Which physical finding may be seen in a cleint who is the victum of intimate partner violence?

Answers

Answer 1

Women are the primary victims, physical finding may be seen in a cleint who is the victum of intimate partner violence.

It is important to report the crime as soon as possible after it is committed. Interviews revealed that nurses played the following roles when caring for women who have experienced IPV: identifying abuse, taking care of patients' physical health needs, attending to their safety, making referrals, and providing support and advice.

There are more cases of domestic violence among males living with male partners than among males who live with female partners. Sympathize with the victims by saying things .

“You've been through something very frightening. I'm sorry”; “What you're feeling is completely normal”; and “This was a terrible crime. I'm sorry it happened to you.”

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Related Questions

The nurse is caring for a client with metabolic acidosis. during the assessment the nurse anticipates seeing which finding

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The nurse is caring for a client with metabolic acidosis and during the assessment the nurse anticipates seeing alcoholism, aspirin poisoning, excessive diarrhea and starvation.

Metabolic acidosis is a rare primary disorder. Starvation and alcoholism cause diabetic acidosis that causes a rise in acid production and might cause acidosis. Aspirin poisoning also uses increased acid production, which may cause metabolic acidosis.

Diarrhea causes increased bicarbonate​ loss,  which too may cause acidosis. A stroke may cause acute respiratory  alkalosis however not acidosis.

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A neonate weighing 5 lb 6 oz (2438 g) is born in a cesarean birth and admitted to the newborn nursery. which range of resting respiratory rate would the nurse anticipate?

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The normal neonatal respiratory rate ranges from 30 to 60 breaths/min.

What is a neonate ?

A child under 28 days old is known as a newborn infant, neonate, or newborn. The infant is most at danger of passing away in the first 28 days of life. The great majority of neonatal deaths occur in developing nations with limited access to medical treatment.

The normal neonatal respiratory rate ranges from 30 to 60 breaths/min with brief apneic intervals after respiration is initiated. Bradypnea is defined as 20 breaths per minute. Tachypnea occurs when the respiratory rate exceeds 60 breaths per minute.

Question:

A neonate weighing 5 lb 6 oz (2438 g) is born in a cesarean birth and admitted to the newborn nursery. What range of resting respiratory rate should the nurse anticipate?

(A)20 to 40 breaths/min

(B)30 to 60 breaths/min

(C)60 to 80 breaths/min

(D)70 to 90 breaths/min

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Which nursing activity is performed during safety planning for a patient? one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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The nursing activity which is performed during safety planning for a patient include consulting with activity and physical therapists for helpful devices and choosing interventions which will improve the security of the patient's home surroundings.

From a patient safety perspective, a nurse's role includes watching patients for clinical deterioration, sleuthing errors and close to misses, understanding care processes and weaknesses inherent in some systems, distinctive and communication changes in patient condition.

Some interventions that support patient safety include allowing patients access to EHR data, care for hospital environment, create a safe patient experience, simple and timely appointment scheduling, and encouraging family and caregiver engagement.

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The nurse planning to insert an indwelling urinary catheter into a client should utilize which technique?

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Surgical asepsis

An indwelling urinary catheter is implanted, like an intermittent catheter, but it is kept in place. The catheter is kept inside the bladder and is kept from escaping using a water-filled balloon. The term "Foley catheters" is widely used to describe these catheters.

Indwelling urinary catheters are only permitted for short-term (less than 30 days) uses (EAUN recommends no longer than 14 days.) The catheter is placed for ongoing bladder drainage in order to treat the common bladder dysfunctions of urine incontinence (UI) and urinary retention.

A sterile field must be created by draping sterile surgical drapes around the patient's surgical site and on the stand that will hold the sterile tools and other materials needed for the surgery.

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A relationship __________.

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Answer:

Consists of a connection between individuals or groups that interact.

LOVE LOVE LOVE ALL I WANT IS LOVE LOVE LOVE ALL I NEED IS LOVE LOVE LOVE PLS GIVE ME LOVE LOVE LOVE <3

Explanation:

Is love the answerrrr

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless?

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Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless it causes a problem managing the airway.

Spinal injury may end up from harm to the vertebrae, ligaments or disks of the skeletal structure or to the medulla spinalis itself. A traumatic medulla spinalis injury will stem from a fast, traumatic blow to your spine that fractures, dislocates, crushes or compresses one or a lot of of your vertebrae.

A cervical collar is used for spine issues or injuries. It limits forward and backward movement over a soft one will. exhausting collars are typically solely used once surgical process or a significant injury, like a broken neck. you will get a tough cervical collar once you have used a halo brace.

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Which behavior would the nurse know is important to avoid in a 5-month-old child who had heart surgery to repair the defects associated with tetralogy of fallot?

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Straining at stool is important to be avoided in a 5-month-old child who had heart surgery to repair the defects associated with tetralogy of Fallot.

What is a stool?

Feces, also known as stools, are the solid or semi-solid byproducts of food that have been broken down by microorganisms in the large intestine but were not digested in the small intestine. Metabolic waste materials including bacterially modified bilirubin and dead gut epithelial cells are present in relatively tiny amounts in feces.

When someone defecates, feces are released from the anus or cloaca.

In agriculture, feces can be applied as fertilizer or soil conditioner. They can also be dried out and used for construction or burned as fuel. There have been some discovered medical uses. Human stools are used in fecal transplants or fecal bacteriotherapy. Excreta refers to both urine and feces.

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A patient who comes to the clinic reports frequent, watery stools for 2 days. which action should the nurse take first?

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A patient who comes to the clinic reports frequent, watery stools for 2 days the nurse should check the patient's blood pressure.

Assessment for sufficient circulation is given top attention because the patient's history shows that fluid volume deficit may be a problem. While necessary, the remaining actions are not as crucial as evaluating the patient's perfusion state.

The pressure inside the body's main artery system—measured in millimeters of mercury—is known as blood pressure. Systolic and diastolic measurements are the traditional divisions. Diastolic pressure is the lowest pressure measured soon before the next contraction, while systolic pressure is the highest blood pressure seen during ventricular contraction.

The blood pressure is typically expressed as the sum of the systolic and diastolic pressures, for example, 120/80 mm Hg. With no signs of hypotension, adequate perfusion of the critical organs serves as the benchmark for the lowest permissible blood pressure. Typically, this is greater than 90 mm Hg systolic and 60 mm Hg diastolic, though there can be significant patient variation.

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A rh-negative pregnant woman with negative rubella titers should be vaccinated at what time period in pregnancy?

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You will be given an injection of Rhogam around week 28 of pregnancy if the Rh test is negative.

What is rh-negative?

Red blood cells have a protein called rh factor on their surface. You are Rh positive if the protein is present in your blood. You are Rh negative if the protein is absent from your blood. You might see "+" or "-" after your blood type, which stands for Rh positive or Rh negative.

The frequency of Rh positive is substantially higher than Rh negative. Being Rh negative is not a disease, and it typically has no impact on your health. However, it might impact pregnancy. If you are Rh negative and your unborn child is Rh positive, your pregnancy requires special attention. It's referred to as Rh incompatibility. The Rh factor can be passed on to a child from either parent.

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Which term refers to application of anatomical study for the diagnosis and treatment of disease, particularly as it relates to surgical procedures?

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Term refers to application of anatomical study for the diagnosis and treatment of disease, particularly as it relates to surgical procedures is: Applied anatomy

How would you define applied anatomy?

The practical use of anatomical knowledge to diagnosis and therapy is known as applied anatomy. clinical anthropology Anatomy, or general anatomy, is the area of morphology concerned with animal structure.

Structure-function relationships are investigated in the context of related subjects such as diagnostic imaging, pathology, and other aspects of medicine in Applied anatomy.

What is anatomy?

The field of biology known as anatomy is concerned with the study of the structure of organisms and their parts (Greek: anatom, "dissection"). The structural organisation of living things is the focus of the natural science field of anatomy. It is an old science with roots in the Paleolithic era.

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The community health nurse is caring for an older client who states that she has not been taking the postoperative pain medication that she was prescribed. what question is most likely to be relevant?

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Answer:

. Are you able to afford the prescribed medication?

Explanation:

hope this helps u ; )

lives Write a letter to your relative who abrote aboard describing situation in nepal & its meyits the popul- ation & dismerits​

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Your question was incomplete. Kindly check below the full content.

Write a letter to your relative who lives abroad describing the population situation in Nepal and its merits and demerits.​

Answer:

The home of Mount Everest, the tallest mountain peak in the world, and Lumbini, the birthplace of the Buddha, are both in Nepal. Visitors are drawn in large numbers by mountaineering and other adventure and ecotourism activities.The landlocked nation of Nepal is made up of many different ethnic groups and is home to many different languages and religions. It is located in the Himalayas, north of India, in the area where the Indian subcontinent collided with Asia some 40–50 million years ago.Nepal has the highest concentration of significant Hindu pilgrimage sites of any country with a majority of Hindus in the globe, according to a report.Pushpa Kamal Dahal, who served as prime minister and chairman of the CPN (Maoist Centre), was succeeded as prime minister by Sher Bahadur Deuba, the leader of the Nepali Congress.

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Your patient has a glasgow coma scale (gcs) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. is revised trauma score (rts) is:__________

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The revised trauma score (RTS) is 9.

What is revised trauma score?

Based on a patient's initial vital signs, the Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is a physiologic grading system. A lower score denotes a more serious injury.

Glasgow Coma Scale, systolic blood pressure, and respiration rate are the three components that make up the Revised Trauma Score. The range of scores is 0–12. According to START triage, a patient with an RTS score of 12 is classified as delayed, 11 as urgent, and 3–10 as imminent. Because it is extremely improbable that they will survive without a lot of resources, those with an RTS below 3 are considered dead and shouldn't receive particular care.

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A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety. the patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum. this patient is most likely experiencing:________.

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The patient is most probably experiencing acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is a potentially fatal buildup of extra fluid in the lungs as a result of pressure in the heart. The excess fluid can be eliminated with medications, but your doctor may also need to perform surgeries. The reason determines the different treatments. The cause of your edema will determine the prognosis for your issue.

When the pulmonary lymphatics are unable to eliminate transupdated fluid, acute pulmonary edema (PE) develops. As fluid travels from the intravascular compartment into the interstitial space and, in extreme circumstances, the alveoli, the edema begins to take shape and finally manifests as overt, abundant, pink frothy sputum.

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Predict how healthy behaviors can affect health status. the numbers 1.12.1 refer to _______________.

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By predicting how healthy behaviors can affect health status, the numbers 1.12.1 refer to the standard, the last year of the grade span, and the number of the performance indicator in the sequence.

Health behaviors are actions that folks take that have an impact on their health. They embody actions that end in improved health, like uptake well and being physically active, and actions that increase one's risk of unhealthiness, like smoking, excessive alcohol intake, and risky sexual behavior.

Health status is a person's relative level of wellness and illness, taking under consideration the presence of biological or physiological disfunction, symptoms, and practical impairment.

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The nurse on the antepartum unit is performing shift assessments of several pregnant clients. which client assessment is the priority to report to the health care provider?

Answers

Client with preeclampsia with 3+ reflexes and 2 beats of clonus.

Because preeclampsia causes the central nervous system to become more irritable, patients are more likely to experience preeclampsia-associated seizure activity (eclampsia). Hyperreflexia and clonus are neurologic symptoms that can occur prior to seizure activity and may suggest increasing preeclampsia.

A pregnancy complication is preeclampsia. Preeclampsia can cause high blood pressure, proteinuria, which is an indication of damaged kidneys, as well as other organ damage symptoms. Women whose blood pressure had previously been within the normal range typically get preeclampsia after 20 weeks of pregnancy.

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Imani was in an automobile accident and suffered an injury to her brain, resulting in paralysis of her left arm. what part of imani's brain was injured?

Answers

Answer:

The right half of her brain

Explanation:

The right part of the brain controls the left part of the body.

Which is the nurse's most therapeutic statement when the client and nurse move from the orientation stage to the working stage of the therapeutic relationship?

Answers

"Which identified problems would you like for us to initially address?" is the  nurse's most therapeutic statement when the client and nurse move from the orientation stage to the working stage of the therapeutic relationship.

Relationship which is based on mutual respect and faith while being sensitive to others and self while assisting patients physical, emotional needs through knowledge and skills is therapeutic relationship.

Identified goals are addressed through mutual therapeutic work which promotes client behavioral change.

Orientation stage of the nurse client relationship should be focused on establishing rapport and developing treatment goals. There are four stages in therapeutic relationship: commitment, process, change, and termination.

There are also four phases of  nurse client relationship which are  pre interaction, orientation, working and termination.

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Nurse is preparing to complete a comprehensive assessment on a client. when collecting objective data, what would the nurse do first?

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After evaluating and documenting the information obtained from the client, the nurse needs to analyze the data collected.

What preparation needs to be completed by the nurse before performing the client's physical assessment?

The nurse should perform hand hygiene before starting the physical assessment. This includes before collecting equipment. Auscultation and palpitation should not occur until hand hygiene has been performed.

With this information, we can conclude that It is a deliberative, comparative and ongoing process and self-assessment to determine whether the initial questions have been answered and what lessons to be learned from the shortcomings identified. The final process serves to analyze all the variables that culminated in the final outcome.

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A disease that will end in death is called a _____ disease.
a. chronic
b. exacerbation
c. palliative
d. terminal

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A disease that will end in death is called a terminal disease.

A sickness in its final ranges, often called a terminal contamination, is one that cannot be efficaciously treated or cured and is probably to cause the affected person to bypass away.

In comparison to accidents, revolutionary illnesses like cancer, dementia, or extreme coronary heart ailment are extra regularly noted with the aid of this word. In not unusual utilization, it denotes a condition that, regardless of remedy, will almost genuinely proceed until loss of life. the sort of affected person can be known as a terminal patient, terminally unwell, or just as being terminal.

although it is typically months or fewer, there is no set existence expectancy for a affected person to be deemed terminal. The doctor will supply a initial estimate of the patient's life expectancy based totally on statistics from the past.

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How do processes and product goals differ?

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Answer:

Product goals are project-oriented while process goals are designed to build habits. Product goals stick to firm deadlines while process goals stick to consistent routines. Product goals define success by the completion of great work. By contrast, process goals define success as growth in one's skills and abilities.

Explanation:

A nurse is reviewing public health models. which model uses three practice priorities and three general categories of nursing interventions?

Answers

Salmon's model uses three practice priorities and three general categories of nursing intervention.

What is Salmon's model?

Public health, according to Mark Salmon White (1982), is an organized social endeavor to safeguard, promote, and restore people's health. Public health nursing is dedicated to attaining and preserving public health.

He listed three practice priorities: preventing illness and poor health, guarding against illness and outside threats, and promoting health. The following three main kinds of nurse intervention have also been proposed:

instruction aimed at encouraging individuals to alter their attitudes and behaviors on their ownengineering focused on controlling risk-related factorsenforcement aimed at enforcing laws that must be followed in order to improve health.

Therefore, salmon's model describes three practice priorities and three general categories of nursing intervention.

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At very high intensities of exercise, most of the energy the body uses is supplied by ________. group of answer choices

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At very high intensities of exercise, most of the energy the body uses is supplied by carbohydrates.

Carbohydrates, or carbs, are sugar molecules. At the side of proteins and fats, carbohydrates are one in all 3 main nutrients found in foods and drinks. Your body breaks down carbohydrates into glucose. Glucose, or blood sugar, is the main supply of energy for your body's cells, tissues, and organs.

High-intensity of exercise is wherever you're used, then rest, then work once more.These workouts are outlined as being done at 80-95% of your most vital sign. two At this intensity, they could yield what a twenty minute, 2-mile jog would yield.

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Which preoperative medication would the nurse administer to a patient with valvular heart disease to prevent complications related to this condition?

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The nurse will administer antibiotics.

Preoperative pharmacotherapy (premedication) of anxiolytics and sedatives is intended to reduce these stresses. Benzodiazepines are most commonly used for this purpose due to their strong anxiolytic effects, good tolerability, and few side effects. A damaged or diseased heart valve is called a valvular heart disease. Valve disease has several causes. The right and left atria, the right and left ventricles make up her four chambers and her four valves in a typical heart. Located between the left atrium and left ventricle, the bicuspid or mitral valve allows blood to flow from one chamber to the other. The tricuspid valve allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

The correct answer is antibiotics.

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The nurse is caring for an elderly client that gets confused and disoriented. which safety measure should the nurse use with this client?

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The nurse is caring for an elderly client that gets confused and disoriented, so the safety measure which the nurse should use with this client is gain the client's attention.

Common causes of confusion in elderly clients is  lack of element within the blood (hypoxia) – the cause can be something from a severe asthma attack to problem with the lungs or heart. An infection anyplace within the body, particularly in older people.

A common reason behind disorientation is dementia, a condition that affects a human thinking, behavior and their ability to perform everyday tasks. Folks with dementia are additional possible to develop delirium once there's a abrupt disturbance in their state of mind.

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The administration of varying amounts of local, regional, and certain mind-altering drugs during a procedure is called:______.

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The administration of varying amounts of local, regional, and certain mind-altering drugs during a procedure is called: monitored anesthesia care.

What are mind-altering drugs?

A mind-altering substance has a significant impact on a person's mental state, resulting in emotions of intense happiness and odd ways of thinking.

What is anesthesia  ?

Anesthesia is a medical procedure that makes use of anesthetics. With the help of these medications, you are pain-free during medical procedures. Medical professionals who give anesthetic and treat pain are known as anesthesiologists. A portion of the body may become numb with certain anesthetic. You are rendered unconscious (asleep) during invasive surgical operations by general anesthesia.

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A patient has been diagnosed with an empyema. what interventions should the nurse anticipate providing to this patient? (select all that apply.)

Answers

helping to implant a chest tube. facilitating the sample of pleural fluid. making regular respiratory evaluations. supplying antipyretics as necessary. thorough suctioning every 4 hours. Interventions the nurse should plan to give to this patient

What are antipyretics?

An antipyretic is a drug that reduces fever. Antipyretics compel the hypothalamus to overcome an increase in body temperature brought on by prostaglandins. The body finally succeeds in bringing the temperature down, which causes the fever to subside.

Most antipyretic medications also have other purposes. The most widely used antipyretics in the US are ibuprofen, aspirin, and paracetamol (acetaminophen), analgesics without anti-inflammatory properties that are primarily used as anti-inflammatories and analgesics (pain relievers) but also have antipyretic effects.

Fever suppression increases influenza mortality in the US by at least 1% annually, or 700 additional deaths, according to study from the Royal Society.

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The abc corporation chose a high-deductible health plan (hdhp) for the purpose of:____.

Answers

The correct answer is working with the HSA it planned to provide to its 700 full-time workers .

health plan that offers drastically lower rates in alternate for the insured's willingness to pay a comparatively big deductible.

A health insurance plan having a excessive deductible for medical prices is known as a high-deductible fitness plan (HDHP).An HDHP regularly has cheaper month-to-month premiums however a better yearly deductible (on occasion inside the 4 figures) than a ordinary health plan. recurring preventive care is absolutely covered by using insurance plans, for this reason there are no copays or coinsurance requirements for clients. The bare minimal deductible modifications every 12 months. An HDHP is one which has a minimal deductible of $1,400 for humans and $2,800 for households for the years 2021 and 2022, in line with the IRS.

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Which signs and symptoms would the nurse include when teaching a client about ketoacidosis? one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The signs and symptoms that the nurse would include when teaching a client about ketoacidosis include malaise, generalized weakness, and fatigability.

Diabetes-related ketoacidosis (DKA)  can be a dangerous condition that affects people with diabetes and other people United Nations agency have diabetes which is undiagnosed. It happens once your body does not have enough internal secretion to use sugar for energy. Instead, your body breaks down fat for energy, that causes your body to unleash ketones.

Other symptoms of ketoacidosis  might embrace excessive thirst, frequent evacuation, nausea and inborn reflex in form of vomiting, abdomen pain, weakness or fatigue, shortness of breath fruity-scented breath and confusion.

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The nurse is assisting a physician with an endotracheal intubation for a client in respiratory failure. it is most important for the nurse to assess for:_____.

Answers

It is important that the nurse assess for the symmetry of the client's chest expansion.

When someone is having trouble breathing, intubation is a technique that can assist save their life. A laryngoscope is used by a medical professional to insert an endotracheal tube (ETT) into the mouth, nose, voice box, and trachea. The tube maintains the airway's opening, allowing air to reach the lungs.

Typically, intubation is carried out at a hospital before or during a surgery. If both sides of the chest expand equally and simultaneously, the expansion is said to be symmetrical. Chest enlargement that is asymmetrical is abnormal. Less space is expanded on the abnormal side, which is behind the normal side.

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Why is there so much government regulation involving social repsponsibility issues? Should there be more? Management students may not immediately become managers, but studying management can help you. According to the interdependence principle, when faced with a decision, you should ask what? Gastrectomy: ________ a. gastric resection b. intestinal incision c. tumor of the stomach d. incision of the stomach e. resection of the intestine Complete the table with three important details the are depicted in the painting gothic Formatting codes can be added to documents using a(n)_____, such as slashes // and angle brackets < >. Rectangle A measures 6 cm by 4 cm. Rectangle B is a scaled copy of rectangle A. Select all of the measurements that could be the dimensions of rectangle B Which method of achieving an erection is least likely to require the brain's involvement? group of answer choices What paradigm is this code based on? How do you know?What does the number 16 mean in this code? How do you know?Imagine you wanted to tweak the project so that the list produced by the program included teachers and kept track of how many years they have been working at the school. Using the principles of inheritance and overriding, explain how you could take this code and quickly create the new programs.How could you apply some of the ideas, principles, or structures of coding to fields of study, industries, or tasks outside of creating computer programs? Propose at least one way to use coding or creating programs outside of computer science and explain how it uses coding-related concepts.Imagine that you were programming without an IDE. What problems might you encounter? change these sentences into passive voice does he fly kite ? What multiplicities are observed for the signals in the off-resonance decoupled 13c nmr spectrum of 1-chloropropadiene? What theatrical elements do religious and civic ceremonies such as weddings and funerals contain? (check all that apply.) An investor has adjusted his portfolio based on changes that have been made in the s&p 500 index. with this information, what types of portfolio strategy is this investor using? Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________. a) interpretation; organization b) detection; interpretation c) encoding; detection d) threshold; transduction e) organization; accommodation What is the term for the specific set of equations that describe motion in terms of acceleration, displacement, time, and velocity? Cost estimating services do not include an allowance for entrepreneurial profit or incentive. True or false can someone help me answer these? im really confused and have a quiz on it tomorrow.. thank you so much!! what is the difference between 25 and 21.2? Most of the information in your credit file may be reported for only __________ years. According to the law of demand, if all else remains equal, as the price of a good becomes lower, then _________________________.