Enrique is age 91, with high income and assets is most likely to live in an institutionalized setting, such as a long-term care facility or a nursing home.
Who requires care in a nursing home?
People who require ongoing care from licenced nurses due to severe daily struggles or a variety of medical illnesses are cared for in nursing homes. Care assistants who are qualified and trained to recognise symptoms and changes in residents' conditions support nurses.
In the US, who provides the majority of long-term care?
Depending on a person's needs, different carers provide long-term care in various locations. The majority of long-term care is given by unpaid family members and friends at home.
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which age person is most likely to live in an institutionalized setting, such as a long-term care facility or a nursing home?
a nurse is assisting with a seat belt clinic at a local community center. which parents should the nurse speak with after inspecting their seat belt use? select all that apply.
A nurse is assisting the seat belt clinic at the local community center. Parents the nurse should talk to after checking their seat belt use:
Parents of a 10-year-old child whose child is sitting in the front seat with the seat belt securely fastened.Parents of 6-year-olds who have a shoulder belt behind their back because the strap goes across the face.Babies born up to 6 months of age must be placed in a car seat facing backward in the middle seat which is equipped with a 6-point harness system like a racer's seat belt, then the car seat is restrained with the car's seat belt.
Children aged 6 months to less than 4 years must be seated in a car seat that fits their body size, is securely fastened, and is adjustable. In this case, the child can be positioned facing backward or facing forward which of course is restrained by a 6-point harness. Children under the age of 12 are much safer sitting in the back seat.
Make sure that the car's seat belt is positioned so that the horizontal portion is over the upper thigh (not the stomach) and the shoulder belt is diagonally over the chest (not the neck).
From the explanation above, the things that need to be taught again by nurses to their parents are 10-year-old children whose children sit in the front seat and 6-year-old children who have shoulder belts behind their backs because the straps cross their faces.
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the nurse is dwhile caring for a 16-year-old client expected to be hospitalized for several months, the nurse will perform which action to assist the client in meeting the current stage of psychosocial development?scussing an adolescent's development with the client's parents. which statement by the parents indicate an understanding of the nurse's teaching?
While caring for a 16-year-old client expected to be hospitalized for several months, the nurse should permit peers to visit during open visitation hours to assist the client in meeting the current stage of psychosocial development, thus the correct option is C.
Other members of the healthcare team are more narrowly focused than nurses who can see the big picture. For instance, while psychotherapists investigate the emotional and social components of human existence, doctors are primarily educated to evaluate the physical dimension. On the other hand, nurses are educated to evaluate a person's physical, emotional, social, intellectual, and spiritual aspects of life. Experienced nurses are accustomed to this special perspective because it is included into the nursing process. Piaget's theories of psychosocial development are frequently used to describe cognitive changes that occur from childhood through adulthood. Swiss researcher Piaget proposed cognitive development phases that closely resembled physical growth.
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The complete question is:
While caring for a 16-year-old client expected to be hospitalized for several months, the nurse will perform which action to assist the client in meeting the current stage of psychosocial development?
A) Provide video games for the client to play.
B) Allow the client to touch equipment before procedures.
C) Permit peers to visit during open visitation hours.
D) Explain medical concepts by providing handouts and brochures.
nurse susan is completing the discharge process with troy. which ofnthe folllowing video demonstrates the appropriate nursing action for susan to take
Susan should ensure Troy understands discharge instructions, medication regimen, and follow-up appointments. Explain in simple terms."
The appropriate nursing action for Susan during the discharge process with Troy would be to ensure that he fully understands the instructions and information he needs to follow after leaving the hospital. This includes providing clear instructions for any medication he needs to take, any follow-up appointments he needs to attend, and any other important information that will help him manage his health effectively. Susan should explain this information in simple and easily understandable terms to ensure that Troy is comfortable and confident in following the instructions. Effective communication is essential for ensuring that patients are able to manage their health effectively after being discharged from the hospital.
nurse susan is completing the discharge process with troy. which ofnthe folllowing video demonstrates the appropriate nursing action for susan to take
1. dosage regimen
2.medication regimen
3. therapeutic regimen
4. chemical regimen
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which of the following is a situation in which moving a person involved in an emergency situation would not be appropriate.
Moving a person involved in an emergency situation would not be suitable while the victim is in a crowded hallway.
What is emergency situation?
An emergency scenario can range in severity from the declaration of an accident to the time when environmental pollution is evident following discharges from the installation. It's critical to note that actions taken even during the emergency period will have an impact on choices and outcomes in the medium and long run. Understanding how to recognise the warning symptoms of an emergency can help you know how to respond. Additionally, being adequately prepared can benefit you when it comes time to tackle any emergency circumstance.
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Which of the following is a situation in which moving a person involved in an emergency situation would NOT be appropriate?
what form of cancer shows the greatest decline in mortality in us men and women during the period 1930-2011?
The correct options are, C and D, that is cervical cancer and stomach cancer shows the greatest decline in mortality in US men and women during the period 1930-2011
More than half of all cancer-related deaths among women in the United States are caused by cancers of the breast, colon, rectum, lung, and bronchi. In 1987, lung cancer surpassed breast cancer as the main reason for cancer-related deaths in women. Lung cancer mortality in women has surged by more than 600% since 1950 and now represents around 25% of all cancer fatalities in females. The mortality rate from breast cancer was relatively stable during the 20th century, but it now seems to be modestly falling. Between 1930 and 2011, the mortality rates from stomach and cervical cancer drastically decreased. Since the 1950s, the mortality rate from colorectal cancer has gradually decreased by 2011.
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The complete question is:
What form of cancer shows the greatest decline in mortality in US men and women during the period 1930-2011?
A. lung cancer
B. breast cancer
C. cervical cancer
D. stomach cancer
E. colorectal cancer
the nurse is caring for a group of clients monitored with a variety of invasive hemodynamic devices. which client should the nurse evaluate first?
The nurse should prioritize the assessment and evaluation of the client with the most critical hemodynamic status or those exhibiting signs of hemodynamic instability.
Factors that may indicate instability include:
Rapid and irregular heart rate
Low blood pressure (systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg)
Sudden changes in blood pressure readings
Altered mental status
Shortness of breath
Chest pain
Cold, clammy skin
The nurse should continuously monitor all clients and prioritize assessment and intervention based on the most pressing concerns, in order to ensure the safe and effective management of their hemodynamic status. It is also important for the nurse to regularly assess the effectiveness of hemodynamic support interventions and adjust them as needed based on changes in the client's condition.
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a client is admitted to the mental health unit with a diagnosis of possible somatic symptom disorder. besides anxiety, the nursing assessment is especially important in identifying which client signs/symptoms are contributing to the somatic symptom disorder? select all that apply.
A client is admitted to the mental health unit with a diagnosis of possible somatic symptom disorder besides anxiety, the nursing assessment which is especially important in identifying the client signs/symptoms which are contributing to the somatic symptom disorder include the following:
Fatigue or weaknessShortness of breath (dyspnea).What is Somatic symptom disorder?This is characterized by an extreme focus on physical symptoms that causes major emotional distress and problems functioning.
Symptoms include shortness of breath due to constant worry about potential illness.
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the nurse is gathering data from a client diagnosed with a phobia. which are some of the clinically recognized names of common phobias? select all that apply.
The clinically recognized names of common phobias zoophobia, Glossophobia. Option 1 and 5 are the correct option.
What is zoophobia?
A severe phobia of animals is called zoophobia. Zoophobia is a widespread fear of a particular species of animal. Some people have a generalized fear of all animals. A specific phobia is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by a fear of animals. A specific phobia is a severe fear of a particular thing, circumstance, person, or animal.
XENOPHOBIA is defined as a fear or hatred of strangers, foreigners, or anything else strange or foreign.
An anxiety disorder called agoraphobia frequently appears following one or more panic attacks.
Fear and avoidance of locations and circumstances that could result in feelings of panic, entrapment, helplessness, or embarrassment are among the symptoms.
Talk therapy and medication are used as treatments.
Up to 75% of the population is thought to suffer from glossophobia, also known as a fear of public speaking. At the mere thought of speaking in front of an audience, some people might feel a little uneasy, while others might feel complete panic and fear.
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The nurse is gathering data from a client diagnosed with a phobia. Which are some of the clinically recognized names of common phobias? Select all that apply.
1. Zoophobia
2. Xenophobia
3. Alonophobia
4. Agoraphobia
5. Glossophobia
6. Germophobia
the nurse assesses a client prescribed a cardioselective beta-adrenergic blocker and notes a heart rate of 56 beats/min. what immediate action should the nurse take?
In this case, a specialist should choose and start the patient on a modest dose of a cardioselective beta-blocker while closely monitoring the patient for side effects.
What are Cardio selective beta blockers?
Beta-adrenergic blocking medications stop the stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors at sympathetic nervous system nerve terminals, which lowers heart rate. They prevent the sympathetic nervous system from stimulating the heart, which lowers systolic pressure, heart rate, cardiac contractility, and output. This reduces the heart's need for oxygen and raises exercise tolerance. The beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the bronchial smooth muscle of the airways may also be impacted by beta-adrenergic inhibiting medications, which has the potential to result in bronchoconstriction (a narrowing of the breathing passages).
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the nurse is caring for a client treated with flumazenil for benzodiazepine toxicity. after administering flumazenil what should the nurse carefully assess for?
The nurse should carefully assess for agitation, confusion, and seizures.
What is flumazenil?
A selective GABAA receptor antagonist, flumazenil can be injected, inserted into the ear, or taken orally. Through competitive inhibition, it functions therapeutically as a benzodiazepine antagonist and antidote.
The only side effects most often linked to flumazenil alone were headache, irregular or blurred vision, increased perspiration, dizziness, and soreness at the injection site (3% to 9%). Unless otherwise noted, all adverse responses happened in 1% to 3% of cases.
Hence, the nurse should carefully assess for agitation, confusion, and seizures.
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when a nursing professional creates new knowledge by changing and evolving knwoledge based on expeience, education, and input from others
When a nurse creates new knowledge by changing and evolving knowledge based on experience education and input from others he/she is GENERATING KNOWLEDGE.
The nursing professional is engaged in the process of reflective practice. Reflective practice is a process that enables a nurse to critically examine and evaluate their own experiences and knowledge, and to continuously learn and grow as a professional. It involves analyzing situations, considering new information and input from others, and using this information to refine and improve one's understanding and skills. By engaging in reflective practice, nurses can continuously improve their knowledge, skills, and patient care, leading to better outcomes for their patients.
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When a nurse creates new knowledge by changing and evolving knowledge based on experience education and input from others he/she is
alcohol consumption during pregnancy can cause significant brain damage and other impairments in the fetus; this condition is known as
Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can result in significant brain damage and other impairments in the foetus; this is referred to as foetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
What is pregnancy?
Pregnancy is the time when a woman carries a developing foetus in her uterus. It usually lasts 40 weeks and begins on the first day of the woman's last menstrual period. The foetus develops all of its organs and systems during this time, preparing it to function independently after birth.
As a result, drinking alcohol during pregnancy can result in significant brain damage and other impairments in the foetus; this condition is known as foetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
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what are reasons that a person's family health history is relevant to the person's health? (choose every correct answer.)
The reasons that a person's family health history is relevant to the person's health,
Genes help regulate the body's chemical reactions.Some health problems run in families.Genes help regulate the body's metabolic processes.What impact does family history have on one's health?
One of the most significant risk factors for health issues like heart disease, stroke, diabetes, cancer, and several psychiatric illnesses is thought to be family history. Family members have more in common than just genes. They also have similar settings, way of lives, and personal practices. All may contribute to sickness.
Families often share common backgrounds and behaviours in addition to having similar DNA. Knowing this history enables doctors to suggest particular lifestyle modifications, health screenings, or other actions to assist prevent future health difficulties.
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Complete Question:
What are reasons that a person's family health history is relevant to the person's health?
Genes help regulate the body's chemical reactions.Some health problems run in families.Genes help regulate the body's metabolic processes.Health exchanges help individuals obtain the coverage they need.The overall condition of a person's body or mindThe distinction between ren/o and nephro/o is
a) ren/o is a root and nephr/o is a combining form
b) ren/o is used to describe the kidney, whereas nephr/o is used to describe abnormal conditions and operative procedures
c) there is no distinction
d) they can be used interchangeably
Nephr/o is used to describe pathological diseases and surgical operations, whereas ren/o is used to describe the kidney.
Ren is utilized as the root word in this sentence, and the combining word is ren/o, which typically denotes a kidney-related concept, such as renogastric. On the other hand, nephr/o is used to indicate aberrant situations and surgical techniques. Such a condition could be anything from an issue that arises during surgery to an anomaly that is discovered in the patient's body during surgery. Such medical terminology is employed so that words can be understood clearly and consistently without having to be written out completely. Such language is simple to write, saving time.
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which one of the following cluster of findings most strongly suggests a diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis?
Wet mount showing abundant bacterial clumping upon the borders of epithelial cells shows bacterial vaginosis, thus the correct option is A.
The majority of simple vulvovaginal symptoms, such as bacterial vaginosis, vulvovaginal candidiasis, and trichomoniasis, can be diagnosed and treated successfully without the need for additional diagnostic procedures. The right clinical and microbiological classification of results, as well as the creation and evaluation of wet mount slides made from vaginal or cervical discharge, are tests that are performed. In general, it still holds true that Lactobacillus predominates in the vaginal flora of healthy women of reproductive age. The squamous epithelium's estrogen-dependent glycogen is converted by lactobacillus organisms into lactic acid, which helps to maintain a vaginal pH of 4.5 or less.
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The complete question is:
A 42-year-old woman is evaluated for a homogeneous milky white vaginal discharge. Which one of the following clusters of findings most strongly suggests a diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis?
A. Wet mount showing abundant bacterial clumping upon the borders of vaginal epithelial cells and vaginal pH greater than 4.5
B. Wet mount showing motile gyrate bacteria and vaginal pH less than 4.5
C. Gram's stain showing predominance of gram-positive rods and vaginal pH less than 4.5
D. Overgrowth of Lactobacillus species on vaginal specimen culture and vaginal pH less than 4.5
a nurse is aware that diphenoxylate hcl with atropine sulfate is an effective adjunct in the treatment of diarrhea. for which clients could the administration of this drug be potentially harmful?
The administration of diphenoxylate hcl with atropine sulfate drug be potentially harmful in patient with Diarrhea brought on by a Clostridium difficile infection in an 80-year-old guy.
What is the use and contraindications of Diphenoxylate hcl with atropine sulfate?To treat severe diarrhea, diphenoxylate and atropine are used with additional treatments (such fluid and electrolyte treatment). By reducing bowel movement, diphenoxylate aids in the treatment of diarrhea.To prevent patients from abusing diphenoxylate, atropine is administered in a set dose of 0.025 mg; it is a competitive inhibitor of cholinergic receptors. When taken in greater quantities, atropine has anticholinergic adverse effects such tachycardia, dry mouth, eyes, and nausea.Diphenoxylate; atropine should not be used by people who have obstructive jaundice and should only be given with great caution to those who have hepatic disease (such as cirrhosis), hepatorenal syndrome, or who have abnormal liver function tests since it increases the risk of hepatic coma.For more information on contraindications to diphenoxylate hcl with atropine sulfate kindly visit to
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a client is exhibiting signs of a pneumothorax following tracheostomy. the surgeon inserts a chest tube into the anterior chest wall. what should the nurse tell the family is the primary purpose of this chest tube?
The nurse should tell the family that the primary purpose of this chest tube is to remove air from the pleural space.
What do we mean by pneumothorax?An unusual accumulation of air between the chest cavity and the thin layer of tissue covering the lungs As a result, the lung may partially or completely collapse. A pneumothorax can be caused by a chest injury, specific medical procedures, a lung condition, or other damage to the lung tissue. Pneumothorax is the presence of air around or outside the lung. A chest injury, too much pressure on the lungs, or a lung condition such as whooping cough, cystic fibrosis, asthma, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease can all cause it.
The most common medical term for a lung collapse is a pneumothorax, which actually means "air in the pleura space causing your lungs to collapse or be compressed."
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a client has several fractures of the lower leg and has been placed in an external fixation device. the client is upset about the appearance of the leg, which is very edematous. the nurse determines that the client is experiencing which problem?
Encourage the person to keep still by sticking by them.
How is edematous treated?
Treatment of the underlying cause (if possible), a reduction in salt (sodium) intake, and, in many cases, the use of a drug called a diuretic to get rid of extra fluid are all parts of the process of treating edema. It might also be advised to elevate the legs and wear compression stockings.
These devices may include anchorage elements, connector elements, and external elements (bars, rods) (pins, screws, wires). Following a traumatic injury, these devices are frequently used to treat bone fractures in the forearms, legs, hands, and feet.
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a school-age child is scheduled for a diagnostic procedure. which nursing approach is best for this age group?
The nursing approach that is best for a school-age child that is scheduled for a diagnostic procedure is to explain the procedure, as well as the theory and reason behind it.
When a human being reached school age (around 6 years old), they usually already start thinking in a more concrete way. They tend to be more interested in the theory and reasoning behind a lot of things. One of these things would be the diagnostic procedure that they are scheduled to do.
Because of that, it would be best if the nurse teaches the basic things regarding the procedure to the child. Give them a brief overview, including the theory and reasoning behind the procedure. The nurse can also provide the instructions directly to the child instead of expecting the parent to do so.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
A school-age child is scheduled for a diagnostic procedure. Which nursing approach is best for this age group?
Explain the procedure and the theory and reason behind it.Encourage the parents to discuss the procedure with their child.Provide a brief overview of the procedure to reduce anxiety.Offer to bring the child a favorite snack after the procedure is over.Learn more about nursing approach at https://brainly.com/question/28098226
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during pregnancy, a woman could increase her folic acid intake by eating group of answer choices steak and pork. low-fat milk and yogurt. dark leafy greens, citrus fruits, and beans. chicken and turkey.
Dark leafy green is used during pregnancy, a woman could increase her folic acid.
What is folic acid?
Folic acid helps create the neural tube during the early stages of pregnancy when the foetus is developing. Folic acid is crucial because it can aid in preventing some serious birth malformations of the baby's spine and brain (anencephaly) (spina bifida). The early brain and spine are formed by the neural tube.
Uses for folic acid supplements include: Protecting newborns against neural tube abnormalities.
treatment and prevention of anaemia.
preventing methotrexate adverse effects from occurring.
treating a lack of folate.
Cobalamin, also known as vitamin B-12, and folic acid, generally known as folate, are essential for healthy body functioning. Both nutrients are crucial for producing DNA and RNA that support cell growth and the production of red blood cells. B-12 also supports the healthy operation of your nervous system.
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a client with a positive mantoux test result is taking isoniazid (inh) and rifampin (rif) for an initial treatment over a 2-month period for confirmed tuberculosis. the nurse should assess specifically for which finding during the clinic visit?
During clinic visits, nurses should evaluate patients for side effects of pharmacotherapy with isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RIF).
What is a positive Mantoux test?
The test is "positive" if there is a bump of a certain size where the liquid was injected. This means that you may have tuberculosis bacteria in your body. Most people with a positive tuberculosis skin test are infected with latent tuberculosis.
During clinic visits, nurses should evaluate patients for side effects of pharmacotherapy with isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RIF).
Signs and symptoms of side effects include
RashFeverAbdominal painNauseaVomitingChanges in liver function tests.Nurses also need to assess the client's adherence to the medication schedule and ensure that the client is taking prescribed medications. In addition, nurse should review the patient's understanding of TB, the importance of follow-up, and other relevant policies and procedures related to TB management.
Therefore, During clinic visits, nurses should evaluate patients for side effects of pharmacotherapy with isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RIF).
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a nursing instructor identifies a need for further instruction in regards to the three stages of fetal development when a nursing student makes which statement?
The statement made by student that "The pre-embryonic stage begins approximately 2 weeks after fertilization" would require further instruction by the nursing instructor.
The fetal development is linked with the fertilization process and implantation of fetus in the uterus lining. The pre embryonic stage starts from the successful fertilization and lasts for about two weeks. It is among the shortest phase of conceiving a baby. Since the student is confused with the duration period, hence guidance needs to be given to impart clarity regarding the phases of fetal development. Initially, after fertilization, a mass of cells is formed which develops into embryo and in about ninth week, the fetus begins to develop.
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which information would the nurse expect to be reported in the health history of a client with a suspected diagnosis of myasthenia gravis who sees the primary health care provider because of fatigue, double vision, and muscle weakness? muscle weakness improving after a period of rest symptoms worse in the morning upon awakening intermittent periods of hyperactivity slow, insidious onset of muscle weakness
The nurse would expect to hear the following reported in the health history 1) Of a client with a suspected diagnosis of myasthenia gravis:
2) muscle weakness improving after a period of rest,
3) symptoms worse in the morning upon awakening,
4) intermittent periods of hyperactivity, and slow,
5) insidious onset of muscle weakness.
Nursing is a profession within the health care sector focused on the care of individuals, families, and communities so they may attain, maintain, or recover optimal health and quality of life. Nurses may be differentiated from other health care providers by their approach to patient care, training, and scope of practice. Nurses practice in many specialties with differing levels of prescription authority. Many nurses provide care within the ordering scope of physicians, and this traditional role has come to shape the public image of nurses as care providers.
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a client who reports joint pain is being seen in the rheumatology clinic. the nurse understands that which element is used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?
Corticosteroids aid in the relief of rheumatoid arthritis-related pain, stiffness, and inflammation.
What is rheumatoid arthritis?Rheumatoid arthritis, also known as RA, is an autoimmune and inflammatory condition wherein your immune system unintentionally targets healthy cells in your body, resulting in inflammation (painful swelling) in the affected areas of your body.
The main areas that RA attacks are joints, often several joints at once. The knee, wrist, and hand joints are often impacted by RA. The inflammation of the joint lining causes damage to the joint tissue in a joint with rheumatoid arthritis. In addition to long-lasting or persistent pain, shakiness (loss of balance), and deformity, this tissue damage can also cause (misshapenness).
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a client comes to the emergency department with severe shortness of breath and difficulty breathing. he is restless and anxious. which response made by the nurse offers reassurance and builds trust? select all that apply.
A) "I'm here to help you and make sure you get the care you need."
B) "It's okay, I understand how frightening this must be for you."
C) "We'll take a look at your breathing and get you feeling better soon."
D) "Let me get the doctor so we can figure out what's going on."
which of the following is a retinal disease that takes many years to develop and can be accompanied by hemorrhage and aneurysms?
Macular degeneration is a retinal disease that takes many years to develop and can be accompanied by hemorrhage and aneurysms.
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a common condition that affects the central portion of vision. Usually the first to be affected are people in his 50's and her 60's. Complete blindness is not followed . However, daily activities such as reading and facial recognition can become difficult.
No one knows the exact cause of dry macular degeneration. Research suggests it may be a combination of family genes and environmental factors such as smoking, obesity, and diet. This condition develops as the eye ages. Eyeglasses cannot completely correct the loss of vision in people with macular degeneration, but they can maximize vision.
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Complete question :
Which of the following is a retinal disease that takes many years to develop and can be accompanied by hemorrhage and aneurysms?
a. presbyopia
b. glaucoma
c. macular degeneration
d. diabetic retinopathy
as part of the evaluation process of a new staff nurse, the nurse manager assesses their commitment to the profession of nursing. which action by the new staff nurse exemplifies a commitment to the nursing profession?
A commitment to the nursing profession can be demonstrated by various actions by a new staff nurse, such as:
What is nursing?
Nursing is a healthcare profession focused on the care of individuals, families, and communities so they may attain, maintain, or recover optimal health and quality of life. Nurses work in a variety of settings and perform a range of tasks, including administering medications, monitoring vital signs, providing patient education, and collaborating with other healthcare professionals to develop and implement patient care plans.
Continuously seeking opportunities for professional development and continuing educationAdhering to ethical and legal standards of the nursing professionDemonstrating compassion and empathy towards patients and familiesShowing a strong work ethic, accountability, and responsibility for their actionsCollaborating effectively with other healthcare team membersDemonstrating a commitment to patient-centered care and putting the needs of patients firstParticipating in quality improvement initiatives and seeking ways to enhance patient outcomesThese actions can demonstrate the new staff nurse's dedication to the nursing profession and their commitment to providing high-quality care to patients.
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a nurse is reviewing the medical records of several older adults admitted to the long-term care facility. each of the clients has been assessed for depression using the yesavage geriatric depression scale. which clients would the nurse identify as requiring interventions related to possible depression? select all that apply.
The nurse would identify a '80-year-old female with a score of 7' and a '71-year-old male with a score of 10' as requiring interventions related to possible depression.
What do you mean by depression?
Depression is a mood disorder characterised by persistent sadness and loss of interest. It has an impact on how a person feels, thinks, and behaves, and can result in a variety of emotional and physical problems. People suffering from depression may struggle to complete daily tasks and may believe that life is not worth living.
A score of 7 or higher on the Yesavage Geriatric Depression Scale is indicative of possible depression in older adults, so the nurse would identify these two clients as requiring interventions related to possible depression. The nurse would likely provide the clients with referrals to mental health professionals, such as a psychiatrist or psychologist, to assess their mental health status and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
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choose the ending of this sentence as it pertains to this week's module on biomaterials: stress shielding is... group of answer choices ...a orthopedic implant design feature that protects osteoporotic bone. ...caused by using overly stiff materials in an orthopedic implant. ...required for about 30 days in a newly implanted artificial joint to facilitate in-growth of bone. ..a first-line treatment for a patient with osteoarthritis of the hip or knee.
Stress shielding is 'an orthopedic implant design feature that protects osteoporotic bone'.
What do you mean by stress?
Stress is a feeling of emotional or physical strain or tension. It is the body's response to challenging or threatening situations. Stress can come from both external factors, such as work, relationships, finances, or health issues, or from internal factors, such as unrealistic expectations or negative self-talk.
Stress shielding is an orthopedic implant design feature that takes into account the unique needs of osteoporotic bone. Osteoporosis is a condition that causes bones to become weak and brittle due to the loss of bone mass and density. This makes them more vulnerable to fractures, especially during weight bearing activities. Stress shielding works to reduce the amount of stress that is placed on osteoporotic bone. This is done by having the implant absorb some of the stress that would otherwise be placed on the bone, allowing it to remain strong and stable. This helps to reduce the risk of fracture and the need for additional surgeries.
Hence, option A is correct.
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a nurse manager is evaluating staff members on their cultural competence. which action best demonstrates this characteristic?
Plans care with the family members within their cultural beliefs, the best action which demonstrates evaluating staff members on their cultural competence.
Thus option C is correct,
What traits define care that is culturally competent?
Care that respects patient population variety and cultural aspects that may have an impact on health and healthcare, such as language, communication styles, beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors, is referred to as culturally competent care.
Speaking in words that the patient can follow and comprehend is an example of cultural competence in nursing. a patient's religious background and beliefs are not disparaged or judged, but rather encouraged to follow their own path. demonstrating constant empathy for the patient.
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Complete question:
A nurse manager is evaluating staff members on their cultural competence. Which action best demonstrates this characteristic?
A. Attends workshops on cultural diversity and health practices
B. Participates in community health events with minority populations
C. Plans care with the family members within their cultural beliefs
D. Uses family members as interpreters to make