Which of the following statements are true about double-stranded DNA? a. A+C=T+G b. A+G=C+T c. A+T=G+C d. A/G = C/T e. A/G = T/C f. (C+A)/(G+T)=1

Answers

Answer 1

statements true about double-stranded DNA are a. A+C=T+G b. A+G=C+T  e. A/G = T/C . it consists of two polynucleotide chains.

An rapid repair is required for DNA double-strand breaks (DSBs), which are cytotoxic lesions. A DSB can be repaired by a number of metabolic processes that have emerged. Gene conversion is one of the least error-prone methods for repairing a DNA double-strand break (DSB). Although this is the case, gene conversion is associated with a nearly 1000-fold rise in mutation rate. Gene conversion is not only linked to increased mutation rates, but also to more specific mutation profiles when compared to spontaneous mutation occurrences. Extremely frequent frameshift mutation events and other complicated alterations that are not present during typical DNA replication are characteristics of gene conversion.

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Related Questions

body planes are surfaces along which body or a structure is cut for anatomical or pathological study.

Answers

Yes, it is, body planes are used to divide the body into different sections for study and observation.

What is the purpose of body planes in pathology?

Body planes in pathology serve as reference points for cutting and examining the anatomy of the body or a structure for the purpose of diagnosis and treatment of diseases or conditions. The most commonly used body planes include the sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right sections, the coronal or frontal plane, which divides the body into anterior and posterior sections, and the transverse or axial plane, which divides the body into superior and inferior sections.

By cutting along these specific planes, pathologists can examine the internal anatomy of the body in a systematic and organized manner to diagnose and understand the extent and progression of a disease or condition.

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For a gene suspected of causing hypertension in humans, you observe the following genotype frequencies: A1A1 0.574; AA2 0.339, A2A2 0.087. Is this gene in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Why or why not? (Assume that a difference of three percent or more in any of the observed versus expected frequencies is statistically significant.) See Section 23.1 Page 458) View Available Hint(s) No. The expected genotype frequencies are A A1 0.553; A1A20.381; A2A2 0.166. 。No. The expected genotype frequencies are A1 A1 0 553 A1A2 0.381; A2A2 0.066. O Yes. The expected genotype frequencies are AjA1 0.574; AA2 0.339, A2A2 0.087 O Yes. The expected genotype frequencies are AA10.553, A1A2 0.381; A242 0.066.

Answers

No, this gene is not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The expected genotype frequencies are A1A1 0.553; A1A2 0.381; A2A2 0.066. The correct answer is option(a).

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a law declaring that the hereditary alternative in a population will wait uninterrupted from one generation to the next in the deficiency of disquieting determinants. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium demands no immigration or migration, a big state, chance procreating, and no willing mutations (all of that are practically necessary for nature). Natural selection would defile these environments.

A genotype is a scoring of the type of variant present at a likely part (that is, a position) in the genome. It may be presented by symbols. For example, BB, Bb, and bb may be used to show a likely variant in deoxyribonucleic acid.

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The complete question is:

For a gene suspected of causing hypertension in humans, you observe the following genotype frequencies: A1A1 0.574; A1A2 0.339; A2A2 0.087. Is this gene in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Why or why not? (Assume that a difference of three percent or more in any of the observed versus expected frequencies is statistically significant.)

a) No. The expected genotype frequencies are A1A1 0.553; A1A2 0.381; A2A2 0.166.

b) Yes. The expected genotype frequencies are A1A1 0.553; A1A2 0.381; A2A2 0.066.

c) Yes. The expected genotype frequencies are A1A1 0.574; A1A2 0.339; A2A2 0.087.

d) No. The expected genotype frequencies are A1A1 0.553; A1A2 0.381; A2A2 0.066.

which of the following is true of prokaryotic flagella? group of answer choices all of the above/below rotate counterclockwise when running the basal body acts as the motor function to move bacteria in aqueous environments amphitrichous when one flagellum at each end of cell

Answers

The correct answer is that "Bacteria in aquatic settings are moved by the basal body acting as the motor." flagella of prokaryotic

Flagella, which are present in various eukaryotes as well as prokaryotes, are largely employed for cell motility. A filament in the prokaryotic flagellum rotates to propel the cell forward. A prokaryote may have one or more flagella, which may be confined to one pole or may be dispersed throughout the cell.

The flagella of prokaryotic organisms are formed of a globular protein called flagellin that forms a rigid, hollow cylinder and rotates anticlockwise and clockwise using the motion of hydrogen ions across the membrane along an electrochemical gradient.

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Mycoplasma pneumoniae is naturally resistant to penicillin because it lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis. True of False

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Mycoplasma is bacteria that ordinarily do not contain peptidoglycan, and because mycoplasma is resistant to penicillin and other medicines that act on peptidoglycan, they are difficult to treat therefore, the statement (Mycoplasma pneumoniae is naturally resistant to penicillin because it lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis) is true.

The microorganisms known as Mycoplasma pneumoniae are frequently responsible for bringing on minor illnesses in the respiratory system (the parts of the body involved in breathing). These bacteria can occasionally induce more serious lung infections, the treatment for which must be received in a hospital setting. Maintaining a high level of personal hygiene is critical in preventing the further spread of M. pneumoniae.

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(Science) chemistry challenge WHATS THE ANSWERRRR

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There are no instructions? But I assume you are finding the element according to their atomic number since you’re given just a bunch of numbers and this is chemistry.
To do this, you can simply look on the periodic table, the atomic numbers are increasing from left to right.
80 is Hg, which is Mercury
29 is Cu, which is Copper
35 is Br, which is Bromine
2 is He, which is Helium
73 is Ta, which is Tantalum

Hope this helped!

TRUE/FALSE. the endocrine system is responsible for fast-acting, short-duration responses to changes in the body.

Answers

True. Fast-acting, momentary responses to bodily changes are brought on by the endocrine system. blood supply to the heart. 5. Proteins produced in response to antibody stimulation are known as antigens.

The endocrine system is typically slower acting, taking care of a internal environment within the body, maintaining homeostasis, as well as managing reproduction. In overall, the nervous system involves rapid answers to rapid changes in the outside world.

In response to stimulation, the endocrine system releases hormones into the bloodstream, which then reach the desired tissue. Responses to stimulation of the endocrine system are typically slow but persistent. Although hormonal reactions don't happen as quickly as nervous reactions do, they can still reach many areas of the body almost instantly - as quickly as the heart can beat!

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the type of bonding and the numbers of covalent bonds an atom can form with other atoms are determined by . view available hint(s)for part a the type of bonding and the numbers of covalent bonds an atom can form with other atoms are determined by . the nucleus the number of unpaired electrons in the valence shell the number of neutrons the size of the atom; smaller atoms are chemically more reactive the number of protons

Answers

The kind of covalent bond that forms between two atoms depends on how many pairs of electrons are shared by them.

The amount of electrons an atom requires to fill it's own valence electron shell can be used to predict how many bonds it will form. For instance, because hydrogen needs two electrons to completely fill its outermost shell, it typically forms a single covalent bond with another atom. The number of electrons an element requires to reach octet determines how many bonds it forms inside a covalent compound. The kind of covalent bond that forms between two atoms depends on how many pairs of electrons are shared by them.The octet principle is not applicable to hydrogen. Since H only requires two electrons, it only forms one bond. Only one covalent bond between the hydrogen atom as well as the halogen atoms and other atoms is formed.

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when compared with bacteria, species of archaea seem to devote a higher percentage of their genomes to genes encoding proteins involved in _____.

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Species of Archaea appear to devote a higher proportion of their genomes in comparison to Bacteria to genes encoding proteins involved in energy and coenzyme production. Here option B is the correct answer.

Compared to bacteria, many species of Archaea have a higher percentage of their genomes dedicated to genes encoding proteins involved in energy and coenzyme production.

This is because many Archaea are adapted to extreme environments, such as high temperatures, high salt concentrations, or acidic conditions, and require specialized metabolic pathways to survive in these environments.

As a result, they have evolved a greater number of genes for energy production and coenzyme synthesis to support their unique metabolic needs. This difference in gene content helps distinguish Archaea from bacteria and highlights their unique adaptations to their environments.

Complete question:

When compared with Bacteria, species of Archaea seem to devote a higher percentage of their genomes to genes encoding proteins involved in

A) transcription.

B) energy and coenzyme production.

C) cell membrane functions.

D) carbohydrate metabolism.

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_____ is when the eye is focused on an object more than 20 feet away and light rays focus on the retina without effort.

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emmetropia is when the eye is focused on an object more than 20 feet away and light rays focus on the retina without effort.

In the most trustworthy dictionaries, emmetropia is described as "the natural refractive condition of the eye in which with accommodation relaxed parallel rays of light are all brought accurately to a focus upon the retina." The premise behind bifocal elements is that if only a fraction of the incident light intensity is strongly focused, sharp edges form, the image is perceived as clear, and the image contrast is reduced. That object's light beams are almost parallel and focus on the retina without any effort on the retina's part. Parallel light beams from a faraway object focus directly on the retina of an emmetropic eye in a healthy state.

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Hfr strains of Escherichia coli A)have the F factor as a plasmid.
B)do not possess an F factor.
C)have an integrated F factor.
D)transfer the complete F factor to recipient cells at a high frequency

Answers

Escherichia coli Hfr strains contain a integrated F factor.Therefore, its presence should not have an impact on bacterial proliferation.

A bacterium having a conjugative plasmid (such as the F-factor) incorporated into its chromosomal DNA is regarded as a high recombination cell (Hfr cell), sometimes known as a Hfr strain. Homologous recombination is how the plasmid is incorporated into the cell's chromosome. Escherichia coli's prototypical conjugative plasmid F is incorporated into the chromosome in classical Hfr strains. Hfr cells multiply exponentially, and F replicates passively as just a collection of bacterial genes (8). Therefore, its presence should not have an impact on bacterial proliferation. Gene conversion will occur far less frequently in F+ strains with an integrated F factor, including such B, C, and D, than in Hfr strains.

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if the third codon in the coding region of the rdl gaba receptor cdna is replaced with an amber codon (for example, tag) and the modified rdl gaba receptor cdna is expressed in frog oocytes, functional full-length receptors will:

Answers

If the third codon in the coding region of the RDL GABA receptor cDNA is replaced with an D)  An amber codon is a stop codon (TAG), and the modified RDL GABA receptor cDNA is expressed in frog oocytes, it is likely that functional full-length receptors will not be produced.

The amber codon (TAG) is a premature stop codon, which signals the ribosome to terminate translation of the mRNA into protein.

As a result, the production of the full-length RDL GABA receptor protein would be disrupted, and the receptor would not be functional. This could have significant impacts on neurotransmitter signaling and synaptic function in the cells expressing the modified receptor. The lack of functional RDL GABA receptors would result in altered neurotransmitter signaling and synaptic function, potentially leading to changes in synaptic transmission, synaptic plasticity, and overall synaptic function.

It is important to note that the impact of this modification on the RDL GABA receptor will depend on the specific role of the receptor in the cell, the cellular context in which it is expressed, and the impact of the truncated receptor on overall cellular function.

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The full question was here:

if the third codon in the coding region of the rdl gaba receptor cdna is replaced with an amber codon (for example, tag) and the modified rdl gaba receptor cdna is expressed in frog oocytes, functional full-length receptors will:

A) Both GABA and NMDA receptors in the CNS

B) Both GABA and NMDA receptors in the PNS

C) Mainly GABA receptors in the CNS

D)  An amber codon is a stop codon.

which of the following discoveries would most support the statement that p53 is the most important protein regulator of dna repair to have been discovered?

Answers

More human malignancies than any other protein can be linked to a mutation in the gene encoding the p53 protein. So, option B is correct.

Tumor protein, also known as p53 is frequently mutated in human malignancies. In vertebrates, where they prevent the development of cancer, the p53 proteins. It is originally believed to be one protein and frequently referred to as such they are essential. Because it helps maintain stability by preventing genome alteration, p53 has been referred to as "the custodian of the genome." TP53 is categorized as a tumor suppressor gene as a result.

The most often mutated gene (>50%) in human cancer is the TP53 gene, which suggests that the TP53 gene is essential for avoiding the development of cancer. The TP53 gene produces proteins that bind to DNA and control gene expression to stop genome mutations.

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The complete question is:

Which of the following discoveries would most support the statement that p53 is the most important protein regulator of DNA repair to have been discovered?

A. P53 still works to fix broken DNA even after being altered.

B. More human malignancies than any other protein can be linked to a mutation in the gene encoding the p53 protein.

C. The p53 protein is generally absent in malignant cells.

D. Cancer patients always have increased p53 levels.

1. If the GPP of the Halapagos Islands is 500 g C/m²/year and the NPP is 50 g C/m²/year, how much productivity do the Galapagos Islands lose to cellular respiration per square meter, per year?

Answers

We may calculate the amount of energy lost through cellular respiration by dividing Gross Prime Productivity (GPP) by Net Primary Productivity (NPP).

The Galapagos Islands' GPP in this instance is 500 g C/m2/year, but their NPP is 50 g C/m2/year. Consequently, the following formula may be used to determine the productivity lost per square metre, per year, as a result of cellular respiration:

GPP - NPP = 500 g C/m2/year - 50 g C/m2/year = 450 g C/m2/year is the output lost to cellular respiration.

Due to cellular respiration, the Islands lose 450 g of carbon per square metre each year.

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The productivity lost to cellular respiration in the Galapagos Islands per square meter per year is 450 g C/m²/year, calculated by subtracting the Net Primary Productivity (NPP) from the Gross Primary Productivity (GPP).

The Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) of an ecosystem is the total amount of biomass produced through photosynthesis. The Net Primary Productivity (NPP) represents the amount of this biomass that is available for consumption by consumers and decomposers, after subtracting the amount of energy lost to cellular respiration.

In the given case, the GPP of the Galapagos Islands is 500 g C/m²/year and the NPP is 50 g C/m²/year. The difference between the GPP and the NPP is the energy spent on respiration. Hence in this case, the productivity lost to cellular respiration per square meter per year would be GPP - NPP = 500 g - 50 g = 450 g C/m²/year.

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the graph shows the progress of the same enzyme-controlled reaction at two different temperatures. which statement is clearly supported by the data?

Answers

Option C is correct. When the temperature of an enzyme-controlled reaction is altered, the rate increases until the enzyme's ideal temperature is reached.

The rate at which a substrate is consumed or at which a product is formed is used to determine the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. The rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction increases as the temperature rises, as it does with many other chemical reactions. High temperatures, however, cause the enzyme to become denatured and cease functioning, which causes the rate to decrease once more. The enzyme's optimum temperature results in maximum activity. As the temperature rises, the shape of the enzyme's active site changes, causing a sharp decrease in activity. It's been denatured now. The best results from enzymes occur when the substrate is plentiful. The rate of enzyme activity increases along with the substrate concentration.

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Correct question- the graph shows the progress of the same enzyme-controlled reaction at two different temperatures. which statement is clearly supported by the data?

A. The amount of product produced initially açcurs at a lower rate at 40 °C

B. The optimum temperature for the reaction is 40 °C

C. The lower the temperature, the slower the rate of the reaction

D. The enzvme is denatured at 40 °C

which of the following statements are true of cytokinesis in plant cells? select the two that apply.

Answers

Answer:

Vesicles from the Golgi apparatus move along microtubules, coalesce at the plane of cell division, and form a cell plate.

*The cell plate consists of the plasma membrane and cell wall that will eventually separate the two daughter cells.

Explanation:

a__________is used to grow microbes when fresh cultures or large numbers of cells are required. an____________ is used to grow stock cultures that can be refrigerated after inoculation and stored for several weeks.

Answers

A growth medium, also known as a culture medium, is used to grow microbes when fresh cultures or large numbers of cells are required.

The growth medium provides the necessary nutrients and physical conditions for the growth and reproduction of microorganisms. Different types of growth media are used for different types of microorganisms, depending on their specific nutritional and growth requirements.

A stock culture, on the other hand, is used to grow cultures that can be refrigerated after inoculation and stored for several weeks. Stock cultures are typically used to maintain a strain of microorganisms for later use or for preservation of the strain for future research.

They are usually stored at a low temperature, such as in a refrigerator, to slow down the growth of the microorganisms and prevent the degradation of their genetic material.

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what three catastrophic events occurred in japan? how did each of these events cause destruction to ecosystems? (be sure to include details from page 3 and 4 of the lesson)

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The three catastrophic events that occurred in Japan are the 2011  earthquake and tsunami, the 1995 earthquake, and the 1923 earthquake.

The 2011 earthquake and tsunami caused extensive damage to infrastructure, including roads, bridges and buildings, and led to a nuclear disaster at a Nuclear Power Plant. It also had a devastating impact on Japan's ecosystems, with many coastal areas being severely affected by the tsunami.

The 1995 earthquake caused extensive damage to the city of Kobe and other nearby cities, destroying many homes and businesses. It had a large impact on the environment due to the destruction of forests and vegetation, as well as the release of hazardous materials into the air.

The 1923  earthquake caused widespread destruction and death across Tokyo and the surrounding areas. This earthquake had a devastating impact on the environment, with fires burning for days and the destruction of forests, homes, and businesses.

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The food consumed by organisms provides building materials and fuel for its cells. As the food is converted to energy, some energy is also lost to the system due to inefficiency. What is the form of the missing energy?

A.electrical energy

B. mechanical energy

C.radiant energy

D.Thermal energy

Answers

mechanical energy (b) because fuel is produced due to this

during embryonic development in vertebrates, which of the following characteristics are shared by all vertebrate animals?

Answers

Option a, b are Correct. The following traits are present in all vertebrate animals during embryonic development: pharyngeal pouches, postanal tail.

Similarities between embryos are probably proof of shared ancestry. For instance, all vertebrate embryos have tails and gill openings. By adulthood, all embryos lose their gill slits, with the exception of fish, and some of them also lose their tail. Because all vertebrate embryos share a common ancestor, they all resemble one another quite closely.

Vertebrates are known to display ancestral traits when they are developing in the womb. During the Cambrian explosion, when creature variety increased, vertebrates first appeared. The Chengjiang biota contains the oldest known animals, which lived about 518 million years ago. Haikouichthys and Haikouella are a couple of these.

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Correct Question:

During embryonic development in vertebrates, which of the following characteristics are shared by all vertebrate animals?

(a) pharyngeal pouches

(b) postanal tail

(c) 4 limbs

(d) warm bloodedness

(e) live birth

Which of the following scenarios describe people using steps of the scientific method? Select all that apply.
a) In order to determine what type of fertilizer works best for growing flowers on his balcony, Joe plants flowers in three pots with three different types of fertilizes and measures their growth over time.
b) Miguel's car doesn't start in the morning, so he methodically checks one possible component at a time to try to figure out why his car will not start.
c) While trying to figure out why her smartphone keeps turning off after she dropped it, Jocelyn predicts that the battery is loose inside the case.
d) Sarah observes that a specific type of ant keeps showing up in her kitchen, which leads her to wonder what the ant is attracted to.

Answers

The scientific method is a systematic and structured approach to solving problems and answering questions in a scientific manner.

The following scenarios describe people using steps of the scientific method:

a) In order to determine what type of fertilizer works best for growing flowers on his balcony, Joe plants flowers in three pots with three different types of fertilizers and measures their growth over time.

b) Miguel's car doesn't start in the morning, so he methodically checks one possible component at a time to try to figure out why his car will not start.

c) While trying to figure out why her smartphone keeps turning off after she dropped it, Jocelyn predicts that the battery is loose inside the case.In these scenarios, people are using the scientific method by observing a problem, formulating a hypothesis, testing the hypothesis, and analyzing the results to arrive at a conclusion.

These steps are central to the scientific method and are used by scientists to understand and solve a wide range of problems.

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complete the concept map to describe the process of protein synthesis. drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.

Answers

The concept map describes the process of protein synthesis is

protein synthesistranscriptiontranslationRNA polymerasenucleusmRNA moleculeribosomecytoplasmtRNA moleculepolypeptide

Protein synthesis is the process by which cells mаke proteins. It occurs in two stаges: trаnscription аnd trаnslаtion. Trаnscription is the trаnsfer of genetic instructions in DNА to mRNА in the nucleus. It includes three steps: initiаtion, elongаtion, аnd terminаtion. Аfter the mRNА is processed, it cаrries the instructions to а ribosome in the cytoplаsm.

Trаnslаtion occurs аt the ribosome, which consists of rRNА аnd proteins. In trаnslаtion, the instructions in mRNА аre reаd, аnd tRNА brings the correct sequence of аmino аcids to the ribosome. Then, rRNА helps bonds form between the аmino аcids, producing а polypeptide chаin. Аfter а polypeptide chаin is synthesized, it mаy undergo аdditionаl processing to form the finished protein.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can be seen in the Attachment.

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match group of answer choices plant (or bacterial) cells but not animal cells can cells become turgid. why?[ choose ]define turgid as an inequality[ choose ]define flaccid as an equality[ choose ]define tension as an inequality[ choose ]

Answers

Plant (or bacterial) cells but not animal cells can become turgid because turgid is defined as an inequality.

Turgid is a term used to describe a cell that is swollen or distended as a result of increased pressure within the cell due to the accumulation of water. Only plant (or bacterial) cells, not animal cells, can become turgid because these cells have cell walls that allow for changes in the pressure inside the cell. The cell wall provides the necessary animal cells rigidity to prevent the cell from collapsing under the pressure of the accumulated water. In contrast, animal cells do not have cell walls and are therefore unable to maintain a state of turgidity. The term "flaccid" refers to cells that are not turgid and have lost their rigidity, while the term "tension" refers to the pressure within a cell or tissue.

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which of the following best describes the effect of insulin binding to the receptor on the osteoblast cells? responses insulin binding ultimately increases pancreatic secretion of additional insulin. insulin binding ultimately increases pancreatic secretion of additional insulin. insulin binding blocks the release of osteocalcin from the osteoblasts. insulin binding blocks the release of osteocalcin from the osteoblasts. insulin binding inhibits the expression of espesp. insulin binding inhibits the expression of e s p . insulin binding increases the phph of the extracellular matrix

Answers

In the end, the binding of insulin causes more insulin to be secreted by the pancreas. best describes the effect of insulin binding to the receptor on the osteoblast cells.

A signaling pathway is triggered when insulin binds to the insulin receptor on osteoblasts, resulting in the release of the chemical OPG by the osteoblasts and its subsequent binding to the nearby osteoclasts. By releasing protons (H+), the osteoclasts respond, lowering the pH outside the cell. At the cellular level, insulin binds to the insulin receptor (IR) on the plasma membrane (PM) and triggers the activation of signaling cascades to regulate metabolism and cell growth. This low pH activates osteocalcin, an inactive protein released by osteoblasts.

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Can anyone help me with the length of time for each stage of Mitosis based on a 24 hour cell cycle?

Pls answer the question and do not put I don't know or something like that
Here is the table

Interphase 73 55 87
prophase 31 30 34
Anaphase 9 6 6
Telophase 5 5 3

Answers

Depending on how the chromosomes and spindle are physically, itosis is thought to have five stages. Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are these stages.

What is Mitosis?

Cytokinesis is the final physical cell division after telophase, it is occasionally regarded as the sixth stage of mitosis. Figure 8 displays every stage of mitosis as well as the interphase and cytokinesis phases that precede and follow.

Prophase, the first stage of mitosis, sees the recruitment of condensin and the start of the condensation process that lasts until metaphase. In the majority of species, prophase allows the resolution of the individual sister chromatids by mainly removing cohesin from the arms of the sister chromatids.

The spindle also starts to form during prophase when the centrosomes shift to their opposing poles and microtubules start to form from the double centrosomes.

Therefore, Depending on how the chromosomes and spindle are physically, itosis is thought to have five stages. Prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are these stages.

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Energy crisis is a burning issue in the world​

Answers

Yes, energy crisis is a significant issue that affects many countries around the world. It is characterized by a shortage of energy resources, such as oil, natural gas, and coal, which are used to generate electricity and power many industrial processes. This shortage can lead to high energy prices, power outages, and other consequences that negatively impact economies and communities.

What does heartworm prevention kill?

-adult worms

-microfilaria

-immature adult worms

-vectors

Answers

the microfilarae will suddenly die

select all the choices that correctly describe the golgi apparatus of the cell. this organelle is made up of flattened sacs of membrane. proteins are modified by this organelle and repackaged into transport vesicles. toxins in the cell are inactivated by this organelle. aerobic respiration is carried out by this organelle, which produces atp .

Answers

The Golgi apparatus is a complex and important organelle found in eukaryotic cells. It is made up of multiple flattened sacs of membrane and serves as the site for post-translational modification of proteins.

These modifications involve adding or removing certain chemical groups to the proteins, which allows them to perform specific functions. The Golgi apparatus is also responsible for repackaging these modified proteins into transport vesicles, which can then be delivered to other parts of the cell or to the extracellular environment. Additionally, the Golgi apparatus can inactivate toxins within the cell, proteins providing an important defense mechanism for the organism. However, aerobic respiration and the production of ATP are not performed by the Golgi apparatus.

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1. there is a cause, or reasonable explanation, for every effect, or event, in creation 2. there is something real to be discovered and understood about creation. abeka 10th grade biology

Answers

These two statements are the two Biblical presuppositions on which modern science is based.

there is a cause, or reasonable explanation, for every effect, or event, in creation there is something real to be discovered and understood about creation.

Science according to the Bible is a study or study to find, understand, and observe the nature that governs nature as a whole, governs the world, and governs us.

The medieval system of theological teaching presupposed that the Bible contained timeless religious truths, valid for all generations and all ages and that it was the task of the theologians in each generation to unearth those truths and present them to the public his contemporaries.

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beyond providing energy as atp, what do catabolic pathways provide to anabolic pathways that enables them to build biomolecules

Answers

Beyond providing energy as ATP, catabolic pathways deliver a variety of cofactors to anabolic pathways, such as NADH, NADP, or FADH, which are necessary for the synthesis of new biomolecules.

Because many different cellular functions, including cellular respiration, require these molecules, the relative importance of cofactors like NADH in anabolic pathways can be explained by the fact that these molecules are necessary for the generation of additional ATP.

Therefore, based on these findings, we are able to deduce that the relative importance of cofactors in anabolic pathways, such as NADH, is determined by the production of new ATP molecules.

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the most commonly used microscope, which uses visible light to view cells, is called a . view available hint(s)for part a the most commonly used microscope, which uses visible light to view cells, is called a . transmission electron microscope phase contrast microscope light microscope confocal microscope

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Microscope for light (To expand the image in a light microscope, visible light is projected through the specimen and through glass lenses. This is the most popular type of microscope.)

The optical microscope, often known as a light microscope, is a type of microscope that generally uses visible light and a lens system to magnify images of small objects.

The common light microscope used in laboratories is known as a compound microscope because it has two types of lenses that work together to magnify an object. The ocular lens is closest to the eye, while the objective lens is closest to the object.

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