The nurse is aware that the patient is most likely exhibiting symptoms of complicated regional pain syndrome.
Client is the name of who?The client. 1 individual who has registered with a welfare agency or is a recipient of services or financial help from one. computer software or a workstation that communicates with a server to seek data or information
Describe a client as an example.If you purchase a cup of coffee from a cafe stall at the train station, you are the business's customer. But in cases when there are credit terms, the proprietor of the coffee stand is the supplier's customer. Or, to put it another way, because of their agreement, the proprietor of the coffee stand is a client of the coffee provider.
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When conducting the initial assessment of an elderly patient admitted to the hospital with diabetes mellitus, the nurse can ask the following questions to obtain data regarding the patient's cognitive perceptual pattern: "Can you tell me about your daily routine and activities?"
Who is nurse?According to Merriam-Webster, nurses are certified healthcare professionals who practice independently or under the supervision of a physician, surgeon, or dentist and are experienced in promoting and preserving health. Nurses are present in every community, large and small, providing competent care from birth to death. Nurses' responsibilities span from direct patient care and case management to implementing quality assurance processes and overseeing complicated nursing care systems. Nurses treat injuries, dispense prescriptions, do regular medical exams, document complete medical histories, monitor heart rate and blood pressure, run diagnostic tests, handle medical equipment, draw blood, and admit/discharge patients as directed by physicians.
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you are examining a split-brain patient. after flashing a picture of a bird in the patient's left visual field, which response are you likely to get? group of answer choices
Split-brain is a condition where the corpus callosum, the structure connecting the two hemispheres of the brain, is surgically divided to treat certain types of epilepsy.
In a split-brain patient, information from each visual field is processed mainly by the opposite hemisphere of the brain. So, if a picture of a bird is flashed in the patient's left visual field, the information would be processed by the right hemisphere, which is known to be dominant for spatial processing and nonverbal information.
The patient would not be able to verbally describe the picture, but might respond with a pointing gesture towards an object representing the bird (e.g., a picture of a cage). This demonstrates that each hemisphere of the brain in a split-brain patient can operate independently and have their own unique perceptions and responses.
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a 4-unit crossmatch is ordered on a patient for emergency surgery. the patients blood type is group b positive. the blood bank inventory only contains 2 b positive packed red blood cells. what other type is abo compatible with this patient?
O negative blood is compatible with this.
What is blood?
Proteins, glucose, mineral ions, hormones, carbon dioxide (plasma is the principal medium for excretory product movement), and blood cells themselves are all found in plasma, which makes up 55% of blood fluid and is 92% water by volume. The primary protein in plasma, albumin, controls the blood's colloidal osmotic pressure. [Reference needed] Red blood cells (commonly known as RBCs or erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and in mammals platelets make up the majority of the blood cells (also called thrombocytes). These have hemoglobin, a protein that contains iron and speeds up the delivery of oxygen by reversibly binding to it and boosting its solubility in blood.To know more about blood, click the link given below:
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the nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral arterial insufficiency. what can the nurse suggest to help relieve leg pain during rest?
The nurse can suggest elevating the legs above the heart to reduce swelling and pain, and taking regular walks to improve blood circulation.
What is blood circulation?
Blood circulation is the process by which blood is transported throughout the body. Oxygen-rich blood is pumped from the heart to the body's tissues, and deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart to be re-oxygenated. The blood is carried through a network of vessels including arteries, veins, and capillaries. This ensures that oxygen and nutrients are supplied to the cells, and waste products are removed.
Therefore, The nurse can suggest elevating the legs above the heart to reduce swelling and pain, and taking regular walks to improve blood circulation.
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the nurse is educating a patient at risk for atherosclerosis. what nonmodifiable risk factor does the nurse identify for the patient?
Saturated fat consumption, high cholesterol, and triglyceride levels, high blood pressure, smoking, diabetes, obesity, and high blood pressure are all potential risk factors for atherosclerosis.
The hardening or thickening of the arteries due to atherosclerosis. Plaque buildup in an artery's inner lining is what causes it. As the plaque builds up in the artery, symptoms of atherosclerosis may appear gradually or not at all. The affected artery may also have different effects on symptoms. However, the signs and symptoms of a major artery blockage can be severe, similar to those of a heart attack, stroke, or blood clot.
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a patient with myasthenia gravis comes to the emergency department in respiratory distress. he has been diagnosed with myasthenic crisis. the nurse anticipates administration of which drug?
The right option is C. Myasthenic crisis can be treated with neostigmine, a short-acting acetylcholinesterase (cholinesterase) inhibitor. The drug edrophonium (Tensilon) is most frequently used to distinguish between myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis; baclofen and diazepam are muscle relaxants and anxiolytics, respectively.
A readily reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is edrophonium. It works by competitively inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, primarily at the neuromuscular junction, to stop the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Tensilon and Enlon are the brand names used to market it.
Myasthenia gravis, which causes extreme muscle weakness, can be diagnosed by edrophonium injection, which may also be used to determine the best course of treatment. Additionally, it is used to undo the effects of some muscle relaxants (such as gallamine and tubocurarine) after an overdose or during surgery. An anticholinesterase agent is edrophonium.
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Q) A patient with myasthenia gravis comes to the emergency department in respiratory distress. To determine if the patient is in myasthenic crisis or cholinergic crisis, the nurse anticipates administration of which drug?
a) Diazepam (Valium)
b) Baclofen (Lioresal)
c) Edrophonium (Tensilon)
d) Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
the nurse is discussing urinary tract infections (uti's) in children with a group of peers. which fact is the most accurate regarding urinary tract infection seen in children?
The most accurate fact about urinary tract infection in children is that it is common in children aged 2 to 6 years old.
Urinary tract infection or UTI is an infection that happens in any part of the urinary system. Its symptoms are pain or burning sensation while urinating, frequent urination, and bloody urine. It may happen to anyone at any age, though it is more common to happen in women.
For children, UTIs are fairly common in the diaper age, in infancy, and in children between the ages of 2 and 6 years. In this case, the infection is usually caused by germs from the digestive tract that enter the urethra and travels up.
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fill in the blank. natural killer (nk) cells___.group of answer choicesare a type of phagocycan kill cancer cells before the immune system is activatedare also called cytotoxic t cellsare cells of the adaptive immune syste
Natural killer (nk) cells lymphocytes is type of phagocycan kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated are also called cytotoxic t cellsare cells of the adaptive immune system.
What is white blood cells ?
The body's immune system includes white blood cells. They aid the body in the battle against illness and infection. The three different types of white blood cells are lymphocytes, monocytes, and granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils) (T cells and B cells).
What is cancer cells ?
The uncontrolled division of cancer cells can result in solid tumours or an overabundance of aberrant cells in the blood and lymph. The body uses cell division, a regular process, for growth and repair. A parent cell divides to create two daughter cells, and these daughter cells are employed to create new tissue or to replace cells that have died due to ageing or disease.
Therefore, Natural killer (nk) cells is a type of white blood cells.
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Complete question:
fill in the blank. Natural killer (nk) cells___. Group of answer choicesare a type of phagocy can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated are also called cytotoxic t cellsare cells of the adaptive immune system.
lymphocytesbasophilsBladder Cancer ·Acute Leukemiaa nurse has administered a scheduled dose of naproxen to a hospital client who has been taking the drug for several weeks. what assessment finding should cause the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing adverse effects of long-term therapy?
The correct option is B, that is the patient's stool tests positive for occult blood and the nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing adverse effects of naproxen drug treatment.
A prominent side effect of naproxen is gastrointestinal bleeding. Leukocytosis, dry skin, or fluid imbalances are not usual side effects of this medication. NSAIDs are among the most often prescribed medications in the world, and it is well acknowledged that they have good therapeutic effects. They are connected to gastrointestinal side effects, though. NSAIDs can cause a variety of lesions across the whole GI system. A significant GI problem during therapy was experienced by 1 to 2 percent of NSAID users. The existence of many risk factors, such as advanced age, a history of a severe peptic ulcer, concurrent aspirin or anticoagulant use, as well as the kind and dose of NSAID, affects the relative risk of upper GI problems among NSAID users.
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The complete question is:
A nurse has administered a scheduled dose of naproxen to a hospital patient who has been taking the drug for several weeks. What assessment finding should cause the nurse to suspect that the patient is experiencing adverse effects of this drug treatment?
A. The patient complains of itchy, dry skin.
B. The patient's stool tests positive for occult blood.
C. There is an increase in the patient's neutrophils but no increase in temperature.
D. The patient has peripheral edema and there is a steady increase in the patient's weight.
a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation. which equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at this client's bedside? select all that apply.
A COPD patient on mechanical ventilation requires critical equipment such as a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen levels, a ventilator to provide mechanical breathing, suction equipment, and a catheter to clear the airway.
Essential Equipment for a Client with COPD on Mechanical VentilationA client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation requires a range of equipment to ensure their safety and comfort. The most important equipment for the nurse to keep at the client's bedside includes an oxygen saturation monitor (pulse oximeter) to monitor the client's oxygen levels, the ventilator or mechanical ventilator itself to provide mechanical ventilation, suction equipment, and airway suction catheter to maintain airway patency, and a BVM (Bag-Valve-Mask) or Ambu bag as a backup ventilation device. The client will also require a steady source of oxygen, and a nebulizer may be necessary to deliver medication to the client. Additionally, sterile water for inhalation, sterile normal saline solution for irrigation, sterile gloves, and lubricating jelly are important to have on hand. Maintaining an adequate supply of these essential items is crucial for the well-being of the client with COPD mechanical ventilation.
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which action of the nurse leader demonstrates a hands-off approach in practice? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
A) Delegating responsibilities to staff
B) Allowing staff to independently make decisions
C) Establishing clear policies and expectations
D) Monitoring staff performance regularly
a nurse is caring for a client whose left foot was surgically removed due to gangrene. the client tells the nurse that focusing more on their spiritual life helped overcome the loss of a foot. which statement appropriately describes the spiritual dimension?'
The statement that best describes the spiritual dimension when I lose a foot is "I am grateful for the opportunity to continue to live life even though I have lost a foot. "
What is gangrene?Gangrene is a condition where the body's tissues die due to not getting enough blood supply. This condition generally occurs in the legs, toes, or fingers, but can also occur in the muscles and organs in the body.
Gangrene is a serious condition that can lead to amputation and death. This condition is often found as a complication of diseases that cause damage to blood vessels and blood flow, such as diabetes or atherosclerosis.
Your question is incomplete, maybe what you mean is :
A nurse is caring for a client whose left foot was surgically removed due to gangrene. the client tells the nurse that focusing more on their spiritual life helped overcome the loss of a foot. which statement appropriately describes the spiritual dimension?
"I am grateful for the opportunity to continue to live life even though I have lost a foot. ""Life will go on no matter what the conditions are."Learn more about the major reservoir of the microbe that causes gas gangrene here :
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a nurse is caring for a client who has experienced an acute exacerbation of crohn's disease. which statement best indicates that the disease process is under control?
The statement that best describes is "The client exhibits signs of adequate GI perfusion".
Only when Crohn's disease is under control can adequate GI perfusion be maintained. If the client has acute, uncontrolled Crohn's disease, decreased GI perfusion may result in a bowel infarction. Positive self-image, a controllable degree of pain, and preserved skin integrity are all desired client outcomes, although they are unrelated to disease management.
Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that can affect any part of the digestive system. Stomach discomfort, diarrhoea (which may be bloody if the inflammation is severe), fever, abdominal distension, and weight loss are common symptoms. Anemia, skin rashes, arthritis, eye irritation, and weariness are some of the complications that can occur outside of the gastrointestinal tract.
Infections, as well as pyoderma gangrenosum or erythema nodosum, can cause skin rashes. Bowel blockage can arise as a result of chronic inflammation, and people who have the condition are more likely to develop colon cancer and small bowel cancer.
The complete question is:
A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which statement best indicates that the disease process is under control?
a) The client maintains skin integrity.b) The client expresses positive feelings about himself.c) The client verbalizes a manageable level of discomfort.d) The client exhibits signs of adequate GI perfusion.To learn more about Crohn's disease, here
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during a routine surgical intubation, a patient accidentally had their vagus nerve stimulated. what results should the surgical team expect?
The surgical team should expect the patient to experience bradycardia (slowed heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) due to vagal stimulation. The patient may also experience nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and sweating.
The surgical team should be prepared to treat these symptoms with appropriate medications and interventions to stabilize the patient.
What is hypotension?
Hypotension is a medical condition characterized by abnormally low blood pressure. It is most often defined as a systolic blood pressure of less than 90 mmHg (millimeters of mercury) or a diastolic blood pressure of less than 60 mmHg. Low blood pressure can cause a variety of symptoms, including dizziness, lightheadedness, fatigue, and even fainting in extreme cases.
Therefore, The surgical team should expect the patient to experience bradycardia (slowed heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) due to vagal stimulation. The patient may also experience nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and sweating.
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a dilution was made by mixing 124 mg of drug a with 659 mg of lactose. how many mg of this dilution would contain 20 mg of drug a? (round your answer to one decimal place)
"788.2 mg of dilution contains 20 mg of drug A."a dilution was made by mixing 124 mg of drug a with 659 mg of lactose.
To calculate the amount of dilution that contains 20 mg of drug A, we need to find the proportion of drug A to the total amount of the dilution. In this case, 124 mg of drug A was mixed with 659 mg of lactose, so the total amount of the dilution is 124 + 659 = 783 mg. Therefore, the proportion of drug A to the total amount of the dilution is 124 / 783 = 0.158. To find the amount of dilution that contains 20 mg of drug A, we multiply the total amount of the dilution by the proportion of drug A, so 20 / 0.158 = 126.58 mg. Rounding this answer to one decimal place, we find that 788.2 mg of dilution contains 20 mg of drug A.
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Which of the following would be considered an acceptable Route of Administration for a coumpound created in the pharmacy? (select all that apply)
A. Inhalation
B. Topical
C. Bladder
D. Otic
E. Oral
Topical administration and oral administration would be acceptable routes of administration for a compound made in the pharmacy.
One of the most popular oral administration techniques in medicine is thought to be the most efficient and economical method.
We are unable to produce or prepare oral/nasal inhalation, ophthalmic, opthalmic, bladder, or any injectables at this time. The oral and topical administration are therefore the most acceptable ways to get to the pharmacy.
For localised skin treatment, the management of external and internal parasites, and the transdermal delivery of therapeutic agents, the topical route of administration is utilised. Antiseptics, antifungals, anti-inflammatory medications, and skin emollients are examples of drugs used topically for local effects.
Absorption of medications taken orally may start in the mouth and stomach. However, the small intestine is typically where most medications are absorbed. The medication travels from the liver to the target site via the bloodstream after passing through the intestinal wall and liver.
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The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with HIV. The patient asks what would determine the actual development of AIDS. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS?
a. Presence of HIV antibodies
b. CD4+ T cell count <200/µl
c. White blood cell count <5000/µl
d. Presence of oral hairy leukoplakia
b. CD4+ T cell count <200/µl is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS.
What does a 200 CD4 count indicate?
A CD4 count of 200 or fewer cells per cubic millimeter means that you have AIDS. With AIDS you have a high risk of developing life-threatening infections or cancers.
What are the diagnostic criteria for AIDS?
People with AIDS have such badly damaged immune systems that they get an increasing number of severe illnesses, called opportunistic infections. People receive an AIDS diagnosis when their CD4 cell count drops below 200 cells/mm, or if they develop certain opportunistic infections.
What are CD4 cells?
CD4 cells (also known as CD4+ T cells) are white blood cells that fight infection. CD4 cell count is an indicator of immune function in patients living with HIV and one of the key determinants of the need for opportunistic infection (OI) prophylaxis.
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a teacher refers a student to the school nurse because the student is frequently falling asleep during class. after talking with the student, the nurse is most concerned by which statement by the student?
The student's statement that is the most concerning for the nurse is "I get 7 hours of sleep every night so I don't know why I am so tired."
On average, teens require 8.5 to 9.5 hours of sleep each night. It's because of the rapid growth that occurs during the teen years. In the case of the question above, the student stated that they only get to sleep for 7 hours per night, which is lower than the average amount of sleep needed. That's most likely the reason why the student is frequently falling asleep during class.
To give the student adequate hours of sleep, one can limit their distractions at bedtime and tell them to follow a curfew.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
A teacher refers a student to the school nurse because the student is frequently falling asleep during class. After talking with the student, the nurse is most concerned by which statement by the student?
"I get 7 hours of sleep every night so I don't know why I am so tired.""I just can't seem to stay awake during that class because it's boring.""My mom keeps telling me to turn off my television when I go to bed.""I guess I need to be more careful about my curfew on school nights."Learn more about sleep at https://brainly.com/question/4119396
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what task can the nurse assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) while caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke?
Routine chores, such as taking vital signs, supervising ambulation, bed making, aiding with hygiene, and activities of daily living, might be transferred to an experienced UAP.
Which role would the unlicensed assistive personnel UAP?
UAP are trained to aid nurses in patient care settings. They operate under nursing experts, who delegate and monitor this level of service. UAP primarily works in assisted living institutions, nursing homes, schools, and rehabilitation facilities.
It is within the job of a UAP to empty the indwelling catheter bag, help with position change and apply anti-embolism stockings. The nurse should confirm that these responsibilities have been done, but they are safe to delegate to the UAP.
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alicia sees her pcp with multiple symptoms, including headaches, joint pain, inability to sleep, and near panic. after much testing, her pcp says that there is no illness or disease causing her issues. what kind of practitioner might help alicia in getting to the cause of her symptoms?
Practitioner who specializes in mind-body issues might help Alicia in getting to the cause of her symptoms.
The mind-body dilemma is a philosophical argument about the link between cognition and awareness in the human mind and the brain as a physical bodily component. The dispute extends beyond the subject of how the mind and body work chemically and biologically. Interactionism develops when the mind and body are regarded separate entities, based on the notion that the mind and body are essentially different in nature.
The lack of an empirically identifiable meeting point between the non-physical mind (if such a thing exists) and its physical extension (if such a thing exists) has been raised as a criticism of dualism, and many contemporary philosophers of mind maintain that the mind is not something separate from the body.
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absorbed dose to the whole body from this exposure is 250 millirad. what would be the dose equivalent
250 millirad of the 50mSv dosage absorbed by the body comes from this exposure.
Why Dose Matters?The word "dose" can have a different meaning in medical language and some general English usage than it does in radiation protection. In the same way that we talk about taking a "dose" of whisky, getting our daily "dose" of news, or anything else we like, we also take "doses" of drugs in medical settings. "Dose" in the context of radiation protection refers to the amount of ionising radiation that is absorbed per unit mass of any substance.
The equivalent dose is what?A measurement of the biological harm caused by radiation exposure to living tissue. The dosage equivalent, also referred to as the "biological dose," is computed by adding the absorbed dose in tissue to a quality factor, and occasionally to additional essential modifying factors at the region of interest.
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a client has an order for two units of packed red blood cells (prbcs) to be administered. the current iv prescribed is d5lr with 20 meq kcl at 125 ml/hr infusing through a 22 gauge needle to the left hand. what action should the nurse take?
The nurse should check the IV line for compatibility before administering 2 units of PRBCs. If compatible, the transfusion can proceed. The nurse must closely monitor the client for adverse reactions and report any concerns to the provider immediately.
What are PRCBs?
PRBCs stand for packed red blood cells, which are a concentrated form of red blood cells that are used to treat conditions related to anemia, such as iron deficiency anemia or blood loss. Packed red blood cells are obtained from whole blood donation, then separated and stored for transfusion purposes. The transfusion of packed red blood cells helps to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which is crucial for maintaining normal bodily functions.
Hence the answer is, the nurse should check the IV line for compatibility before administering 2 units of PRBCs. If compatible, the transfusion can proceed. The nurse must closely monitor the client for adverse reactions and report any concerns to the provider immediately.
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the nurse is assessing a young adult patient with schizophrenia who recently began taking fluphenazine (prolixin). the patient is exhibiting spasms of facial muscles along with grimacing, and the nurse notes upward eye movements. the nurse suspects which side effect?
In the given situation, the nurse suspects Acute dystonia side effect. Hence, the correct option is A.
What do we mean by Acute dystonia?During an acute dystonic reaction, muscles in the extremities, face, neck, abdomen, pelvis, or larynx contract involuntarily, either continuously or intermittently, resulting in abnormal movements or postures. According to research, the basal ganglia or other movement-controlling brain regions are abnormal or damaged in dystonia. The brain's ability to process a class of chemicals known as neurotransmitters, which allow brain cells to communicate with one another, may be abnormal. Eyelids are affected by vision difficulties. Having trouble moving the jaw, swallowing, or speaking. Constant muscle contraction causes pain and exhaustion. Anxiety, social withdrawal, and depression are all symptoms.
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which type of bath would the nurse recommend for a patient with an inflamed and swollen rectum perineum and genital area
A sitz bath is recommend for a patient with an inflamed and swollen rectum perineum and genital area.
How is an irritated perineum treated?
Rest is the most popular perineal pain treatment since it helps the body heal from injury. Perineal pain can be treated with a few antibiotics and massages, but only after the inflammation has subsided. The principal site of muscle attachment, the perineum, is where discomfort is most frequently felt.
Warm water from a pitcher or other container should be poured into the sitz bath dish. Your perineum / rectum should be covered by the water. Make sure the water is at a comfortable temperature. If your doctor advises, add salt or medication to the water. For 15 to 20 minutes, you can relax in a sitz bath.
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the nurse is caring for a client with atelectasis. place in order the instructions the nurse will provide the client to use an incentive spirometer. use all options.
The instructions to be provided by nurse when using an incentive spirometer are: (1) Insert the mouthpiece, sealing it between the lips; (2) Inhale slowly and deeply until the predetermined volume has been reached; (3) Hold the breath for 3-6 seconds; (4) Remove the mouthpiece and exhale normally; (5) Relax and breathe normally before the next breath with the spirometer; (6) Repeat the exercise 10-20 times per hour while awake or as prescribed by the physician.
Incentive spirometer is a medical device used to expand the lungs. It measures the volume of air inhaled. IT helps in keeping the lungs strong and ventilated.
Breathing is the process of taking air in and out from the lungs. It therefore is comprised of inhalation and exhalation. The inhalation is performed to take oxygen in and exhalation is done to remove carbon dioxide.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is caring for a client with atelectasis. place in order the instructions the nurse will provide the client to use an incentive spirometer. Use all options.
Inhale slowly and deeply until the predetermined volume has been reachedInsert the mouthpiece, sealing it between the lipsRemove the mouthpiece and exhale normallyHold the breath for 3-6 secondsRepeat the exercise 10-20 times per hour while awake or as prescribed by the physician.Relax and breathe normally before the next breath with the spirometerTo know more about breathing, ere
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if a dose with an activity of 2.00 mci of 123i is given to a patient for a thyroid test, how much of the 123i will still be active 24 hours later?
If a dose with the activity of 2.00 mCi of 123i is given to a patient for thyroid testing, 0.5 mCi of 123i is still active 24 hours later.
Radioactive iodine or nuclear thyroid therapy is done by injecting radioactive iodine into the body. This iodine will be absorbed by the thyroid gland and then destroyed by abnormal thyroid tissue.
The initial 123I = 2.00 mCi (given)
We know that the radioactive half-life of I-123 = approximately 12 hours.
So, we can say that in 24 hours there will be two half-lives of 123I,
Therefore after two half-lives or 24 hours, the last 123I will be:
= 2.00 x (1/2²)
= 2.00 x (1/4)
= 0.5 mCi
So, the correct answer is 0.5 mCi.
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the nurse assesses the wellness beliefs and values of a client from another culture best when asking which question?
The nurse assesses the wellness beliefs and values of a client from another culture best when asking "What do you think is making you ill?"
In nursing, one of the important parts when treating a client is to be aware of their belief and values regarding their wellness. A nurse must know that each culture may have a different perspective on wellness.
To know what is the patient's beliefs and values, the nurse may ask "What do you think is making you ill?" This question will lead the nurse to know what is in the thought of the patient regarding their illness based on their culture and knowledge.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
The nurse assesses the wellness beliefs and values of a client from another culture best when asking which question?
"What do you think is making you ill?""When did you first feel ill?""How can I help you get better?""Did you do something to cause the illness?"Learn more about beliefs and values at https://brainly.com/question/30436388
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what intervention would the nurse implement immediately after being unable to palpate the patient's dorsalis pedis pulse sherpath
Utilizing a doppler instrument, evaluate pulses after being unable to palpate the patient's dorsalis pedis pulse sherpath.
Where is the dorsalis pedis located ?
Dorsalis pedis is situated between the extensor hallucis longus tendon and the medial tendon of the extensor digitorum longus muscle on the dorsum of the foot, just deep to the inferior extensor retinaculum.
To recognize injuries and illnesses that pose a threat to life or limb, pulse evaluation is essential. Numerous factors can alter the character and quality of pulses, therefore it's critical to identify these issues quickly and take action to improve patient outcomes. For simpler localization with the doppler probe, mark the sites of the DP and PT arteries. Place the linear ultrasound probe over the expected location of the artery. With a pen, indicate where the artery is. use a doppler scanner.
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a nurse-manager in the office of a group of surgeons has received complaints from discharged clients about inadequate instructions for performing home care. knowing the importance of good, timely client education, the nurse-manager should take which steps?
When a nurse-manager received complaints from discharged clients about inadequate instructions for performing home care, the steps that the nurse-manager should take is to work with the surgeons' staff, nursing staff, and outpatient surgical center to evaluate their current client education practice and make revisions as necessary.
In general, all nurses who provide client care should also provide client education, including for clients that are receiving home care. Nurses and outpatient centers must work together to establish and apply the best methods of educating clients.
In the case above, the client is complaining about inadequate instructions for performing home care. It is a crucial complaint since home care clients needed good and timely education for their care, or else their health and wellness might end up in jeopardy.
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a medical/surgical nurse has been floated to the pediatric unit. which action by the float nurse would require the pediatric nurse to intervene?
The action by the float nurse that would require the pediatric nurse to intervene is asking the child their name prior to giving medications.
In a hospital, a float nurse is a registered nurse who fills in units that experience short staffing. They usually don't have a specific specialty.
In the case above, a float nurse seems to ask a child their name before giving them their medication. This act has a large margin of error, which is why nurses should never ask children their names for identification. Instead, nurses must read or scan the bar code that is on the patient's identification armbands and compare it with the medication sheet or electronic record.
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the nurse cares for the client after right cataract surgery. the nurse intervenes if which observation is made?
The nurse caring for the client after right cataract surgery. Nurse intervention for clients after undergoing cataract surgery if the observation about vision will be blurred after surgery.
What are cataracts?Cataracts are a disease when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy and cloudy. In general, cataracts develop slowly and are not bothersome at first. The most common cause of cataracts is the result of aging or trauma which causes changes in the eye tissue.
After cataract surgery, patients are usually allowed to go home the same day but are not allowed to drive themselves. The patient's vision is still blurry after surgery and will improve in a few days, indicated by a clearer color.
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