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The following statement provides support for the endosymbiotic theory: "Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own DNA and are able to reproduce independently of the cell."
This supports the endosymbiotic theory because it suggests that mitochondria and chloroplasts have a separate evolutionary history and once existed as independent organisms. According to the endosymbiotic theory, these organelles evolved from symbiotic relationships between primitive eukaryotic cells and other organisms, such as bacteria. Over time, the symbiotic relationship evolved into a permanent association, with the organelle becoming an integral part of the eukaryotic cell and performing specific cellular functions. The presence of their own DNA and the ability to reproduce independently supports the idea that mitochondria and chloroplasts have a separate evolutionary history from the host cell.
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The full question was here:
Which of the following provides support for the endosymbiotic theory? Multiple Choice Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain genes that are vastly different compared to bacterial genes_ Mitochondria and chloroplasts have only single membrane surrounding them: Mitochondria and chloroplasts contribute to similar metabolic processes in the eukaryotic cell: Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their owvn genomes_ Mitochondria and chloroplasts cannot synthesize proteins_
Related Questions
Which of the following characteristics are associated with a gene being inheritable? Select all that apply.
a. A trait must be encoded in the genes of our DNA
b. A copy of the trait must be able to pass from one generation to another
c. One copy for every gene in an organism is inherited from each of their parents
d. Knowledge is an example of a inheritable trait
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characteristics are associated with a gene being inheritable: a. A trait must be encoded in the genes of our DNA b. A copy of the trait must be able to pass from one generation to another c. One copy for every gene in an organism is inherited from each of their parents d. Knowledge is an example of a inheritable trait.
In terms of genetics, a particularity is a unique quality that distinguishes a person. Genes, the outside world, or a combination of both can impact traits. Qualitative traits( similar eye colour) and quantitative traits are both possible( similar as height or blood pressure). Part of a person's complete phenotype is a particular particularity. You might picture character features like compassion or a sense of humour when you hear the word" traits." The term" particularity" in genetics refers to a property that can be measured or reported about people and other living effects. Physical or behavioural traits are also possible.
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using tay-sachs disease as an example (as in your textbook), explain how a heterozygous individual can appear normal at the organismal level, exhibit an intermediate phenotype at the biochemical level, and exhibit both phenotypes at the molecular level
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Tay-Sachs disease is a rare inherited disorder that results from a deficiency in an enzyme called hexosaminidase A (Hex A). This enzyme is responsible for breaking down a type of fat called GM2 ganglioside
which builds up in cells of the nervous system leading to their damage and death.
At the organismal level, heterozygous individuals (carriers) are considered normal as they have one functional copy of the gene encoding for Hex A and are able to produce enough of the enzyme to prevent the accumulation of GM2 ganglioside.
At the biochemical level, carriers may exhibit an intermediate phenotype as they produce reduced levels of Hex A compared to normal individuals. This can result in a moderate accumulation of GM2 ganglioside, but not enough to cause significant damage to the nervous system.
At the molecular level, carriers have both normal and mutant alleles ofthe Hex A gene. Analysis of the molecular phenotype would reveal the presence of both normal and mutant forms of the enzyme, explaining the intermediate phenotype seen at the biochemical level.
It is important to note that carriers do not show any symptoms of
Tay-Sachs disease but they can pass the disease on to their offspring if both parents are carriers of the mutated gene.
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Which of the following statements is a correct interpretation of the phylogenetic tree shown in the illustration?
a. The warbler finch is the common ancestor to all the finch species that exist today in the Galapagos islands.
b. The sharp-beaked ground finch is more closely related to the small tree finch than either species is to the cactus finch.
c. The 13 finch species evolved in sequence; the warbler finch is the oldest species and the small ground finch is the most recent species to evolve.
d. All the Galapagos finches are more closely related to one another than they are to mainland finch species.
Answers
D: "All the Galapagos finches are more closely related to one another than they are to mainland finch species" is a correct interpretation of the phylogenetic tree shown in the illustratior.
The illustration of the phylogenetic tree shows a branching pattern that represents the evolutionary relationships among different species of finches in the Galapagos islands. Each branch point represents a divergence in the evolutionary history of the species, with the length of the branch representing the amount of time that has passed since the divergence. The tree shows that all the Galapagos finches are more closely related to one another than they are to any mainland finch species, indicating that they share a common ancestry and have evolved over time in the Galapagos islands.
The sharp-beaked ground finch and the small tree finch are more closely related to each other than either species is to the cactus finch, but this does not mean that the sharp-beaked ground finch is the common ancestor of all the finches. The evolutionary relationships shown in the tree are complex and can only be interpreted by carefully analyzing the branching pattern and the lengths of the branches.
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The power given off by the Sun is 4 × 1026 watts. One study showed that the city of Los Angeles uses 3 × 108 watts of power on average.
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Approximately one trillion cities can be powered if we could use all of the power from the Sun.
What is Power?Power is the amount of energy which is transferred or converted per unit time in a system. In the International System of Units, the unit of power is the watt (W). Watt is equal to one joule per second. Power is a scalar quantity because it has only magnitude and no direction.
Power given by sun = 4 × 1026 Watts
Power used by Los Angeles = 3 × 10⁸ Watts
Number of cities like Los Angeles = n
n = n = Sun.power/ Los Angeles. Power
n = 4 × 1026/ 3 × 10⁸
n = 1.333 × 10⁸ ≈ 1 × 10¹⁸
(Approximately 1 trillion)
1 trillion cities could be powered if all the power of sun put out is used.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
The power given off by the Sun is 4 × 1026 watts. One study showed that the city of Los Angeles uses 3 × 108 watts of power on average. How many cities like Los Angeles could be powered if we could use all the power our Sun puts out?
complete the concept map to describe the building blocks, general structure, and biological function of organic molecules.
Answers
Monomers: small organic molecules that can be joined together to form polymers
Examples: amino acids (protein), sugars (carbohydrates), fatty acids (lipids)
General structure:
Polymers: long chains of monomers held together by covalent bonds
Macromolecules: large biological molecules made up of polymers
Examples: Proteins, Carbohydrates, Lipids, Nucleic acids (DNA, RNA)
Biological function:
Proteins: structural support, enzymes, hormones, transport molecules, immune response
Carbohydrates: energy storage and transport, structural support
Lipids: energy storage, insulation, hormone production, cell membrane structure
Nucleic acids: genetic information storage and transmission, regulation of cellular activities
Note: This is a broad overview and there can be variations and exceptions to the mentioned generalizations.
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the influx of what ion into the sarcoplasm of cardiac muscle triggers the release of ca2 from the sarcoplasic reticulum
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Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum as a result of depolarization of the sarcolemma (muscle membrane) brought on by nerve stimulation.
Extracellular calcium (Ca2+) influx through voltage-dependent L-type Ca2+ channels initiates the calcium transient in response to sarcolemmal depolarization; this calcium influx causes the release of stored Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) via Ca2+ release channels (ryanodine receptor 2, RyR2).
The ryanodine receptors (RyRs) in the SR cardiac activate and release calcium, stimulating contraction, when the action potential invades T-tubules and opens the L-type calcium channels. The sarcoplasmic reticulum supplies the majority of the calcium required for contraction, and this calcium is released by a mechanism called calcium-induced calcium release.
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explain why reflection images are easily seen at night ina window pane from inside the hosue whereas during hte day hery are not
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The reflection images are easily seen at night in a window pane from inside the house whereas during the day they are not because the room's reflection shines day and night.
It just comes down to whether the image is brighter. The reflection in the room is equally dazzling during the day as it is at night, yet during the day, the illuminated things outside overwhelm the mirror. If sound waves were used as an analogous example in place of light waves, it would be clear why you could hear someone speak in a quiet room but not in one with your teen's boom box blaring.
The room's whispered reflection is overpowered by the daylight outside, which is like a boom box. The whispered reflection is considerably more audible at night when nature switches off the boombox.
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simple endocrine pathway will include which of the following? select all that apply. view available hint(s)for part e a simple endocrine pathway will include which of the following?select all that apply. circulatory system endocrine organ brain neurohormone afferent neuron classic hormone target tissue efferent neuron neurotransmitter sensor
Answers
A simple endocrine pathway will include the following components: Endocrine organ,Classic hormone,Target tissue,Circulatory system
Endocrine organ: This refers to the specialized gland that produces and secretes hormones into the bloodstream. Examples of endocrine organs include the pituitary gland, thyroid gland, adrenal glands, and pancreas.
Classic hormone: Hormones are chemical messengers that are secreted into the bloodstream and carried to target tissues. Classic hormones include thyroid hormones, insulin, and glucagon.
Target tissue: Target tissues are the cells or organs that are affected by hormones. These tissues have specific receptors for the hormone, which bind to the hormone and initiate a response.
Circulatory system: The circulatory system, including the blood and blood vessels, acts as a transport system for hormones to reach their target tissues.
It is important to note that this simple endocrine pathway does not involve the brain, neurotransmitters, afferent neurons, or efferent neurons, which are more commonly associated with the nervous system.
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1. List the order in which rock layers formed and events occurred A
through E.
2. How can you tell that intrusion D is older than fault E?
3. Using relative dating methods, which of the following are scientists
able to do?
a. Identify the order in which rock units formed.
b. Assign a numerical date to each rock layer studied.
c. Determine the age of the fossils within each layer.
d. Identify what rock types are present.
PLEASE HELP
Answers
Answer:
1. B, A, D, E
2. the intrusion is not lined up
3. a
Explanation:
19 / 10000 word limit19 words written of 10000 allowed question 4 (d) predict the likely effect on the ability of substance l to enter the cells if substance l is attached to a large protein instead of free in the culture.
Answers
Examples of membrane receptors:
Ligand, located outside the cellLigands are connected to specific receptor proteins based on the shape of the active site of the protein.The receptor releases the second messenger after the ligand is connected to the receptor.In biochemistry and pharmacology, receptors are protein molecules that receive chemical signals from outside the cell.
Receptors can be bound to cell membranes, cytoplasm, or the nucleus, each of which can only be attached by certain types of signaling molecules. Signaling molecules attached to a receptor are called ligands, which can be a peptide or other small molecules such as neurotransmitters, hormones, drugs, or toxins.
Receptor proteins can be classified by their location. Transmembrane receptors include receptors connected with ion channels (ionotropic), receptors connected to protein G (metabotropic), and receptors connected with enzymes.
Not every ligand that binds to the receptor also activates the receptor. The ligand class can be divided into:
Agonist (full)Partial agonistAntagonistInverse agonistAllosteric modulatorReceptors capable of producing biological responses in the absence of bound ligands are said to display "constitutive activity".
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which of the following are nutrient intakes that are sufficient to meet the needs of almost all healthy people in a specific gender and life-stage group.
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The RDA (Recommended Dietary Allowance) is the amount of food consumed on a daily average that is adequate to provide almost all healthy people in a given life stage and gender group with the nutrients they need.
The levels of essential nutrient intake that the Food and Nutrition Board considers, based on scientific understanding, to be sufficient to meet the recognized dietary needs of nearly all healthy individuals are known as Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs).
The amounts considered to be within the scope of a typical diet are known as recommended allowances for nutrients. Therefore, any element that affects the efficiency with which food nutrients are utilized or absorbed must be taken into account. For some nutrients, consuming a substance that is later transformed into the required nutrient by the body can satisfy part of the requirement.
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The complete question is:
Which of the following are nutrient intakes that are sufficient to meet the needs of almost all healthy people in a specific gender and life-stage group.
1) EAR (Estimated Average Requirement)
2) EER (Estimated Energy Requirement)
3) RDA (Recommended Dietary Allowance)
4) Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)
true/false. the study found that of the children who slept with a room light on before the age of 2, 55% were myopic. of the children who slept with a night light on before the age of 2, 34% were myopic.
Answers
It is True that the study found that of the children who slept with room light on before the age of 2, 55% were myopic. of the children who slept with a night light on before the age of 2, 34% were myopic.
Myopia, or nearsightedness, occurs when distant objects appear blurry while close objects appear clear. One common eye-focusing disorder is nearsightedness. It has been growing for a number of decades. Nearsightedness is predicted to affect nearly half of the world's population by 2050. In the first two years after birth, exposure to ambient light during sleep was strongly linked to the prevalence of myopia in children. In the given circumstance, there should be room light, night light, and a dark environment for lightning. As stated above, the rate of myopia should be reduced.
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TRUE/FALSE. different cell types develop in a multicellular organism because each cell has its own unique set of genes.
Answers
FALSE. When cells divide, genetic material is transferred to the daughter cells. Through the process of cell division, new cells are created from existing ones. Cells are the basic unit of life.
RNA and protein molecules are synthesized and accumulated by various cell types in multicellular organisms, which causes these cell types to develop differences from one another. They typically carry out this activity without changing the DNA's sequence.
An old set of frog experimentation provides proof that the genome is preserved during cell differentiation. A fully differentiated frog cell's nucleus can direct the recipient egg to develop a typical tadpole when it is injected into a frog egg that has had its nucleus removed (Figure). The differentiated donor cell cannot have lost any significant DNA sequences because the tadpole contains a full range of differentiated cells that derived their DNA sequences from the nucleus of the original donor cell. In experiments using different plants, a similar conclusion was drawn. Here, differentiated plant tissue fragments are placed in culture before being separated into individual cells.
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Match each of the following items that may influence the selection of an antimicrobial procedure with its correct description/rationale.
1. Composition of the item
2. Risk for infection
3. Type of microbe
4. Environmental conditions
5. Number of microorganisms
Answers
Environmental conditions, such as temperature and humidity, can impact the efficacy of certain procedures and need to be considered as high antimicrobial loads may require stronger treatments.
The selection of an antimicrobial procedure involves considering various factors to ensure its effectiveness and safety. The composition of the item to be treated is important as Environmental conditions , such as food or medical devices, may be more susceptible to contamination and require specific treatments to prevent the growth of microbes. The type of microbe present on the item is also important, as different microbes have varying sensitivities to antimicrobial agents. Environmental conditions, such as temperature and humidity, can also impact the efficacy of certain procedures and must be considered in the selection process. Finally, the number of microorganisms on the item is significant as high antimicrobial loads may require stronger treatments.
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after mitosis, _____ is the phase where a cleavage furrow forms along the center of the cell and eventually causes the cell to split.
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After mitosis, Cytokinesis is the phase where a cleavage furrow forms along the center of the cell and eventually causes the cell to split.
The physical process of cell division known as cytokinesis separates a parental cell's cytoplasm into two daughter cells. It happens simultaneously with the two nuclear division processes known as meiosis and mitosis that take place in animal cells. Two distinct nuclei are produced during mitosis and each of the two meiotic divisions within a single cell.
In order to divide the cell in half and make sure that each daughter cell has one nucleus, cytokinesis must be performed. Cytokinesis begins at the anaphase phase of nuclear division and lasts all the way through telophase. Just below the plasma membrane, a ring-shaped collection of protein filaments known as the contractile ring develops around the equator of the cell.
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a blood type b woman is married to a man whose blood type is unknown. they have three children whose blood types are b, o, and ab. what is the husband's genotype? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices
Answers
As this is the only genotype with both alleles, the husband must be able to pass both the IA and I alleles to his offspring.
The child's genotype must be OO because they have blood type O. The mother's genotype could either be BB or BO because she has blood type B. But since she gave birth to a child with type O, she must have given the child the O allele, indicating that the mother's genotype is BO.
A genotype is a rating of the kind of variant that is present at a specific locus (i.e., location) in the genome. Symbols are a form of representation. A specific gene variant could be represented, for instance, by the letters BB, Bb, and bb.
Homozygous recessive (pp), homozygous dominant (PP), and heterozygous genotypes are the various types of genotypes (Pp). The phenotypes of the homozygous dominant and heterozygous genotypes are identical.
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Which of the following lists the parts of a reflex arc in the correct sequence? Multiple Choice receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, Interneuron, effector O effector, receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, Interneuron receptor, afferent neuron, Interneuron, efferent neuron, effector effector, afferent neuron, receptor, Interneuron, efferent neuron
Answers
Answer:
it is the 3rd one
Explanation:
Which describes a convergent plate
boundary?
A. when plates do not move
B. when plates come together and collide
C. when plates move away from each other
D. slab pull
Answers
When two plates slide past each other, they form a transform boundary. Transform boundaries are also known as strike-slip boundaries, in which motion is predominantly horizontal. For example, San Andreas fault.
What is divergent boundary?A divergent boundary occurs when two plates pull away from each other. The divergent boundary is formed when the plates are moving apart and a new crust is formed by pushing the mantle.
When two plates collide with each other, they form a convergent boundary. The colliding of two plates causes the edges to buckle up to form mountain ranges or deep-sea trench.
Therefore, When two plates slide past each other, they form a transform boundary. Transform boundaries are also known as strike-slip boundaries, in which motion is predominantly horizontal. For example, San Andreas fault.
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item skipped item 29 if you were to divide a human head into equal parts using a frontal section and a transverse section, how and where would it be divided?
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if you were to divide a human head into equal parts using a frontal section and a transverse section, it will be divided four parts, vertically into anterior and posterior portions, and horizontally at approximately the top of the ears
A fleshy outer layer that encircles the bony skull makes up the human head. Within the skull, the brain is protected. In a human head, there are 22 bones. Seven cervical vertebrae support the head as it rests on the neck. Normal human head weight ranges from 2.3 to 5 kilos (5.1 and 11.0 lb) In this range, over 98% of people fall. Humans with very small or huge heads have been observed on occasion, which is strange. Beginning in the early 2000s, the Zika virus was to blame for underdeveloped skulls.
The eyes, nose, and mouth are located on the front of the head, which is called the face. A fleshy boundary for the oral cavity is provided by the cheeks on either side of the mouth.
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complete question
If you were to divide a human head into equal parts using a frontal section and a transverse section, how and where would it be divided?
Which of the following can best be used to justify why the GFP is expressed by E. coli cells after transformation with the plasmid?
Answers
The expression of Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) by E. coli cells after transformation with the plasmid can best be justified by the presence of the A. GFP gene on the plasmid, along with a promoter and other necessary regulatory elements.
The GFP gene is a coding sequence for the GFP protein, which is responsible for producing the green fluorescence. The promoter is a DNA sequence that initiates transcription of the gene into messenger RNA (mRNA). The mRNA is then translated into protein by the ribosomes in the cell.
Additionally, the plasmid may contain an origin of replication, allowing it to replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome, and an antibiotic resistance gene, which confers resistance to a particular antibiotic and is used as a selectable marker to identify cells that have taken up the plasmid. The presence of all these elements on the plasmid allows the GFP gene to be expressed in the transformed E. coli cells, leading to the production of GFP and the green fluorescence observed.
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Which of the following can best be used to justify why the GFP is expressed by E. coli cells after transformation with the plasmid?
A. GFP gene B. E. coli cell C. pGLO plasmid D. ampicillin-treated agar plate
A parent cell has six chromosomes.
Which statement describes the daughter cell(s ) produced after this cell undergoes the cell cycle and mitotic cell division?
Answers
If a parent cell has six chromosomes, then the statement b. there will be two daughter cells with six chromosomes each describes the daughter cell(s ) produced after this cell undergoes the cell cycle and mitotic cell division.
What is the cell cycle and mitotic cell division?The cell cycle and mitotic cell division make reference to the life of a somatic cell that divides by mitosis generating two genetically identical cells.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the mitotic cell division generates two daughter cells with the same genetic material.
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an administrator was interested in determining the proportion of undergraduate students at a university that have taken biology. identify the type of variable being measured. quantitative census categorical parameter
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If an undergraduate student took the SAT math subject test.
Undergraduate education is schooling that occurs after high school and before to postgraduate study. It usually refers to all postsecondary studies leading up to the level of a bachelor's degree. In the United States, for example, an undergraduate is a first-year university student, whereas graduate students are students with advanced degrees.
The student would acquire the equivalent degree after completing a number of mandatory and elective courses as part of an undergraduate program. (In some countries, individual "courses" and the "program" collection are referred to as "units" and "courses," respectively.)
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Transcription is the process of producing a(n) ______ sequence using the information in ______
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Transcription is the process of producing an RNA sequence using the information in DNA.
What is transcription?A DNA fragment is copied into RNA during transcription. Messenger RNA is the term for DNA segments that are translated into RNA molecules that can encode proteins. Non-coding RNAs are RNA molecules that contain copies of other DNA sequences.
Initiation, elongation, and termination are three stages in transcription. The first step is initiation, nucleotides are added to the mRNA in the elongation stage, and the last is termination. Hence, Transcription is the process of producing an RNA sequence using the information in DNA.
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using the scenario pathway in part i, what is the role of the gastrin-producing g cell in this neuroendocrine pathway?
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Gastrin is secreted into the systemic circulation by G-cells, allowing it to reach parietal cells and enterochromaffin-like (ECL) cells in the gastric fundus and heart. Gastrin promotes the growth of stomach mucosal endocrine cells (parietal cells, ECL cells).
Gastrin activates eNOS and thereby increases nitric oxide synthesis in an ERK1/2, AKT, and p38MAPK dependent way. The beta-catenin/TCF-4 pathway is another important player in gastrin-induced cell proliferation and migration. The JAK-STAT signaling pathway has also been linked to gastrin signaling.
Gastrin is a hormone produced by 'G' cells in the stomach and upper small intestine and released into the bloodstream. Gastrin encourages the stomach to produce gastric acid throughout a meal (hydrochloric acid).
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HELP PLEASE Holly's parents both have brown hair and brown eyes. Her mother has pale skin and always wears her hair in a ponytail, but her father has dark skin and keeps his hair cut very short. Which trait can Holly not inherit from her parents?
A. hair color
B. hairstyle
C. eye color
D. skin color
Answers
Gastric cells in the stomach lining produce the protein pepsin, which breaks down other proteins found in food. Skin cells do not produce pepsin.
How does this cell specialization take place?
Answers
Pepsin is a digestive enzyme that is produced by the walls of the stomach, being activated by gastric juice, and whose function is to break proteins down into simpler peptides.
What are the functions of pepsin?Pepsin is a stomach enzyme that serves to digest proteins found in ingested food. Gastric chief cells secrete pepsin as an inactive zymogen called pepsinogen. Parietal cells within the stomach lining secrete hydrochloric acid that lowers the pH of the stomach. A low pH (1.5 to 2) activates pepsin.
The digestive power of pepsin is greatest at the acidity of normal gastric juice (pH 1.5–2.5). In the intestine the gastric acids are neutralized (pH 7), and pepsin is no longer effective.
Pepsin cleaves peptide bonds in the amino-terminal side of the cyclic amino acid residues (tyrosine, phenylalanine, and tryptophan), breaking the polypeptide chains into smaller peptides.
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select the organ systems most closely associated with maintaining homeostasis in the human body. a)respiratory. b) urinary. c) reproductive. d) cardiovascular. e) digestive
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a) respiratory b) urinary d) cardiovascular e) digestive maintain homeostasis in the human body.
Homeostasis is a condition in which all bodily systems are in balance and working as they should.
Each and every organ system in the body depends on homeostasis. In a similar vein, no single organ system of the body functions alone; at the very least, the cardiovascular, neurological, musculoskeletal, and integumentary systems must all work together for body temperature regulation to take place.
The body must constantly check its internal circumstances in order to maintain homeostasis. Each physiological situation has a certain set point, including body temperature, blood pressure, and the quantities of particular nutrients. The physiological value that the normal range varies around is known as a set point.
Hormones are chemical messengers that the brain uses to communicate with the body and regulate homeostasis. The bloodstream carries hormones from the brain to the body and back.
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predict the change of allele frequencies in a small population of sea turtles over time due to inbreeding alone versus inbreeding plus natural selection. assume the gene that causes albinism has the starting allele frequencies a
Answers
In a small population of sea turtles, the change in allele frequencies over time due to inbreeding alone would result in an increase in homozygosity and a decrease in heterozygosity.
Allele frequencies would remain at 0.99 and 0.01 if inbreeding alone occurred, but genotype frequencies would change (AA and aa would become more prevalent, Aa would become less common). Because white sea turtles are easier to spot by predators, the frequency of the a gene in the population is expected to decline when inbreeding and natural selection take place (and the frequency of A will grow).
This is because inbreeding leads to mating between close relatives, which increases the likelihood that offspring will inherit the same alleles from their parents. Over time, the frequency of alleles that are present in the ancestral population will become more homozygous.
However, if inbreeding occurs in combination with natural selection, the change in allele frequencies will depend on the relative strength of the two processes. For example, if the gene that causes albinism is associated with a disadvantage (such as increased susceptibility to predation), natural selection will act against individuals with the albinism allele and its frequency will decrease over time. In this scenario, the overall effect of inbreeding on the population would be to amplify the effects of natural selection, rather than counteract them.
In conclusion, the change in allele frequencies in a small population of sea turtles over time will depend on the combined effects of inbreeding and natural selection. If inbreeding occurs in the absence of natural selection, it will lead to an increase in homozygosity and a decrease in heterozygosity. If inbreeding occurs in the presence of natural selection, the direction and magnitude of the change in allele frequencies will depend on the relative strength of the two processes.
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The full question was here:
Predict the change of allele frequencies in a small population of sea turtles over time due to inbreeding alone versus inbreeding plus natural selection. Assume the gene that causes albinism has the starting allele frequencies A = 0.99 and a = 0.01, where only aa individuals are white
What is a drought?
a warm season brought on by Earth tilting toward the Sun
an extended period of time with little to no snow or rainfall
a large wave usually caused by an undersea earthquake
a cool season brought on by Earth tilting away from the Sun
Answers
a team of scientists is trying to understand the evolutionary history of three species of grasses. they hypothesize that species t is a descendent of a hybrid between species r and species s. which of the following experimental approaches would best help elucidate the evolutionary history of these three species?
Answers
Option 1 is Correct. Three species of grasses are the subject of an evolutionary history study by a group of researchers.
According to their theory, Species T is descended from a hybrid of Species R and Species S. Species Rand S monitors morphological and genetic changes in the hybrid offspring, compares the observed changes to Species, and plants the hybrid offspring in environments similar to Species R, S, and 7.
This is the following experimental strategies would help clarify the evolutionary background of these three species the most. Induce tetraploidy in the hybrids, compare them to Species T Hybridize Species R and S, put the hybrid progeny in environments that are comparable to those of Species R.
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Correct Question:
A team of scientists is trying to understand the evolutionary history of three species of grasses. They hypothesize that Species T is a descendent of a hybrid between Species R and Species S Which of the following experimental approaches would best help elucidate the evolutionary history of these three species?
1. Hybridize Species Rand S plant the hybrid offspring in environmental conditions resembling those of Species R, S, and 7, follow morphological and genetic changes in the offspring of the hybrids, and compare the observed changes to Species. T
2. Hybridize Species R and S. induce tetraploidy in the hybrids, and compare the hybrids to Species T
3. Hybridize Species R and S, plant the hybrid offspring in environmental conditions similar to mose of Species R, follow the morphological and genetic changes in the offspring of the hybnds and compare any observed changes to Species R
4. Sequence the DNA of all three species and determine which alleles are unique to each species