which stage of the interview consists of the nurse saying i have just two more questions for you when assessing a patient with complaints of chest pain

Answers

Answer 1

The nurse is at the interview stage where she is terminating the interview. Option 3 is correct.

When a patient enters with chest pain or other chest-related symptoms, the triage nurse's responsibility is to critically examine the link of risk factors to probable outcomes in order to make the best triage judgements. The more risk factors the patient has, the more concerned the triage nurse is about a potentially high-risk scenario.

The first nursing assessment, the initial of five processes in the nursing process, entails the systematic and continual gathering of data, its sorting, analyzing, and organization, as well as its documentation and transmission. Critical thinking skills used in the nursing process provide such a decision-making framework for developing and guiding a patient-centered plan of care that incorporates evidence-based practise ideas.

The complete question is

The nurse is conducting an interview of a patient who complains of chest pain. The nurse says, "I have just two more questions for you." In which stage of the interview is the nurse?

Starting the interviewSetting the stageAssessing the patientTerminating the interview

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Related Questions

The doctor is very concerned about Janine's body composition and needs to know the exact percentage of body fat she has and where the body fat is stored. Which of the following would be the BEST test for the doctor to order?
A.
waist-to-hip ratio
B.
BMI
C.
MRI
D.
caliper test

Answers

Answer:

D. Caliper test would be the BEST test for the doctor to order to determine Janine's body fat percentage and where it is stored. The caliper test involves using a device to measure the thickness of a fold of skin at several points on the body, which is then used to estimate body fat percentage. It provides a more specific measurement of body fat distribution than a waist-to-hip ratio or BMI (body mass index), and is a relatively low-cost and non-invasive option. An MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) is an imaging technique that can visualize internal organs and tissues, but is not typically used for measuring body fat.

The best test for the doctor to order is MRI to know the exact percentage of body fat she has and where the body fat is stored, hence option C is correct.

How MRI used to know body fat percentage?

A useful tool for complex body composition analysis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) also measures muscle volumes, muscle fat infiltration, and other ectopic fat deposition.

A non-invasive imaging technique called magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) creates three-dimensional, intricate anatomical images. For disease detection, diagnosis, and therapy monitoring, it is frequently employed.

Therefore, the MRI scan is used to look into or make a diagnosis of soft tissue disorders like tumors, including cancer, injury to soft tissue, such as torn ligaments, joint damage or illness.

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what health care regulation established privacy regulations? a. administration simplification b. emtala c. ssa d. oig compliance guidance

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administration simplification health care regulation established privacy regulations.

What is heath care?

Healthcare is the maintenance and improvement of physical and mental health, especially through the prevention and treatment of disease and injury. It involves a range of professional disciplines including doctors, nurses, dentists, allied health professionals, pharmacists, optometrists and other healthcare providers who work together to diagnose, treat and manage a person's medical condition. Healthcare also includes public health initiatives such as immunization, screening programs and health education.

Therefore, administration simplification health care regulation established privacy regulations.

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hurst a client, who is connected to a cardiac monitor, is found unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. what action should the nurse initiate first?

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The nurse should initiate Defibrillator first when a client, who is connected to a cardiac monitor, is found unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless.

Defibrillators are mechanical devices that give a shock or pulse or some sort of an electric current to the heart to get it to restart or to start beating normally once again. Prepare to use the defibrillator as quickly as possible if the patient is not breathing, has no pulse, or has an erratic heartbeat. One can be revived from a sudden cardiac arrest using an Defibrillator . Typically, this happens when an interruption in the heart's electrical activity results in a heartbeat that is either dangerously fast (ventricular tachycardia) or fast and irregular (ventricular fibrillation). If the patient is unresponsive and not breathing, CPR should be given, and then an AED should be used. CPR should be repeated if the AED does not restore the patient's consciousness.

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The above question is incomplete. check below the complete question-

Hurst a client, who is connected to a cardiac monitor, is found unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. what action should the nurse initiate first?

A) Defibrillation

B) ECG monitoring

C) Implantation of a cardioverter defibrillator

D) Angioplasty

the price earnings ratio is found by dividing the current price per share by last year's . multiple choice question. earnings per share stock price net cash flow book value of assets

Answers

By multiplying the contemporary price per share by the declared earnings per share from the previous year, one can calculate the price-earnings ratio.

What does the word share mean?

An equity controlling interest in a corporation is represented by a share. Dividends from any earnings the company makes are owed to the shareholders. They also take the brunt of any losses the business may sustain.

What fraction of a share is a stock?

Calculating the number of shares still outstanding is simple if you know a company's market cap and share price. Simply divide the market capitalization amount by the share price. The number of outstanding shares that formed the capitalization figure was based was the outcome.

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an older adult client that has been separating themselves from others has now stopped participating in their favorite social activities at the nursing home. they share that their family has been visiting less frequently. what should the nurse consider as a possible cause for this change in behavior?

Answers

The likelihood of continent episodes increases and removal is aided by including the client's toileting routine into his wandering. The client's mobility will decline with sedation and restraints.

Which nursing action is best suited for dementia patients' care?

Physical activity offers an opportunity to socialize and reduces the isolation that persons with dementia frequently face. It is a suitable nursing intervention to promote cognitive functioning and well-being.

What comes first in the treatment of delirium?

Treating any causes or triggers is the first step in treating delirium. This can entail quitting a particular medication, curing an infection, or correcting a bodily imbalance.

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a 40-year-old g1 woman at 34 weeks gestation was observed at work having a grand mal seizure. her airway was secured. blood pressure in the ambulance was 140/90. fetal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. what is the initial treatment for her condition?

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The initial treatment for a pregnant woman experiencing a grand mal seizure would typically involve stabilizing her airway and maintaining her vital signs, including blood pressure and fetal heart rate. In this scenario, where the patient has a blood pressure of 140/90 and a fetal heart rate of 120 beats per minute, the following steps may be taken:

What is grand mal seizure?

A grand mal seizure, also known as a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, is a type of seizure characterized by a loss of consciousness and a series of muscle contractions. It typically begins with a tonic phase, during which the muscles contract and the person becomes stiff, followed by a clonic phase, during which the muscles rapidly contract and relax in a rhythmic manner.

Administer supplemental oxygen as needed to maintain adequate oxygen saturationAdminister anticonvulsant medication as prescribed to control the seizure activityTransport the patient to a healthcare facility for further evaluation and managementContinuously monitor the patient's vital signs, including blood pressure and fetal heart rateNotify the obstetrical team, as a woman in advanced pregnancy who experiences a seizure may require close monitoring for potential maternal and fetal complications.

It's important to note that this is a general outline of potential initial treatment and that the specific treatment will depend on the patient's individual circumstances, such as the cause of the seizure, the presence of any other medical conditions, and the overall health of both the mother and the fetus.

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the client asks the nurse to explain the difference between arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis. which is the best explanation the nurse can give to the client?

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Arteriosclerosis is hardening of arteries, while atherosclerosis is build-up of fatty deposits in the arteries.

Arteriosclerosis is a general term that refers to the hardening of the arteries, which is the blood vessels that carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the rest of the body. This hardening can occur due to various factors, such as aging, high blood pressure, or genetic predisposition, and can lead to decreased blood flow to various organs and tissues. On the other hand, atherosclerosis is a specific type of arteriosclerosis that occurs when fatty deposits, known as plaques, build up in the walls of the arteries. These plaques can narrow the arteries and reduce the amount of blood that can flow through them. Over time, this can lead to serious health problems, such as heart disease, stroke, and peripheral artery disease.

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a 33-year-old woman has irritable bowel syndrome (ibs). the physician has prescribed simethicone (mylicon) for her discomfort. which will the nurse monitor most closely during the client's drug therapy?

Answers

During the client's drug therapy, the nurse will pay close attention to any increased abdominal pain and vomiting.

How do you define irritable bowel syndrome?

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a condition that affects the gastrointestinal tract, which is typically comprised of the stomach and intestines. Abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constipation are all potential symptoms. Cramping could also occur. IBS must be managed over the long term because it is a chronic condition.

Severe symptoms are only experienced by a small percentage of IBS patients. Some people can manage their symptoms by managing their stress levels, diet, and way of life. For the management of more severe symptoms, medication and counseling may be used.

IBS doesn't affect gut flora or put you at an increased risk of colorectal cancer.

IBS symptoms can vary, but they frequently persist for a while.

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under what conditions should a student inform the instructor of a lab injury? select one: the instructor must be informed of all laboratory injuries. the instructor should be alerted only if the lab injury appears different from injuries the student has experienced previously. the instructor needs to be alerted only if he or she needs to call 911. the instructor should be alerted only if the injury involves broken skin.

Answers

The instructor must be informed of all laboratory injuries. Option A

Must the instructor be informed of every injury?

It  is important to inform the instructor or supervisor of any injury sustained during an activity or event. This is important for several reasons: to ensure proper medical attention is sought, to document the injury for insurance or liability purposes, and to make necessary accommodations to prevent future incidents.

The specific requirements for reporting injuries may vary depending on the organization, location, and type of activity, so it is best to follow established protocols and policies.

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the nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube and in mitt restraints. which nursing action is required every 1 to 2 hours?

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When caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube and mitt restraints, the nurse must assess the client's position and ensure that the client is safe and comfortable.

The nurse must perform an abdominal assessment and look for any signs of abdominal distension, pain, or discomfort to ensure the proper functioning and placement of the NG tube. In addition, the nurse must assess the client's skin integrity around the NG tube insertion site to ensure that it is not causing skin breakdown or irritation.

Every 1 to 2 hours, the nurse should check the client's position, NG tube placement, and skin integrity around the NG tube insertion site. This is an important nursing action that can help prevent complications like tube dislodgement or skin irritation.

The nurse must assess the client's circulation, sensation, and range of motion in the restrained extremities when using mitt restraints. The nurse should also inspect the restraints for signs of damage or loosening, and ensure that the restraints are not causing discomfort or restriction of circulation.

The nurse must also provide comfort measures to the client, such as positioning the client in a comfortable position, administering pain medication as prescribed, and performing oral hygiene.

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what statement explains how the participants in the tuskegee syphilis study were not treated respectfully?

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The correct response is A, which states that the researchers' concealment of the study's actual goal hindered the men from making an educated decision about participation and explains why the participants in the Tuskegee Syphilis Study were not treated with respect.

Because the study's genuine objective was kept secret, the men were unable to make an educated choice regarding participation. Because they failed to provide the males with the facts they need to make a fully informed decision, the researchers failed to treat participants with respect. Some individuals might not have agreed to participate in the study if they had been aware of the risks and hazards. It becomes obvious that the rights of the research participants were violated. The Tuskegee Study raised a number of ethical concerns, including informed consent, racism, paternalism, uneven subject selection in research, maleficence, telling the truth, and justice.

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The complete question is:

What statement explains how the participants in the Tuskegee syphilis study were not treated respectfully?

A. Researchers hid the true purpose of study, which prevented the men from making a fully informed decision about participating.

B. The researchers did not treat participants respectfully because they did not give the men the information they needed to make a fully informed decision.

C. Had they known the risks and dangers of participation, some participants may have decided not to take part in the study.

which of the following methods allow(s) us to observe with precision the timing of large-scale neural activity across the surface of the brain?

Answers

Advanced non-invasive neuroimaging techniques such as EEG and fMRI allow researchers to directly observe with precision the timing of large-scale neural activity across the surface of the brain.

What imaging modalities can provide information about brain function?

Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) measures small changes in blood flow that occur with brain activity. It can be used to study which parts of the brain process important functions, assess the effects of stroke and other diseases, and guide brain treatments.

Perfusion fMRI uses arterial spin labeling (ASL) to magnetically label hydrogen nuclei in arterial blood and map their distribution in the brain. This method is sensitive to cerebral blood flow (CBF), which is believed to be a good correlate of neural activity.

Therefore, Advanced non-invasive neuroimaging techniques such as EEG and fMRI allow researchers to directly observe brain activity as subjects perform a variety of perceptual, motor, and/or cognitive tasks.

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a patient was found to have a decreased number of basophils. what is a possible outcome of their low basophil count?

Answers

If your basophil position is low, it may be due to a severe antipathetic response.

However, it may take longer to heal, If you develop an infection. In some cases, having too numerous basophils can affect from certain blood cancers. White blood cells work to keep you healthy by fighting off contagions, bacteria, spongers, and fungi. . Although they ’re produced in the bone gist, they ’re set up in numerous napkins throughout your body. They ’re part of your vulnerable system and play a part in its proper function. White blood cells work to keep you healthy by fighting off contagions, bacteria, spongers, and fungi. Basophils are a type of white blood cell. Although they ’re produced in the bone gist, they ’re set up in numerous apkins throughout your body. They ’re part of your vulnerable system and play a part in its proper function.

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a client is informed of a need for extensive dental surgery. the dentist prescribes a course of antibiotic therapy before beginning the procedure and continuing for 5 days after the procedure. what is this is an example of?

Answers

A client is to undergo extensive dental surgery.

The dentist prescribes a course of antibiotics before beginning the procedure and continuing for 5 days after the procedure.

This is an example of prophylaxis.

Who is a dentist?

An expert in medicine who focuses on dentistry is a dentist, commonly referred to as a dental surgeon (the diagnosis, prevention, management, and treatment of diseases and conditions of the oral cavity and other craniofacial complex including the temporomandibular joint). Offering oral health services is aided by the dentist's support staff. Dental hygienists, technicians, assistants, and occasionally dental therapists are all members of the dental team.

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The _ atrium and ventricle are prominent when viewing the heart from the posterior view.

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When observing the heart from the posterior angle, the left atrium and ventricles are clearly visible.

The heart, which pumps blood through vascular channels towards the target region, is at the core of this system. Each pump consists of an upper chamber called the atrium that receives incoming blood and a lower chamber called the ventricle that pushes blood out of the heart. The cardiac box, where the heart is situated, is a part of the mediastinum. The atrium serves as a receiving chamber and contracts to force blood into the right and left ventricles, which are lower chambers. The main pumping chambers of the heart are the ventricles, which move blood to the lungs or the rest of the body.

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The complete question is:

The ______ atrium and ventricle are prominent when viewing the heart from the posterior view.

which rationale explains why the nurse would offer the patient a bedpain before beginning a bed bath

Answers

Patients who are in critical condition receive a whole bed bath. The practical nurse provides a bedpan while giving an elderly client a partial bed wash.

Describe the bed bath.

Another bed bath is given to an individual who is unable to leave their bed to assist wash them. You might need to take a bath to assist wash specific spots. Partial baths, showerhead baths, tub hot tubs, and full bed bathrooms are the four fundamental forms of baths.

What use does a bed bath serve?

For some individuals, getting out of bed to take a bath is not safe. For some people, using daily bedding baths can improve comfort, reduce odor, and maintain healthy skin. Plan to provide the sufferer a bed bath if transferring them causes pain.

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a nursing student asks the nurse to differentiate the pathology of alzheimer disease from that of parkinson disease. which description is correct?

Answers

Parkinson's disease is characterized by an imbalance of dopamine and acetylcholine. Thus, c is the correct option.

What role do dopamine and acetylcholine play in Parkinson's disease?

In Parkinson's disease, dopamine depletion blocks the autoinhibition of acetylcholine release by muscarinic autoreceptors, resulting in excessive acetylcholine release and ultimately disconnecting the spines of indirect striatal projection neurons, thus inhibiting information from motor control. Transmission is interrupted.

Experiments have shown that when acetylcholine binds to a specific subtype of nicotinic receptors in VTA neurons, called β2-containing receptors, the neurons trigger the release of dopamine, the brain's reward signal. Parkinson's disease is characterized by an imbalance between acetylcholine and dopamine, likely due to degeneration of the dopaminergic nigrostriatal signalling pathway. New hypotheses have been proposed to explain the evolution of this imbalance.

Therefore, Parkinson's disease is characterized by an imbalance of dopamine and acetylcholine.

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Complete question:

A nursing student asks the nurse to differentiate the pathology of Alzheimer disease from that of Parkinson disease. Which description is correct?

a. Alzheimer disease involves a possible excess of acetylcholine and neuritic plaques.

b. Alzheimer disease is caused by decreased amounts of dopamine and degeneration

of cholinergic neurons.

c. Parkinson disease is characterized by an imbalance of dopamine and acetylcholine.

d. Parkinson disease involves increased dopamine production and decreased

acetylcholine.

the nurse cares for a client who has developed junctional tachycardia with a heart rate (hr) of 80 bpm. which action should the nurse complete?

Answers

The nurse should complete requesting the ordering of a digoxin level. Refuse to give the patient his oral potassium supplement.

Nursing actionGetting ready for emergency electrical cardioversion. Get ready to inject IV lidocaine. Requesting the ordering of a digoxin level digoxin level should be requested by the nurse. Generally speaking, junctional tachycardia has no negative effects on hemodynamics, but it may be a sign of a significant underlying condition such digitalis toxicity, myocardial ischemia, hypokalemia, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Supplemental potassium does not result in junctional tachycardia. Premature ventricular contractions can be treated with lidocaine (PVCs). Cardioversion is not a useful treatment for junctional tachycardia since it actually raises ventricular rate because junctional tachycardia is brought on by enhanced automaticity

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Complete question: The nurse cares for a client who has developed junctional tachycardia with a heart rate (HR) of 80 bpm. Which action should the nurse complete?

Request a digoxin level be ordered

Withhold the client's oral potassium supplement

Prepare for emergent electrical cardioversion

Prepare to administer IV lidocaine

the other nurses trust her because she always follows through on her promises. what element of credibility is most relevant in this instance?

Answers

The character element of credibility is especially pertinent in this case if the other nurses believe in her because she consistently keeps her word.

What is the meaning of credibility?

The objective and subjective aspects of a source's or message's plausibility are included in credibility. Credibility has its roots in the rhetorical theory of Aristotle. Rhetoric, according to Aristotle, is the capacity to recognise what might be persuading in any given circumstance. He separated the methods of persuasion into three categories: Ethos, which refers to the reliability of the source, Pathos, which refers to emotional or motivational appeals, and Logos, which refers to the reasoning behind a claim, all of which he believed had the power to persuade the audience. According to Aristotle, the concept of "Ethos" refers to the speaker's persona.

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after teaching a group of nursing students about sulfonamides, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students choose which medication as an example of a sulfonamide antibiotic? select all that apply.

Answers

After teaching a group of nursing students about sulfonamides, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim) and Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) as examples of a sulfonamide antibiotic.

Sulfonamide is a functional group (a component of a molecule) that serves as the foundation for various pharmacological classes known as sulphonamides, sulfa medicines, or sulpha pharmaceuticals. The initial antibacterial sulfonamides are sulfonamide-containing synthetic (nonantibiotic) antimicrobial agents. Some sulfonamides, such as the anticonvulsant sultiame, lack antibacterial action as well. Sulfonylureas and thiazide diuretics are newer medication classes derived from antibacterial sulfonamides.

Sulfonamide allergies are prevalent. Because the total rate of adverse drug responses to sulfa antibiotics is around 3%, similar to penicillin, medicines containing sulfonamides are recommended with caution. Sulfonamide antibiotics were the first to be administered systemically and set the way for the antibiotic revolution in medicine.

The complete question is:

After teaching a group of nursing students about sulfonamides, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as an example of a sulfonamide antibiotic? Select all that apply.

A) Amoxicillin (Amoxil)B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)C) Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (Bactrim)D) Clarithromycin (Biaxin)E) Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene)

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a hospitalized 4-year-old child reports having difficulty falling asleep at night due to a fear of monsters. how will the nurse respond?

Answers

Tell the child that monsters arnt real

true/false. cardiac does not have a combining vowel because group of answer choices the root is cardi there is no prefix the suffix begins with a vowel combining vowels are not part of medical terms

Answers

False, The term "cardiac" does have a combining vowel. In medical terminology, combining vowels are often used to connect root words, prefixes, and suffixes in order to form more complex words.

The term "cardiac" is formed by combining the root word "cardi," which refers to the heart, with the suffix "-ac," which is a common medical suffix that refers to a specific type of something. The combining vowel in this case is the letter "a," which connects the root word and the suffix and helps to form a more complete and recognizable medical term.

Combining vowels play a crucial role in the formation of medical terms, allowing healthcare providers to create complex words that accurately describe specific diseases, conditions, treatments, and other aspects of healthcare. In conclusion, it is not true that cardiac does not have a combining vowel because it is a common practice in medical terms to use combining vowels to form complex words.

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which nursing intervention would be appropriate to reduce the risk of transmission of mycobacterium terbercul.osis

Answers

The nursing interventions that should be appropriate to reduce the risk of transmission of mycobacterium tuberculosis are following the general tuberculosis precaution methods.

The tuberculosis precaution methods are establish cough etiquette practices among staff and clients. Tissue, surgical masks are provided. Hand-hygiene products and waste containers in common areas, such as waiting rooms, so people with respiratory symptoms can contain coughing and sneezing.

Tuberculosis is a highly infectious bacterial disease that mainly affects the lungs. Tuberculosis spreads through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. From the question given above, the most appropriate nursing intervention to teach the client is to use disposable tissues when coughing to prevent the spread of the disease to other persons.

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the nurse is providing supportive care to a client receiving hemodialysis in the management of acute kidney injury. which statement from the nurse best reflects the ability of the kidneys to recover from acute kidney injury?

Answers

The statement from the nurse that best reflects the ability of the kidneys to recover from acute renal failure is:

The kidneys can improve over a period of months.

Who is a nurse?

Although nursing is a profession, like medicine, there are differences in the amount of time and the kind of education needed to become a nurse, unlike medical school. Nurses might need to finish three to five years of training at the very least before obtaining a nursing licence. The jobs available to nurses are varied. Nurses provide care in hospitals, clinics, the community, and, if a patient is unable to travel, they will even visit them at home.

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which type of interview techinque is the nurse demonstrating when asking the questions do you have pain or cramping or does the pain get worse when you walk

Answers

Closed-ended questioning and Problem-oriented questioning techniques are used by the nurse.

A closed-ended question is one in which the researcher gives research participants alternatives from which to pick an answer. Closed-ended inquiries are occasionally worded as statements that need an answer. A closed inquiry is frequently answered with a single word or a very brief, factual response. "Are you thirsty?" for example. "Yes" or "No" is the response; "Where do you live?" In most cases, the response is the name of your town or your residence. Open-ended inquiries produce lengthier responses.

Problem-solving questions test a candidate's ability to think on their feet, deal with pressure, and come up with innovative solutions to challenging situations. Make sure your response to a problem-solving topic reflects your abilities as a team member. A good example of problem-solving a candidate might provide in a job interview is when they worked with a tight budget. Finding inventive solutions to financial difficulties is always a desirable trait, even outside of accounting. It demonstrates that a candidate understands how to make the best of what they have.

The complete question is:

What type of interview techniques does the nurse use when asking these questions, "Do you have pain or cramping?" "Does the pain get worse when you walk?"(Select all that apply.)

A. Active listeningB. Open-ended questioningC. Closed-ended questioningD. Problem-oriented questioning

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the nurse teaches a preschooler to use a faces pain rating scale prior to surgery. at that time, the preschooler points to the smiling face. following surgery when the nurse suspects the child has pain, the preschooler points again to the smiling face. how would the nurse interpret this response?

Answers

Revised Faces Pain Scale (FPS-R) Self-report is the benchmark for the developmentally able youngster. Fortunately, there are tools available to support children's self-reporting between the ages of 3 and 7.

Uses for the facial pain scale

Children as young as 3 years old have been asked to self-report their pain using the Wong-Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale. Six faces on the scale are rated from 0 to 5, with 0 representing no pain and 5 representing the most severe agony.

What does the kid facial pain rating scale mean?

Counting from left to right, give the chosen face a score of 0, 2, 4, 6, 8, or 10, where "0" indicates "No pain" and "10," "Very severe agony." Avoid using the terms "glad.

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a client is unresponsive and has no pulse, the nurse notes the electrocardiogram tracing shows continuous larger and bizarre qrs complexes measured greater than 0.12, this rhythm is identified as

Answers

When a patient experiences numerous sustained premature ventricular complexes in a row, ventricular tachycardia results. A wide-to-narrow pattern of QRS complexes is what Torsades de Pointes is known for. A rough, wavy baseline is visible in ventricular fibrillation.

The most common cause of ventricular tachycardia is damaged heart muscle, which leads to abnormal electrical pathways being formed in the ventricles by scar tissue. among the causes are cardiac arrest Heart disease or cardiomyopathy

When you have ventricular tachycardia, your ventricles produce a heart rate that is significantly faster than normal; many patients have heart rates of 170 or higher per minute.

If you have ventricular tachycardia, anti-arrhythmic drugs may be administered intravenously or orally to slow the rapid heartbeat. Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers, two additional heart medications, may be prescribed along with anti-arrhythmic

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which priority nursing intervention would be appropriate for a client that presents with severe respiratory distress and only unilateral breath sounds following smoke inhalation during a fire? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

1. Administer oxygen

2. Monitor vital signs

3. Insert an oral or nasal airway

4. Suction airway as needed

the nurse is caring for a client who just returned from a trip requiring an airline flight. the client reported ear pain upon descent. the nurse is correct in stating which site as being the pressure equalizer in the ear?

Answers

The nurse should explain the many kinds of hearing aids that are available; some of them fit in the ear almost imperceptibly. Injury avoidance would take precedence.

What distinguishes an RN from a nurse?

An RN is a nurse who already has fulfilled all academic and licensing requirements and has been granted a license to practice nurses in their state. Additionally, "registered nurse" will be listed as a title or position.

How can I determine if I should pursue a career in nursing?

If you desire to contribute to your community and have the patience needed to deal with people, this could be a clue that you were destined to become a nurse.

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which provides older adults who need skilled nursing care a small, home-like environment that shifts the focus from a large facility to a more home-like setting?

Answers

The green house project provides older adults who need skilled nursing care a small, home-like environment that shifts the focus from a large facility to a more home-like setting.

An American national non-profit organization called The Green House Project is committed to developing living spaces that are different from those seen in conventional nursing homes. The project develops "caring houses for meaningful lives" for the elderly in which people have private rooms and baths, are free to wander about the house, develop close, intimate connections with one another, and even take part in food preparation.

It is founded on a philosophy that aims to create small intentional communities of 7–10 elders in order to promote late-life development and growth in an effort to counteract the "imposed dependency" of life in a standard nursing home. Compared to people living in regular nursing homes, those who live in Green House Project residences have "greater rates of mobility and social contact, and less reports of weight loss and sadness."

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