The action that the nurse take when an older adult who was in a motor vehicle collision exhibits a decreased level of consciousness and serosanguineous drainage from the left ear is - Gently insert a cotton-tipped swab in the ear canal.
What is ear canal?The ear canal is a passage or tube that extends from the outer ear to the middle ear. It is also known as the external auditory canal, and it is responsible for conducting sound waves from the outer ear to the eardrum. The ear canal is lined with skin and is usually shaped like a "J" or a "U."
Therefore, Gently insert a cotton-tipped swab in the ear canal is correct opton.
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a blood collection system that has a retractable needle malfunctions and causes an injury to a patient. which of the following actions must be taken?
A blood collection system that has a retractable needle malfunctions and causes an injury to a patient. The action taken by the nurse is:
An incident report must be completed. Thus, option 2 is correct.
Who is a nurse?
Like doctors, nurses have a choice in their line of work. Some nurses receive training and do work to assist during surgery.Some nurses receive training to assist people in understanding health issues including sickness and nutrition (what to eat) (what can make people sick).Nurses are able to assist people in a variety of ways.Because there are not enough nurses to meet hospital needs, nurses are in high demand.In order to fill the gap left by this shortfall, nurses may go to another city to work for a few months in a practise known as travel nursing.To know more about nurse, click the link given below:
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Complete question:
A blood collection system that has a retractable needle malfunctions and causes an injury to a patient. which of the following actions must be taken?
The manufacturer of the device must be notifiedAn incident report must be completedDetermining what can be done to limit risk so that the event does not recurPerform a root cause analysisa 72-year-old hospital patient is explaining to the nurse that, after a long life of many proud accomplishments, he is ready to die. the nurse understands that the patient has met which developmental need?
-As per the nurse the patient has met his/her Integrity needs.
-If the elderly believe they have had great lives, they frequently reflect on their successes and cultivate integrity. If people believe they are unproductive or feel they haven't accomplished their life goals, despair sets in.
Stages of psychosocial development according to Erikson:
– fundamental trust vs. distrust (0-2)
autonomy vs. guilt and uncertainty (2-4)
initiative versus guild (4-5)
-Business versus inferiority (5-12)
-confusion between identity and role (13-19)
-closeness against solitude (20-24)
-creativity versus inertia (25-64)
-ego integrity vs. hopelessness (65-death)
When a 72-year-old hospital patient expresses that they are ready to die after a long life of many accomplishments, the nurse can understand that the patient has met their psychological need for ego integrity.
Ego integrity refers to a person's sense of satisfaction and coherence in their life as they approach the end of their life. A person who has lived a full life, achieved many of their goals and accomplishments, and has a sense of pride and fulfillment in their life may feel a sense of ego integrity.
At this stage of life, the need for ego integrity can become a priority, and the patient may feel that they are ready to die when they feel that their life has been fulfilling and meaningful. The nurse can provide emotional support and understanding as the patient navigates these feelings and prepare for the end of their life.
It is important for the nurse to be compassionate and non-judgmental in their approach and to respect the patient's autonomy and wishes regarding their care and treatment.
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A 72-year-old hospital patient is explaining to the nurse that, after a long life of many proud accomplishments, he is ready to die. The nurse understands that the patient has met which developmental need?
-Integrity
-Despair
-Isolation
-Autonomy
a 5-year-old patient has a patient-controlled analgesia (pca) for pain management after abdominal surgery. what information does the nurse include in teaching the parents about the pca?
Nurse should explain PCA how to use the device, the effects and side effects of the medication, what to do if side effects occur, and the importance of using it as directed.
A patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) is a type of pain management that allows the patient to control the amount of pain medication they receive. When teaching the parents of a 5-year-old patient about PCA, the nurse should provide them with clear and concise information about how to use the device, including the button to press and how often the medication can be given. The nurse should also discuss the potential effects and side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness, nausea, and constipation, and what to do if these side effects occur. They should also emphasize the importance of using the PCA as directed, as taking too much medication can lead to serious health problems, such as respiratory depression.
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the nurse determines that a patient with which disorder is most at risk for spreading the condition? a. tinea pedis b. impetigo on the face c. candidiasis of the nails d. psoriasis on the palms and soles
The condition known as b. facial impetigo is most likely to spread among nurses.
A disorder is what?
Infants and young children are susceptible to impetigo, a common and highly contagious skin condition. It typically appears as reddish sores on the face, especially around the mouth and nose, as well as the hands and feet. Over the course of about a week, the lesions burst, producing honey-colored crusts.
Impetigo is a skin infection caused by either one or both of the group A Streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus bacteria. The group A strep infection that causes impetigo is the main topic of this page.
Impetigo is an infection that can be brought on by streptococcus or staphylococcus bacterial strains. After a lull in the
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after reviewing the psychosocial implications following a disaster, the nurse is assigned to care for a client who has just witnessed a mass shooting. upon obtaining subjective information from the client, which actions would the nurse take? select all that apply
The nurse is tasked with providing care for a client who just witnessed a mass shooting. She must remain composed and comforting.
What are nursing implications for a disaster?Nurses activate the disaster plan in their hospitals, triage cases, administer emergency care to hurt people, and assist in coordinating patient transportation to other medical institutions during response, the most crucial stage of disaster management.
With a red tag, which client condition should the nurse prioritise?The victim's condition and current treatment needs are indicated by four color-coded triage tags: Red flag The most critical requirement for treatment is indicated by a red marking.
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what blood type should be transfused when crisis does not permit time to collect and test a patient sample?
O negative blood type should be transfused when crisis does not permit time to collect and test a patient sample as is universal donor.
O-negative blood should be transfused. O- negative is the universal blood type and is compatible with all other blood types, making it the safest option in an exigency situation. O-negative blood doesn't contain any antigens, which are substances that could lead to an vulnerable response if inharmonious blood types are mixed.
This means that O-negative blood can be safely given to any case, anyhow of their blood type. O-negative blood is the only blood type that can be safely given to a case without first testing the case's blood type. It's also the only type of blood that can be safely given to a invigorated baby whose blood type is unknown.
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an occupational health nurse working with police officers wishes to apply selye's general adaptation syndrome theory in practice. which concept should the nurse apply?
The concept that nurses must apply in applying Selye's general condition syndrome theory in practice is the alarm stage involves the release of cortisol and catecholamines.
An example of the alarm stage is the warning response phase, during which glucocorticoids trigger the release of adrenaline and cortisol, which are stress hormones. Adrenaline gives a person energy. His heart beat faster and his blood pressure rose. At the same time, blood sugar rises.
The alarm phase is usually short-lived. Typically, the adrenaline rush lasts from a few minutes to several hours, followed by a decrease in adrenaline, cortisol, and other adrenal hormones lasting from several hours to several days, depending on stress levels.
So, an occupational health nurse working with police officers will implement the alarm stage involving the release of cortisol and catecholamines.
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the nurse is educating a client from another country about the medications they will be taking. the client continually interrupts the nurse during the conversation. when the nurse considers the many ways cultural differences can affect communication, how should the nurse interpret the client's interruptions?
The patient is deeply engaged in the conversation .
When performing a cultural assessment on a client from another country, what can a nurse do to ensure the client receives culturally sensitive care?
Show genuine interest in the client's culture and personal life experiences.
What actions should the nurse take to become culturally competent?
A few key traits include:
Speaking in terms that are easy for the patient to follow and understand.
Not judging or disregarding a patient's belief and religious background, but encouraging them to do what works best for them.
Empathizing with the patient at all times.
What communication strategies can nurses use when they are working with someone from another culture?
The LEARN (Listen, Explain, Acknowledge, Recommend, Negotiate) model is a framework for cross-cultural communication that helps build mutual understanding and enhance patient care.
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the parent of an adolescent who has taken methylphenidate 20 mg/day for 6 months for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adhd) brings the child to clinic for evaluation of a recent onset of nausea, vomiting, and headaches. the parent expresses concern that the child seems less focused and more hyperactive than before. what will the nurse do next?
The nurse will assess the child's current symptoms and review their medication history.
They will also assess the child's current level of attention and hyperactivity and will ask the parent questions about any changes they have noticed in their child's behavior.
What is hyperactivity?
Hyperactivity is a condition characterized by excessive restlessness and activity. It is often associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Symptoms may include difficulty focusing, talking excessively, fidgeting, and interrupting others.
Therefore, The nurse will assess the child's current symptoms and review their medication history.
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the nurse is planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus (di). which intervention made by the nurse requires correction?
A) Administering a dose of insulin - This requires correction as insulin is not used to treat diabetes insipidus (DI). DI is treated with antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
What is insulin?Insulin is a hormone that is produced in the pancreas and is responsible for regulating the body’s glucose levels. It is essential for the body to maintain a healthy balance of glucose in the bloodstream, which is used for energy. Insulin helps the body absorb glucose into the cells for energy and also helps store glucose for future use. Without sufficient amounts of insulin, the body cannot use glucose properly, leading to a dangerous rise in blood sugar levels. Without insulin, the body cannot survive, which is why it is so important for people with diabetes to monitor and manage their insulin levels.
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Complete question:
The nurse is planning care for a patient with diabetes insipidus (di). which intervention made by the nurse requires correction?
Administering a dose of insulinMonitoring fluid intake and outputAdminister hypertonic saline solution slowlyGrowth hormone levels are elevatedthe nurse is preparing to insert a venous access device into a newly admitted 75-year-old patient. which vein is not an inappropriate choice for iv insertion in this patient?
C. Superficial dorsal vein. Avoid picking a location near areas of flexion, tenderness to the touch, compromised veins caused by bruises, infiltration, phlebitis, sclerosis, or cord formation.
Also areas where scheduled procedures will take place. The antecubital fossa, the back of the hand, or the forearm are the most typical locations for an IV catheter. Although the simplest available site is not necessarily the best, catheters for peripheral usage should be inserted in veins that are accessible and have good blood flow. The vein will swell when a tourniquet is applied, highlighting the location of the IV catheter's intended insertion point and enabling the nurse to assess its suitability.
The complete question is:
The nurse is preparing to insert a venous access device into a newly admitted 75-year-old patient. Which vein is not an inappropriate choice for IV insertion in this patient?
A. Basilic vein
B. Cephalic vein
C. Superficial dorsal vein
D. Median cubital vein
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when the client who has experienced trauma to an extremity reports severe burning pain, vasomotor changes, and muscles spasms in the injured extremity, the nurse recognizes that the client is likely demonstrating signs of
The nurse is aware that the patient is most likely exhibiting symptoms of complicated regional pain syndrome.
Client is the name of who?The client. 1 individual who has registered with a welfare agency or is a recipient of services or financial help from one. computer software or a workstation that communicates with a server to seek data or information
Describe a client as an example.If you purchase a cup of coffee from a cafe stall at the train station, you are the business's customer. But in cases when there are credit terms, the proprietor of the coffee stand is the supplier's customer. Or, to put it another way, because of their agreement, the proprietor of the coffee stand is a client of the coffee provider.
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When conducting the initial assessment of an elderly patient admitted to the hospital with diabetes mellitus, the nurse can ask the following questions to obtain data regarding the patient's cognitive perceptual pattern: "Can you tell me about your daily routine and activities?"
Who is nurse?According to Merriam-Webster, nurses are certified healthcare professionals who practice independently or under the supervision of a physician, surgeon, or dentist and are experienced in promoting and preserving health. Nurses are present in every community, large and small, providing competent care from birth to death. Nurses' responsibilities span from direct patient care and case management to implementing quality assurance processes and overseeing complicated nursing care systems. Nurses treat injuries, dispense prescriptions, do regular medical exams, document complete medical histories, monitor heart rate and blood pressure, run diagnostic tests, handle medical equipment, draw blood, and admit/discharge patients as directed by physicians.
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a patient has begun therapy for parkinson's disease that includes carbidopa-levodopa and benztropine, but the pharmacotherapy has made the patient's dyskinesia worse. which information should the nurse include in patient teaching? (select all that apply.)
The nurse should discontinue benztropine because it is causing the dyskinesia worse.
Does benztropine cause dyskinesia?
The drug benzatropine, also known as benztropine in the US and Japan, is used to treat extrapyramidal adverse effects of antipsychotics, such as akathisia, as well as movement disorders such parkinsonism and dystonia. In the case of tardive dyskinesia, it is useless.
Benztropine may exacerbate tardive dyskinesia in those who already have it. The face and jaw move involuntarily as a result of tardive dyskinesia. It results from using other medicines, including phenothiazines. Benztropine may make glaucoma symptoms worse in glaucoma patients (an eye disease that can cause blindness).
Hence, the nurse should discontinue benztropine because it is causing the dyskinesia worse.
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which principle of fitness states that acute training variables must be changed periodically to prevent plateaus, injuries, and boredom?
For training regimens to avoid plateaus, overuse injuries, ennui, and burnout, the acute factors must be altered.
What is injuries ?
An injury is any physiological harm to living tissue brought on by sudden physical stress. Burning, toxic exposure, asphyxiation, blunt trauma, penetrating trauma, asphyxiation, overexertion, and asphyxiation are some of the possible causes of injury.
What is acute training ?
The TRIMP measure (7-day TRIMP sum) is used to calculate acute training load, which gives a total of all training from the previous week. To enable accurate findings across various sports, it is individually scaled based on measurement history.
Therefore, For training regimens to avoid plateaus, overuse injuries, ennui, and burnout, the acute factors must be altered.
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a client arrives at the emergency department after sustaining an ankle injury, and the health care provider (hcp) prescribes the application of a cold compress to the ankle. the nurse, preparing to apply the compress, assesses the ankle and notes that it is extremely edematous. the nurse should take which action?
The nurse should inform the HCP of the increased edema and ask for further instructions.
What do you mean by edema?
Edema is a condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of fluids in the body's tissue, which can cause swelling and discomfort. It is most commonly caused by a buildup of fluid in the feet, ankles, and legs, but can also affect other body parts, including the face and hands.
The cold compress may not be appropriate for the level of edema present and alternative treatments may be necessary. In this case, if the patient is showing an increase in edema, the nurse should inform the HCP so that they can assess the situation and provide further instructions for care. This could include additional tests or treatments to address the edema, so it is important that the nurse reports the change in condition as soon as possible.
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a public health nurse is teaching the community about health promotion. which information should the nurse include for innate immunity? innate immunity includes:
A public health nurse is teaching the community about health promotion. The nurse should include for innate immunity that it is gained at birth.
One of vertebrate's two primary immune defense mechanisms, together with the adaptive immune system, is the innate, or nonspecific, immune system. Innate immunity is a different form of defence and the primary immune response in plants, fungi, insects, and early multicellular creatures (see Beyond vertebrates).
The primary roles of the innate immune system are to identify and remove foreign substances present in organs, tissues, blood, and lymph by specialized white blood cells, activate the complement cascade to identify bacteria, activate cells, and promote clearance of antibody complexes or dead cells, and recruit immune cells to infection sites through the production of chemical factors, including chemical mediators called cytokines.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who takes digoxin to treat heart failure. the provider orders furosemide to treat edema. the nurse will monitor the patient for digitalis toxicity because of
The nurse will monitor the patient for digitalis toxicity because of changes in reabsorption of water and electrolytes in the kidneys. The correct option to this question is C.
Drug-drug interactions Furosemide and other diuretics encourage sodium, potassium, and water excretion from the renal tubules. Digitalis poisoning can happen as a result of hypokalemia, which will make digoxin work more effectively.Digoxin is frequently prescribed to people with heart failure who also take drugs referred to as diuretics. These medications eliminate extra fluid from the body. Numerous diuretics may result in potassium depletion. The risk of digitalis poisoning can rise when the body has low potassium levels.If at all feasible, avoid using digoxin and diuretics together. One of the most frequent drug-drug interactions (DDI) seen in the therapeutic context is the interaction between digoxin and diuretics.For more information on diuretic and digoxin kindly visit to
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Complete question : The nurse is caring for a patient who takes digoxin to treat heart failure. The provider orders furosemide to treat edema. The nurse will monitor the patient for digitalis toxicity because of
a. adverse drug reactions caused by giving these drugs in combination.
b. altered hepatic blood flow caused by the furosemide.
c. changes in reabsorption of water and electrolytes in the kidneys.
d. additive effects of these two drugs given together.
how long will it take you to travel from the gate to baggage claim if you walk while riding on the moving sidewalk?
Answer:
Explanation:
The speed of the moving sidewalk: Moving sidewalks typically run at a speed between 0.5-1.4 meters per second, with an average speed of around 1 meter per second.Your walking speed: The average walking speed for a human is around 1.4 meters per second.The distance between the gate and baggage claim: The length of the moving sidewalk will vary depending on the airport, but they can range from a few meters to several hundred meters.Given the above information, the time it will take you to travel from the gate to baggage claim while riding on the moving sidewalk will depend on the speed of the sidewalk and the distance between the two points. If the speed of the sidewalk is less than your average walking speed, you may choose to walk rather than ride, which would likely take you less time. If the speed of the sidewalk is greater than your walking speed, it would likely be faster to ride rather than walk. However, the exact time it would take can not be determined without more specific information.
what percent of adults have difficulty using the everyday health information that is routinely available in health care facilities, retail outlets, media, and communities?
90% of adults with difficulty use everyday health information that is routinely available in healthcare facilities, retail outlets, media, and communities.
Two decades of research show that today's health information is presented in ways that are inaccessible to most Americans. Nearly 9 out of 10 adults have difficulty accessing everyday health information that is routinely available in health services, stores, media, and communities.
Without clear information and understanding of how to prevent and self-medicate this disease, people tend to neglect necessary medical tests. They are also more likely to be in the emergency room and struggling to manage a chronic condition such as diabetes or high blood pressure.
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based on susan's assessment data and history, you identify which of the following as a priority nursing diagnosis for susan at this time?
We discover a deficient fluid volume linked to a fluid intake that is insufficient based on Susan's assessment data and history. as a top nursing concern at this time for Susan.
Fluid Volume:
Dehydration, also known as fluid volume depletion, is a frequent condition that many patients experience and is treatable by nurses. Excessive water loss from the body results in dehydration. The result is a dehydration of the body's cells and blood vessels. The reason for this is because the body excretes more water than it takes in.
Nursing Assessment of Fluid Deficiency
1. Conduct a thorough, head-to-toe assessment:
When making clinical judgments to assist determine the cause of dehydration, this enables caregivers to evaluate the whole individual and bring together all the facts.
2. Rate recording and output:
This allows caregivers to obtain objective data to determine the patient's net fluid loss.
3. Evaluate vital signs:
Vital signs may be abnormal with dehydration (i.e., tachycardia and/or hypotension).
4. Evaluate laboratory values:
We refer to this as In light of Susan's assessment (3 cm dilated, 80% of her past erased, and fetal position at zero), as well as your examination of her data, Nursing Diagnoses Types:
1. A diagnostic with a problem-focused approach.
You position Susan's torso where it is indicated on your appraisal for the ultrasonography transmitter. There are several reasons why the overall heart rate has improved. These include looking for shortening and thinning.
2. Nursing risk identification. When risk factors necessitate the nurse's intervention, a risk factors is done in nursing.
3. Health promotion "A conclusion drawn from a skillful evaluation process" is what a nurse assessment is.
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Complete Question:
Based on Susan's assessment data and history, you identify which of the following as a priority nursing diagnosis for Susan at this time?
what items should the nurse have available when a client recovers after a thyroidectomy? select all that apply.
The nurse should have the following items available when a client recovers after a thyroidectomy:
1. Painkillers prescribed by a doctor, such as acetaminophen, ibuprofen, or opioids. The client may have pain or discomfort, which these drugs might assist control.
2. Sterile gauze and tape to keep the area around the wound tidy and dry.
3. An antibiotic cream or ointment to assist prevent infection of the wound.
4. A plush pillow to support the client's neck and keep it in a cosy position.
5. A warm compress to ease pain and swelling in the neck region.
6. A cool compress to help the patient's fever if it arises.
7. An instrument to measure the client's temperature.
8. A tidy, non-stick dressing for the dish
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a group of people arrives at the emergency department reporting extreme periorbital swelling, cough, shortness of breath, and tightness in the throat. they report that someone threw a bomb that exploded at their feet. what is the best action by the nurse?
The first course of action is to lead the clients to the decontamination area after they have been exposed to a "gas bomb" that was detonated in their home.
When an initial survey of a trauma client is undertaken, what is viewed as one of the priorities?Which of the following is given priority while completing a primary survey on a trauma patient? The initial survey includes a brief neurologic evaluation to ascertain degree of awareness and pupil response.
What constitutes the initial stage of a primary assessment in an emergency?The initial three actions in every emergency requiring rescue or first aid... Evaluate, Alert, and Attend Examine / Survey the Situation If you damage yourself while performing a rescue, you are of no assistance to the victim.
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Question:
A group of people arrive at the ED by private care reporting extreme periorbital swelling, cough and tightness in the throat. There is a string odor emanating from their clothes. They report exposure to a "gas bomb" that was set off in their house. What is the priority action?
a. measure vital signs and listen to lung sounds.
b. direct the clients to the decontamination area
c. instruct clients to don personal protective equipment.
d. direct the clients to the cold or clean zone for immediate treatment
a nurse is educating several unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) about a dietary prescription for clear liquids. which selections by the uap indicate to the nurse an understanding of a clear liquid diet?
Lemon jello, Sprite, Banana popsicle are Correct: These are considered clear liquids. You can see through them. The banana popsicle and lemon jello in a liquid state can be seen through.
A clear liquid diet is typically a type of dietary prescription that includes liquids that are clear and translucent, and do not contain solid particles. To indicate understanding of a clear liquid diet, UAP could demonstrate knowledge of the following items:
Examples of acceptable clear liquids: water, clear broths, frozen water or ice pops, clear fruit juices (without pulp), clear soda, clear gelatins, tea or coffee without milk or cream.
Foods and liquids that are not considered part of a clear liquid diet, such as milk, cream, and other opaque liquids.
The purpose of a clear liquid diet, which is usually to provide hydration, provide basic electrolytes and nutrients, or to prepare for a medical procedure.
If the UAP can explain the above points, then it would indicate that they have a basic understanding of the dietary prescription for a clear liquid diet.
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A nurse is discussing with several unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) about a dietary prescription for clear liquids. Which selections by the UAP indicate to the nurse an understanding of a clear liquid diet?
1. Vanilla custard
2. Lemon jello
3. Tomato juice
4. Sprite
5. Banana popsicle
when preparing discharge instructions for the parents of an infant who has been diagnosed with hypospadias, the nurse should include which instruction in the teaching plan? select all that apply.
Clean the outside of the dressing carefully with soapy watergets on it.
I have been using an IUD for 3 years and have not gotten pregnant. Why do I need another method of birth control now?
a-Any method of birth control can fail.
b-Using two methods of birth control all the time drastically reduces the chance that you will get pregnant.
c-Most female patients who got pregnant during isotretinoin treatment were using only 1 method of birth control.
d-All of these.
All of these reasons are true you might consider using another form of birth control in the addition of your IUD therefore the correct option is D.
Any method of birth control can fail, and using two methods of birth control all the time drastically reduces the chance that you will get pregnant. This is especially true if you're taking isotretinoin, a drug used to treat acne, as studies have shown that utmost womanish cases who got pregnant during isotretinoin treatment were using only 1 system of birth control.
It's important to flash back that there's no system of birth control that's 100 effective and that using multiple styles of birth control is the stylish way to help an unwanted gestation. Talk to your doctor about your options and find a combination of birth control styles that works stylish for you.
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a patient presents with all the symptoms of hypothyroidism. blood tests show elevated plasma trh but depressed plasma tsh and th. the etiology (source of the problem) is the , which is .
Answer is C and E respectively. adenohypophysis and under secreting. An endocrine system illness called hypothyroidism occurs when the thyroid gland does not create enough thyroid hormone. Numerous symptoms, including an inability to tolerate cold, weariness, weight gain, menstrual irregular etc., may result from it.
TSH test, or thyroid-stimulating hormone. The most crucial and exact test for hypothyroidism is this one. It calculates the amount of thyroxine (T4) the thyroid gland is required to produce. The thyroid gland is being urged to produce more T4 since there isn't enough T4 in the blood when the TSH is too high, which indicates hypothyroidism.
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Question- A patient presents with all the symptoms of hypothyroidism. Blood tests show elevated plasma TRH but depressed plasma TSH and TH. The etiology (source of the problem) is the____, which is _____.
A. hypothalamus
B. thyroid
C. adenohypophysis
D. oversecreting
E. under secreting
a nurse is completing an informed consent on a client preparing for a tubal ligation. which statement by the client would require the nurse to notify the health care provider?
A nurse is completing an informed consent on a client preparing for a tubal ligation. The statement by the client would require the nurse to notify the health care provider is "I will be able to have my third child in about a year from now."
The fallopian tubes are permanently plugged, cut, or removed during a surgical operation called a tubal ligation, also referred to as having one's "tubes tied." This stops sperm from fertilising eggs, which then stops a fertilised egg from being implanted. A permanent form of sterilization and birth control is tubal ligation.
The main goal of female sterilization with tubal ligation is to prevent future spontaneous pregnancies (as opposed to pregnancies achieved through in vitro fertilisation) for the patient. While hysterectomy (the removal of the uterus) and bilateral oophorectomy (the removal of both ovaries) are equally capable of achieving this goal, these procedures often come with higher health concerns than tubal ligation methods.
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A nurse is completing an informed consent on a client preparing for a tubal ligation. Which statement by the client would require the nurse to notify the health care provider?
"I may need to use a second form of contraception for a while."
"I will continue to have my menstrual cycle every month."
"I will not be able to have children after this procedure."
"I will be able to have my third child in about a year from now."
what term best describes a physical examination test that yields the same result on different examination days in a patient whose status has remained constant.
Reliable is the term that best describes a physical examination test that yields the same result on different examination days in a patient whose status has remained constant.
During a physical examination, medical examination, or clinical examination, a medical practitioner looks for any possible medical signs or symptoms of a medical disease. It usually includes of a series of inquiries regarding the patient's medical history, followed by an examination depending on the symptoms stated. The medical history and physical examination both contribute to the development of a diagnosis and treatment strategy. These details are then added to the medical record.
Laboratory tests, chest x-rays, pulmonary function testing, audiograms, whole body CAT scans, EKGs, cardiac stress tests, vascular age tests, urinalysis, and mammograms or prostate examinations, depending on gender, are common components of comprehensive physical exams.
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when teaching a client with rheumatic carditis and a history of recurrent rheumatic fever, which statement by the client indicates that teaching has been successful?
The statement by the client with rheumatic carditis and a history of recurrent rheumatic fever that indicates successful teaching is: (b) "I may have to take prophylactic antibiotics for up to 10 years."
Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that arise when the strep throat or scarlet fever are not properly treated. It results in the inflammation of heart, blood vessels and joints.
Prophylactic antibiotics are the antibiotics prescribed before any operative procedure. Prophylaxis refers to the treatment given to treat some disease. Antibiotics can either kill the pathogens or slow down their growth inside the body which results in lowering of the symptoms of the disease
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
When teaching a client with rheumatic carditis and a history of recurrent rheumatic fever, which statement by the client indicates that teaching has been successful?
a. "I will avoid milk, yogurt, and other dairy products."
b. "I may have to take prophylactic antibiotics for up to 10 years."
c. "I will take a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication every day."
d. "I will avoid any kind of activity."
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what should the clinician do if she notices that the patient is developing a hematoma? group of answer choices apply direct pressure immediately. apply heat immediately. advise patient that swelling and discoloration will disappear within 1 to 2 months. all options listed.
The clinician should apply direct pressure immediately if she notices that the patient is developing a hematoma. Hence, Option A is the correct answer.
What do we mean by hematoma?A blood clot that forms in an organ, tissue, or area of the body. Hematomas are frequently caused by a blood vessel that has been broken as a result of surgery or trauma. It can happen anywhere in the body, including the brain.
Hematomas may be cause for concern. They can be extremely dangerous, and if large enough, they may lower blood pressure. They may even cause shock, a potentially fatal condition caused by a lack of blood or oxygen to the body's organs. Hematomas usually go away on their own, shrinking gradually as the blood that has accumulated inside them is absorbed. A large hematoma may not disappear completely for several months.
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