3. pathways build up macromolecules by combining simpler molecules. 5. pathways provide the building blocks and the energy needed for reactions. 7. reactions couple with ATP synthesis.

Catabolic reactions are metabolic pathways that break down complex molecules into simpler compounds, releasing energy in the process. This energy can be stored in the form of chemical bonds in adenosine triphosphate (ATP), which is the primary energy currency of cells. The energy stored in ATP can then be used to drive cellular processes, such as muscle contraction, transport of ions across membranes, and the synthesis of macromolecules.

Anabolic reactions, on the other hand, are metabolic pathways that build up complex molecules from simpler precursors. These pathways require energy, which can be provided by the breakdown of ATP or by the transfer of energy from other high-energy molecules, such as NADPH. Anabolic reactions play an important role in the growth and repair of tissues, the synthesis of macromolecules such as proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids, and the storage of energy in the form of glycogen or fat.

Together, catabolic and anabolic reactions form a dynamic balance, with catabolism breaking down molecules to release energy, and anabolism using that energy to build up molecules.

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A hypothetical population of 200 cats has two alleles, T- and Te, for a locus that codes for tail length. The table below describes the phenotypes of cats with each possible genotype, as well as the number of individuals in the population with each genotype. Which statements about the population are true? Genotype Phenotype (tail length) Number of individuals in population long T-74 60 medium TATS 40 short T$78 100 Adapted from Siology by Campbell and Reece 2008 Pearson Education, Inc. Select the five statements that are true. View Available Hint(s) Heterozygotes make up 20% of the population. Homozygotes make up 80% of the population. Homozygotes make up 30% of the population. In the entire cat population, 60% of the alleles are TS. In the entire cat population, the frequency of the allele is 0.5. In the entire cat population, the frequency of the allele is 0.4. Assurning random mating, each gamete has a 50% chance of having a hallele and a 50% chance of having a Sallele. Assuming random mating, each gamete has a 40% chance of having a Tallele and a 60% chance of having a 7 allele.

Answers

Heterozygotes make up 20% of the population. Homozygotes make up 80% of the population. In the population, 60% of the alleles are T-. The frequency of the T- allele in the population is 0.5.

A hypothetical population of 200 cats has two alleles, T- and T$, for a locus that codes for tail length. The table shows the number of individuals in the population with each genotype and the corresponding phenotypes. Based on the information provided, the following statements about the population are true: Homozygotes , with the TAT genotype, make up 20% of the population (40 individuals out of 200). Homozygotes, with either the T-T- or the T$T$ genotype, make up 80% of the population (160 individuals out of 200). In the entire cat population, 60% of the alleles are T- (120 out of 200). The frequency of the T- allele in the population is 0.5 (120 out of 200). Assuming Homozygotes  random mating, each gamete has a 50% chance of having a T- allele and a 50% chance of having a T$ allele.

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what would be the estimate concentration of a sample if tube a has ~5% starch and the duplicate, tube be had ~15% starch? what type of data is this

Answers

In the dialysis experiment, since the tube is permeable to starch, it moves out of the tube into the distilled water.

What happens in the lab experiment?

In a lab experiment on dialysis, to check if starch moves through the differentially permeable membrane of dialysis tubing, it has to be placed into a beaker filled with distilled water and a few drops of iodine.

The movement of starch will depend on the solution being hypotonic, hypertonic or isotonic with the distilled water. Since the solution in the dialysis tube is hypertonic with respect to  the distilled water in the beaker, it will move out of the tube into the beaker.

Therefore, In the dialysis experiment, since the tube is permeable to starch, it moves out of the tube into the distilled water.

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when it senses cold, the[ select ]sends a signal in the form of a[ select ]to[ select ]cells which leads to activation of[ select ]proteins. it has recently been discovered that in addition to this regulation of the process, muscle cells release a[ select ]into the circulation. this molecule is called[ select ]and it is a substrate for an enzyme involved in[ select ]

Answers

When it senses cold, the hypothalamus sends a thermogenesis signal in the form of a hormone to brown fat cells, activating UCP1 proteins.

The hypothalamus, an important part of the brain that regulates body temperature, sends a signal in response to cold in the form of a hormone. This signal travels to brown fat cells, leading to the activation of uncoupling protein 1 (UCP1) proteins. UCP1 plays a key role in thermogenesis, the process by which the body generates heat to maintain its core temperature. It has recently been discovered that muscle cells also play a role in thermogenesis by releasing a molecule proteins called irisin into the bloodstream. Irisin acts as a substrate for an enzyme involved in thermogenesis, making it a crucial proteins player in the regulation of body temperature.

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The complete Question is:

What is the process by which cold sensation leads to activation of proteins, and how has the recent discovery of a molecule released by muscle cells changed our understanding of this regulation?

Two charged particles are shown below. Particle A has a charge of –3.0 × 10–5 C. Particle B is located 3 cm directly to the left of Particle A and has a charge of +4.0 × 10–5 C. Compare the magnitude and direction of the electrostatic force acting on Particle B to the force acting on Particle A.

Answers

The direction of the force acting on Particle A is towards Particle B.

The electrostatic force between two charged particles is given by Coulomb's law:

Which states that the force between two charges is proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

The magnitude of the force acting on Particle B is given by:

F = k * |q1 * q2| / r^2

where k is the Coulomb constant (8.99 × 10^9 Nm^2/C^2), q1 and q2 are the charges of Particles A and B, r is the distance between them.

The magnitude of the force acting on Particle B is:

F = 8.99 × 10^9 * |-3.0 × 10^-5 * 4.0 × 10^-5| / (0.03)^2 = 3.24 × 10^-5 N

The direction of the force acting on Particle B is towards Particle A, since the charges have opposite signs.

Similarly, the magnitude of the force acting on Particle A is

F = 8.99 × 10^9 * |-3.0 × 10^-5 * 4.0 × 10^-5| / (0.03)^2 = 3.24 × 10^-5 N

The direction of the force acting on Particle A is towards Particle B.

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true/false. a package is a category disruptor if question 1 options: it is reusable over and over again it adds convenience for busy consumers it is manufactured for a private label brand it breaks through the sea of sameness on store shelves it is an unusual color that stands out on a store shelf

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True. A package can be a category disruptor if it breaks through the sea of sameness on store shelves.

A category disruptor is a product or package that challenges the status quo in a particular market by introducing new and unique features that distinguish it from its competitors. In this context, a package that is eye-catching and stands out from other products on store shelves can be considered a category disruptor.

The package's unusual color, shape, or design can help it attract attention and appeal to consumers who are looking for something different and new. This can also help the product stand out from the competition and capture market share, which can be especially beneficial for private label brands looking to establish their own unique identity.

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