The tibial nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the leg and the skin over the dorsum of the foot. The tibial nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and provides sensory innervation to the posterior compartment of the leg and the dorsum of the foot.
Cutaneous innervation refers to the sensory innervation of the skin. The skin is richly innervated with sensory nerve endings that detect stimuli such as pressure, temperature, and pain. These sensory nerve endings are connected to sensory neurons, which transmit information about the stimulus to the central nervous system.Cutaneous innervation is provided by two types of sensory nerves: small, unmyelinated nerve fibers that detect light touch, and larger, myelinated fibers that detect pressure and pain. The distribution of these nerve fibers varies across different areas of the skin, with denser concentrations in areas that are more sensitive to stimuli.The cutaneous innervation of the skin is essential for the detection of stimuli and the transmission of this information to the brain, which then processes the information and generates an appropriate response. For example, if the skin is touched by a hot object, the sensory nerves detect the stimulus and send signals to the brain, which then generates a response to withdraw the hand from the hot object to prevent injury.
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The diaphragm creates a ________ section between the thoracic and abdominal body cavities.
The transverse (cross) portion here between thoracic and abdominal bodily chambers is created by the diaphragm.
Why does the diaphragm serve its purpose?You can blow in and out with the assistance of the diaphragm, a muscle This little muscles has a dome shape and is positioned behind your heart and lungs. It is joined to your backbone, the base of your rib cage, and the septum, a bone in the heart of your chest.
Do you have a diaphragm if you can take a breath?However, your diaphragm muscle, that performs the pushing and tugging on your lungs to enable them operate, is meaningless without your lungs. Therefore, when you inhale, your head transmits an electrical impulse to your breathing muscles through your neurological system.
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Select all of the characteristics exhibited by BOTH bacterial and eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes.1. Phospholipid bilayer2. Embedded proteins3. Sterols4. Selectively permeable barrier5. Transport systems
Phospholipid bilayer
Embedded proteins
Transport systems
What are bacterial and eukaryotic cytoplasmic membranes?
A phospholipid bilayer makes up the cytoplasmic membranes of bacteria and eukaryotes, providing a barrier that is only selectively permeable. Proteins that perform a variety of tasks, including functioning as transporters, enzymes, and signaling molecules, are also embedded in both types of membranes. Additionally, the cytoplasmic membranes of eukaryotic and bacterial cells also feature transport mechanisms that control how ions and other molecules enter and exit the cell.
Bacterial cytoplasmic membranes do not contain sterols. They are only found in the cytoplasmic membranes of eukaryotes, where they help the membrane to remain stable and fluid.
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In animal cells, ___ produce spindles fibers that help pull apart chromosomes during cell division.
The nucleus-proximal centrioles start to separate and travel to the cell's opposite poles in animal cells. A spindle begins to develop in between the centrioles as they travel.
The spindle uses microtubule fibres to pull the chromosomes apart during cell division. In animal cells, microtubules, which are part of the cytoskeleton, produce spindle fibers that help pull apart chromosomes during cell division.
The spindle fibers attach to the kinetochores, structures found at the centromeres of the chromosomes, and help separate the chromosomes during cell division.
The spindle apparatus, which includes the microtubules and associated motor proteins, is essential for the proper segregation of chromosomes during cell division, ensuring that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes.
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calculate the minimum mass in milligrams of phenylalanine that the new system must be able to detect.
The minimum mass of milligrams of phenylalanine that the new system must be able to detect is 0.72 milligrams.
We are given:
Range of the equipment to detect phenylalanine in blood = 0.8 to 1.8 μg/dLMinimum amount of phenylalanine that can be detected= 0.8 μg/dLVolume of blood sample = 9.0 μLFirst. we change 0.8 to 1.8 μg/dL into μg/mL
0.8 to 1.8 × 100 = 80 to 180 μg/mL
Amount of phenylalanine in 9 μL sample of blood =
9 μL × 80 μg/mL = 720 μg/mL
720 μg = 0.72 mg (1 μg = 0.001 mg)
The minimum mass of phenylalanine that the new system must be able to detect is 0.72 milligrams.
Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can be seen in the Attachment.
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Why is it necessary for histones to make certain genes inaccessible at certain times?
A histone is a protein that provides structural support for a chromosome. Each chromosome contains a long molecule of DNA, which must fit into the cell nucleus.
What are the functions of histone proteins?Histone proteins are main structural components of the chromatin and major determinants of gene regulation. Expression of canonical histone genes is strictly controlled during the cell cycle in order to couple DNA replication with histone deposition.
Both DNA and histone proteins are prone to methylation, while acetylation is associated only with histones. These two modifications frequently govern the gene expression pattern in a cell by altering between transcriptional activation and repression.
Histones are highly alkaline proteins found in eukaryotic cell nuclei and play an important role in gene regulation. An active gene is less bound by histone, whereas an inactive gene is highly bound by histone.
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Replication is the synthesis of ______, while transcription is the synthesis of ______.
Replication is the synthesis of DNA whereas transcription is the synthesis of RNA.
In molecular biology, DNA replication is basically the biological process which involves the production of two identical replicas of DNA which are produced from one original or parent DNA molecule. DNA replication happens in all the living organisms and acts as the most essential part for biological inheritance.
Transcription is basically process which involves the copying of a particular segment of DNA into RNA. The segments of DNA get transcribed into RNA molecules which can encode proteins are said to produce the mRNA or the messenger RNA.
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which of the following statements about noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes is true? group of answer choices the noncompetitive inhibitor fits into the enzyme active site. the noncompetitive inhibitor and substrate can be bound to the enzyme at the same time. the noncompetitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme and causes the active site to change shape. noncompetitive inhibitors only bind to the enzyme when they are present in high concentrations. the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor would increase the amount of reaction products formed.
The true statement about non-competitive inhibitor is: (2) the noncompetitive inhibitor and substrate can be bound to the enzyme at the same time.
Non-competitive inhibitor is the one that binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site. The binding of inhibitor is irrespective of the binding of substrate and hence both can be bound to the enzyme at the same time. The inhibitor affects the turnover rate of the enzyme.
Enzymes are the biological catalysts that are proteinaceous in nature. They are present inside the living body and increase the rate of reaction into many folds.
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Select all of the following that are polymers, which are molecules composed of multiple monomers linked together. A. Protein B. Nucleic Acid C. Complex
A. Protein
B. Nucleic Acid
What is Protein and nucleic acid?
An important function of protein, a biomolecule made up of amino acids, in the body is to maintain structural integrity, control metabolic processes, and transport chemicals through cells and tissues. There are 20 different kinds of amino acids that may be put together in different ways to create an enormous variety of different proteins, each with a unique purpose.
A biomolecule called nucleic acid is essential for the preservation and expression of genetic information. Nucleic acids come in two primary categories: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). While RNA is essential for the transfer of genetic information from one living thing to another, DNA is the genetic material that carries the instructions for all living things.
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what is the name of the protein that travels in the phloem to shoot meristems and interacts with other proteins there to start the process of flower production? A. Flowering focus time B. Flowering locus c C. Cycloidea d. LEC1 Protein
it can be inferred that the name of the protein that travels in the phloem to shoot meristems and interacts with other proteins there to start the process of flower production is called Flowering locus
what is Flowering locus C?
Flowering Locus C (FLC) is a MADS-box gene that is important for vernalization in late-flowering Arabidopsis thaliana ecotypes. FLC is expressed in young seedlings, preventing blooming. When exposed to cold, less FLC is expressed (to varying degrees depending on the quantity of cold), and blooming becomes feasible. The blooming locus is heavily regulated by epigenetic changes and transcriptional regulation.
Vernalization is an adaptation process that ensures that blooming occurs only after winter (i.e., after cold conditions). This mechanism (vernalization) reduces the expression of genes that encode flowering repressors in some plants. Vernalization in Arabidopsis is linked to histone changes in the FLC chromatin. The FLOWERING LOCUS C (FLC) gene is a MADS-box gene that functions as a repressor.
The FLOWERING LOCUS C (FLC) gene is a MADS-box gene that works as a flowering repressor in Arabidopsis. The FLC gene's expression is regulated by epigenetic changes. Because of histone acetylation at FLC chromatin, the FLC gene is expressed at low temperatures, and hence the production of FLC mRNA transcripts ensures that the Arabidopsis plant cannot bloom. As a result, when the Arabidopsis plant is exposed to cold, FLC is inhibited by the buildup of trimethylation on histone 3 lysine 27 (H3K27me3), allowing it to blossom when temperatures rise.
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Determined by both genotype and environment. Alleles of a gene are typically located at the same ______ on homologous chromosomes
Alleles of a gene are typically located at the alleles of same gene on homologous chromosomes.
Homologous chromosomes are the pair of chromosomes that have the same genes in the same order. Homologous chromosomes come in pair because one chromosome in the brace is inherited from the mama and the other from the father. The chromosomes in each brace are analogous,
But not identical. Homologous chromosomes are important for the accurate separation of inheritable material during cell division, specifically during meiosis. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up and change inheritable material, which is known as recombination.
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15. the union of a pathologically exposed root with connective tissue or epithelium, where periodontitis previously destroyed the attachment : group of answer choices a) reattachment b) repair c) new attachment d) regeneration
The union of a pathologically exposed root with connective tissue or epithelium, where periodontitis previously destroyed the attachment is called as c)new attachment. So, correct option is c.
Epithelial tissue is one of the four primary kinds of body tissue tracked down in your organs and covers inward and outer surfaces in your body. It has a few distinct designs and works relying upon where it is in your body.
The epithelium is a sort of body tissue that shapes the covering on all inward and outer surfaces of your body, lines body pits and empty organs and is the significant tissue in organs. Epithelial tissue has different capabilities relying upon where it's situated in your body, including assurance, discharge and assimilation.
The organs in your body are made out of four essential kinds of tissue, including:
Epithelial.Connective.Strong.Anxious.All substances that enter or leave an organ should cross the epithelial tissue first.
Hence,correct option is c.
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which among a - c is false regarding endotoxin? a. it is found only in gram-negative bacteria b. the effect of endotoxin only occurs if the endotoxin-containing cells die and lyse. c. endotoxin is found in the inner (cytoplasmic) membrane d. none are false; a, b, and c are all correct
The incorrect regarding endotoxin is the effect of endotoxin only occurs if the endotoxin-containing cells die and lyse, because endotoxin is a lipopolysaccharide component of the Gram-negative bacteria cell and is released during active cellular growth and after cell lysis.
Thus, the correct answer is B.
Endotoxins аre the mаin component of the outer membrаne of the cell wаll of Grаm-negаtive bаcteriа. Typicаlly, the term endotoxin is used synonymously with lipopolysаcchаride (LPS), despite the fаct thаt а few endotoxins аre not LPS. The mаin function of endotoxins in bаcteriа is structurаl аnd protective.
Grаm-negаtive bаcteriа аre chаrаcterised by two membrаnes: the inner membrаne surrounds the cytoplаsmа whereаs the outer membrаne sepаrаtes the bаcteriаl cell wаll from the externаl environment. Thus, the outer membrаne serves аs the first line of defence аgаinst environmentаl threаts. In most cаses, the outer membrаne is not а common phospholipid bilаyer but аn аsymmetric bilаyer comprising LPS in the outer lаyer аnd phospholipids in the inner one
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natural selection can only act on traits that: are heritable. are dominant. are acquired in an individual's lifetime. confer a reproductive advantage. are adaptive.
Natural selection is the process through which heritable beneficial qualities grow more prevalent in succeeding generations of a population of reproducing organisms, while heritable negative traits become less common.
Natural selection operates on an organism's phenotype, or visible traits, so that individuals with favorable phenotypes are more likely to survive and reproduce than those with less desirable phenotypes.
If these characteristics have a genetic foundation, the genotype linked with the favorable phenotype will become more common in the following generation. This process can result in adaptations that specialize animals for certain ecological niches over time, and it may eventually result in the development of new species.
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adult males should consume about _____ of protein a day.
The adult males should consume around 56 grams of protein in a day from their diet.
Protein is a biomolecule made up of amino acids as the monomers. The proteins are synthesized in the cytoplasm upon the ribosomes which are also referred to as protein factory. The proteins play several roles like enzymatic, structural, transport, signaling, etc.
Diet is the type of foods a person consumes on a daily basis. A well-balanced diet is the one that consists of all the essential nutrients like proteins, carbohydrates, fats, fibers, and vitamins in the required quantities. There can be various forms of diets according to the body requirements.
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what is one way in which a cellular slime mold differs from a plasmodial slime mold?
Cellular slime molds and plasmodial slime molds are two distinct groups of organisms that belong to the phylum Myxomycota. One way in which they differ is in their form of multicellularity.
A cellular slime mold is composed of individual amoeba-like cells that come together to form a multicellular structure, called a pseudoplasmodium, in response to environmental stress, such as a lack of food.
The cells aggregate to form a mass that moves as a single entity and eventually forms a fruiting body, which produces spores that will eventually give rise to new amoeba-like cells.
On the other hand, plasmodial slime molds are characterized by a true multicellular stage, called the plasmodium, which is a large, amorphous, and undifferentiated mass of cytoplasm that contains many nuclei and moves as a single entity.
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according to darwin, the different species of finches of the galapagos islands were a group of
According to Darwin, the different species of finches of the Galapagos Islands were a group of closely related species evolving from one species.
Charles Darwin was a British naturalist who is best known for proposing the notion that natural selection drives the process of biological evolution. The concept that species change over time, give rise to new species and share a common ancestor is what Darwin referred to as evolution. He characterized evolution as "descent with modification."
Charles Darwin is credited with popularising the idea of "survival of the fittest" as a mechanism that underpins natural selection, which is the driving force behind the evolution of life. It has been found that organisms with genes that are more matched to the environment are more likely to survive and pass those genes on to the next generation.
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which of the following best describes how limestone is deposited? group of answer choices evaporation of water in a lake or sea accumulation of organisms composed of calcium carbonate deposition of fine grained sediment in a river accumulation of silica-rich organisms or mixing of seawater and groundwater
Accumulation of organisms composed of calcium carbonate best describes how limestone is deposited.
Calcium Carbonate and Its UsesCalcium carbonate or CaCO3 is naturally found in many rocks and minerals. It is a compound that is slightly soluble in water, so it leaches into the natural water system where it then hardens. Calcium carbonate is found in limestone and limestone. This compound is also the main component of the shells of marine organisms, snails, pearls and egg shells.
In the health sector, calcium carbonate is a useful supplement to provide calcium intake for people who do not get enough calcium from their diet. Calcium is an important mineral needed by the body for healthy bones, muscles, nervous system and heart.
This supplement can be used to treat conditions caused by low calcium levels. Examples include bone loss (osteoporosis), brittle bones (osteomalacia or rickets), decreased activity of the parathyroid glands (hypoparathyroidism), and certain muscle diseases (latent tetany).
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explain how new discoveries in genetics enabled scientists to expand on darwin's theory of evolution in the twenty-first century.
How new discoveries in genetics enabled scientists to expand on darwin's theory of evolution in the twenty-first century.
In the 21st century, advances in genetics have allowed scientists to expand upon Darwin's theory of evolution by providing new insights into the mechanisms of evolution. For example, genetic research has revealed the role of mutations, genetic drift, and gene flow in shaping the genetic makeup of populations over time. It has also shed light on the processes of speciation and the origin of new species. Additionally, studies of the human genome and other genomes have provided evidence for common ancestry and shown how evolution has shaped the development and diversity of life on earth. These new discoveries in genetics have enhanced our understanding of evolution and how it has shaped the natural world.
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identical copies of chromosomal dna held together by a common functional centromere are called
A sister chromatid is one that has two identical copies of a chromosome that are connected by a common centromere during chromosome DNA replication.
A dyad is a pair of sister chromatids. When all of the chromosomes in a cell are replicated during the synthesis (S) phase of interphase, a full set of sister chromatids is produced. During mitosis or the second division of meiosis, the two sister chromatids split apart into two distinct cells. Sister chromatids are the two distinct copies of a chromosome that diploid organisms (like humans) inherit, one from each parent. In contrast, homologous chromosomes are the same thing. Since sister chromatids are descended from a single original chromosome, they are essentially identical (carrying the same alleles, also known as variants or versions of genes).
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Intramembraneous ossification occurs throughout a lifetime.a. Trueb. False
The statement 'Intramembraneous ossification occurs throughout a lifetime is false.
What is the cell process of Intramembraneous ossification?The cell process of Intramembraneous ossification makes reference to the transformation of mesenchyme tissue to the bone tissue in the skull and this period starts before birth and ends in adolescence when the bones of the skull are fully developed.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the cell process of Intramembraneous ossification starts during the phase of fetal development and ends in adolescence, which is a process associated with the formation of the bones.
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The bonds between the anticodon of a tRNA molecule and the complementary codon of mRNA are A).catalyzed by aminoacyl tNRNA synthetase, B) Hydrogen bonds that form while the codon is in the A site, C) Formed by input of energy from ATP, D) catalyzed by peptidyl transferase
B) Hydrogen bonds that form while the codon is in the A site. The bonds between the anticodon of a tRNA molecule.
The complementary codon of mRNA are hydrogen bonds that form when the codon is in the A site of the ribosome during protein synthesis. These hydrogen bonds are important for maintaining the specificity of the codon-anticodon interaction and ensuring the proper incorporation of amino acids into the growing polypeptide chain. The formation of these hydrogen bonds does not require energy input from ATP or the anticodon action of an enzyme such as aminoacyl tRNA synthetase or peptidyl transferase. Instead, they are formed spontaneously as the ribosome moves along the mRNA, positioning the codon in the A site for recognition and pairing with the correct tRNA molecule.
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All of the bacteria we will use in lab are rated at which biosafety level?
All of the bacteria we will use in lab are rated at class 3 biosafety level. BSL 3 are designed to easily decontamination.
"Biosafety Levels" (BSLs) are categories used to categorise projects or activities carried out in laboratories in a rising sequence of containment, depending on the degree of health risk associated with the activity being done. The designations BSL-1, BSL-2, BSL-3, and BSL-4 indicate the minimal safe work practises, specifically designed structures, and safety equipment required to handle work involving pathogenic microbes and other biological dangers. Biosafety level 4 (BSL-4) is the highest. The project's appropriate BSL is determined by the institutional biosafety staff, biosafety committees, and the principal investigator. For research involving animals (ABSL), agriculture (BSL-Ag), and other subjects, there are additional particular regulations and classifications.
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tetanus and gangrene are deep tissue infections associated with tissue damage that limits circulation. with which type of bacteria would you expect these to be associated?
Deep tissue infections like tetanus and gangrene are linked to tissue damage that reduces circulation. These are anticipated to be related by anaerobic bacteria.
Bacteria that are anaerobic do not require oxygen to survive or develop. The gastrointestinal tract of humans is where these bacteria are most frequently discovered. They contribute to diseases like diverticulitis, appendicitis, and bowel perforation.
In the human body, anaerobic bacteria predominate among cultivable life forms. Although the role of these microbes as pathogens was well established at the turn of the 20th century, they are frequently disregarded, in part because clinical laboratories use recommended methods for anaerobe recovery and identification very inconsistently.
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Complete Question -
Tetanus and gangrene are deep tissue infections associated with tissue damage that limits circulation. With which type of bacteria would you expect these to be associated?
A - Anaerobic
B - Microaerophilic
C - Aerobic
which of the following statements about evolution is true? evolution can result in adaptations. individuals evolve within the span of their own lifetimes. evolution is deliberate and purposeful. organisms evolve structures in response to needs.
True. Adaptations may result from evolution. Biological fitness, which controls the rate of evolution as indicated by changes in allele frequencies, is related to adaptation.
Adaptations made by organisms to their altering environments are reflected in evolution, which can lead to altered genes, novel traits, and the emergence of new species. Both changes in genetic variability and shifts in allele frequencies over time affect evolutionary processes.
On a variety of scales, evolution can be studied. Microevolution is the gradual shift in DNA allele frequencies and sequences within a species. These alterations might be the result of mutations, which can repopulate a population with new alleles.
Additionally, gene flow—which takes place when two populations with distinct alleles breed—can introduce new alleles into a population. Macroevolution, in contrast to microevolution, reflects substantial changes at the species level that are brought about by the accumulation of a great number of minor changes at the microevolutionary scale.
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the organelle where energy is captured and stored in the chemical bonds of atp is a group of answer choices mitochondrion. nucleus. peroxisome. ribosome. golgi apparatus.
Organelle where energy is captured and stored in chemical bonds of ATP is the mitochondrion.
The organelle where energy is captured and stored in the chemical bonds of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the mitochondrion. The mitochondria are the powerhouses of the cell, where respiration takes place, producing ATP through the process of cellular respiration. This stored energy is then used by the cell to perform various organelle functions such as muscle contraction, transport of ions and molecules, and maintenance of ion gradients across membranes. Hence, the mitochondria play a crucial role in maintaining cellular energy balance and overall cellular function.
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The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is a?
A species is the biggest unit within which gene flow is most likely to take place.
Gene flow is the movement of genes from one group to another. Numerous factors have an effect on the gene flow. The largest population unit where easy gene flow is possible is a biological species. Within a species, effective interbreeding results in fruitful reproduction and, ultimately, gene flow. The basic unit of classification, taxonomic rank, and biodiversity for an organism is its species. A species is the largest group of beings in which any two individuals of the appropriate sexes or mating types may create a live kid, often through sexual reproduction. The karyotype, DNA sequence, morphology, behaviour, or ecological niche can all be used to identify a species.
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complete question:The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is ________.
A) a population
B) a species
C) the entire range of a genus
D) the hybrid zone
what is the function of an antibody? multiple choice question. to initiate blood clotting mechanisms to bind oxygen to catalyze chemical reactions to bind to an antigen and mark it for destruction
d. to bind to an antigen and mark it for destruction. The hemostasis mechanism is composed of four separate phases.
Blood vessel constriction is number one. 2) The development of a transient "platelet plug. 3) The coagulation cascade is activated. 4) The last clot, or "fibrin plug," forms. Specialized white blood cells called B lymphocytes create antibodies (or B cells). A clone is a collection of identical cells that is created when a B cell divides and matures in response to an antigen binding to the B cell surface. Heparin does not aid in blood coagulation. Basophils and mast cells naturally produce the anticoagulant heparin. Antiplatelets, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, stop platelets, which are blood cells, from congregating to form a clot.
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In a survey of a 46m² area, you count a total of 42 dandelions in 6 quadrats.
The quadrats have sides of 0.3m.
Determine the area covered by the quadrants.
Give your answer to 2 decimal places.
For each quadrant in the survey, area covered is 0.54m².
How are land surveys done?Land surveys are performed to determine the precise location and boundaries of a piece of land. This is usually done for purposes such as property disputes, land development, and building construction. These are done through research, fieldwork, mapping etc.
To complete the survey, surveyors use specialized equipment such as GPSs, prisms, software, radios, and robotic total stations.
The area covered by each quadrat is 0.3m x 0.3m = 0.09m².
So the total area covered by the 6 quadrants is 0.09m² x 6 = 0.54m².
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according to this phylogenetic tree, when did cladogenesis of the following occur?
a. From species D to species H and J about 6.5 million years ago
B. Species A split into Species F and I about 2.5 million years ago
C. Species A split into Species A and B about 11 million years ago
D. Type B of type B and type D about 8 million years ago
e. About 6.5 million years ago, from B species to B and E species
Anagenesis (also known as phylogenetic evolution) is the evolutionary change within a single lineage over time, and divergence is the divergence or diversification of lineages over time, giving rise to clades. Let Evolutionary stagnation refers to the lack of phylogenetic persistence and evolutionary change over long periods of time. Temporal. Most people perceive biodiversity in terms of species – groups of individual organisms that can interbreed. Examples of species include blue whales, white-tailed deer, white pine trees, sunflowers, and microscopic bacteria invisible to the eye.
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According to this phylogenetic tree, when did cladogenesis of the following occur?
a.species D into species H and J about 6.5 million years ago
b. species A into species F and I about 2.5 million years ago
c. species A into species A and B about 11 million years ago
d. species B into species B and D about 8 million years ago
e. species B into species B and E about 6.5 million years ago
In the plasma membrane of cells, the phospholipids are arranged in a?
A bilayer of phospholipids makes up the plasma membrane's fundamental composition. They are best for this function because they are amphipathic, or have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions.
The hydrophilic, or "water-loving," part of a phospholipid is its head, which includes a negatively charged phosphate group as well as an additional small group (of varying identity, "R" in the diagram at left), which may also or alternatively be charged or polar. In a membrane bilayer, phospholipids with hydrophilic heads that face outward come into contact with aqueous (watery) fluid both inside and outside the cell. Since water is a polar molecule, it easily interacts with the phospholipid heads electrostatically (based on charge). Water and other polar or charged substances cannot easily cross the hydrophobic core of the membrane, which results in the formation of the phospholipid bilayer, which serves as a good barrier between the interior and exterior of the cell.
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