D. Rinse your mouth completely after using the inhaler.
Inhaled glucocorticoid- Inhaled glucocorticoids, often known as inhaled corticosteroids or ICS, are frequently used to treat asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease because they have fewer and milder side effects than orally given glucocorticoids (COPD)
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease- Emphysema, in which the alveoli (little air sacs), are destroyed, and chronic bronchitis, in which the bronchi (large air channels) are inflamed and scarred, are two forms of chronic obstructive lung disease. It often develops over time as a result of smoking tobacco.
Asthma- Asthma is a chronic condition that can affect both children and adults. The lungs' small airways become increasingly constricted as a result of inflammation and muscle rigidity.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. When providing client education relative to an inhaled glucocorticoid, the nurse should include which instruction to prevent a common side effect of the medication?
A. Do not eat or drink anything for 20 minutes after using the inhaler.
B. Forcefully exhale after using the inhaler.
C. While using the inhaler, inhale as quickly as possible.
D. Rinse your mouth completely after using the inhaler.
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A primary care physician is concerned with the course of a disease in an individual, while an epidemiologist is concerned with the course of disease in a population. True or false?.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
The nurse is reviewing the data of patients who have undergone surgery. which patient would be at the highest risk of orthostatic hypotension based on the given data?
3. Patient C: hip replacement
The risk of orthostatic hypotension increases with the amount of time a patient stays immobile. The person who had a hip replacement and had to stay in bed for 90 days would therefore be most at risk for orthostatic hypotension.
Orthostatic hypotension- When we rise up from a supine (lying down) position, we experience orthostatic hypotension, or a drop in blood pressure. Since the name "orthostasis" indicates standing up, it is defined as low blood pressure (hypotension) that occurs when a person stands up.
Some of the pathophysiological causes of OH include the dependent pooling of blood in organs and the periphery, poor venous return, stroke volume, and changes in cardiac and baroreceptor function.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. The nurse is reviewing the data of patients who have undergone surgery. Which patient would be at the highest risk of orthostatic hypotension based on the given data?
1. Patient A: appendectomy
2. Patient B: lobotomy
3. Patient C: hip replacement
4. Patient D: bypass surgery
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How many years of a residency program are required for newly graduated m.d.s choosing to specialize in family practice, internal medicine, or pediatrics?
Newly graduated m.d.s choosing to specialize in internal medicine, family practice, or paediatrics require a three years residency program.
The length of your residency training is determined by the speciality you choose. The shortest residency programs are in primary care, while the longest is in surgery. Newly graduated m.d.s choosing to specialize in internal medicine, family practice, or paediatrics require a three years residency program.
Regardless of your residency program length, your sense of independence, responsibility, and autonomy grows with every year of residency until you are operating independently in your desired field by the close of your residency program. All residency areas of expertise also provide the option for additional specialization following residency, known as fellowship training.
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The existence of prevention methods for some types of cancer means it is appropriate to assign blame for the disease to people with cancer.
a. true
b. false
False, it is inappropriate to assign blame for the disease to people with cancer because prevention methods exist for some types of cancer.
What is cancer?A set of disorders known as cancer involve aberrant cell proliferation and have the ability to invade or spread to different bodily regions. These stand in contrast to benign tumors, which do not spread. A lump, unusual bleeding, a persistent cough, unexplained weight loss, and a change in bowel habits are some of possible signs and symptoms. These signs of cancer might be present, but there may be other causes as well. About 100 distinct forms of cancer harm people.
About 22% of cancer fatalities are attributable to tobacco smoking. 10% more are attributable to obesity, a poor diet, inactivity, or excessive alcohol consumption.
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Which field of study in kinesiology is concerned with injury prevention and treatment? group of answer choices
Athletic training field of study in kinesiology is concerned with injury prevention and treatment.
Kinesiology- The academic study of how the human body moves is known as kinesiology (from the Greek words for "movement" and "study of"). Kinesiology studies the physiological, anatomical, pathological, and biomechanical aspects of movement.
During a kinesiology session, when the practitioner analyzes the body to look for hidden stresses, muscle testing is frequently used. The next step is to remain dressed and get on the table like would for a massage.
In class, students learn how to help patients' physical mobility be enhanced or corrected by combining a holistic approach with ideas from anatomy, biomechanics, and psychology.
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the hospitalized client is experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding with a platelets at 9,000/mm³. the client is receiving prednisone and azathioprine. what action will the nurse take?
Perform a neurologic assessment with vital signs.
A platelet count less than 10,000/mm3 may indicate spontaneous bleeding involving the cranial vault. To rule out this possibility, a nurse will do a neurological examination. Clients do not require contact protection despite being on immunosuppressants.Take contact precautions when interacting with clients known or suspected to have an infectious disease. increase. Diphenoxylate and atropine can cause constipation, making it difficult to accurately gauge the extent of a client's internal bleeding. Patients should not floss too vigorously. This can cause bleeding. Ecchymosis and petechiae can be caused by a low platelet count. A platelet count of less than 10,000/mm3 may result in greater bleeding.Therefore, the correct answer is neurologic assessment.
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A nurse is assisting a client in active labor whose diabetes has been poorly controlled. which assessment of the neonate should be prioritized after its birth?
Answer:A)congenital malformationsB) macrosomiaE) respiratory disorder
Explanation:
Why is the use of fetal monitors considered a factor in the increase of cesarean sections performed in the united states?.
fetal monitors considered a factor in the increase of cesarean sections performed in the united states because Fetal monitors have high rates of false readings for fetal distress
Electronic fetal monitoring (EFM), regardless of risk status, is employed constantly throughout labor in many hospitals in the United States. Application of Electronic fetal monitoring EFM, especially around the time of labor admission, may set off a series of interventions that raise the likelihood of caesarean delivery in low-risk women. This review's objectives were to identify research gaps and synthesize the available data on the use of EFM in low-risk work situations.
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The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines. True or false?.
Answer:
false
Explanation:
A person with acute hypoxemia may hyperventilate and develop:_____.
A person with acute hypoxemia may have hyperventilate and develop respiratory alkalosis.
What is hypoxemia?Low blood oxygen levels are referred to as hypoxemia, while the more generic word hypoxia refers to an unusually low oxygen level in any tissue, organ, or physiological system. Hypoxia can be brought on by hypoxemia (hypoxemic hypoxia), but it can also happen due to other factors including anemia.
Hypoxemia is typically defined in terms of a lower partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg) in arterial blood, but it can also refer to a lower oxygen content (ml oxygen per dl blood) or a lower percentage of hemoglobin (the oxygen-binding protein within red blood cells) being saturated with oxygen, either alone or in combination.
Thus, rather of focusing on hypoxemia, the oxygen content of blood is occasionally used as a gauge of tissue delivery.
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While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an emt's eyes. this is an example of?
While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an EMT's eyes. This is an example of exposure.
A person who has sustained a bodily injury, whether slight, major, life-threatening or possibly life-threatening, is referred to as a trauma patient. Typically, traumatic wounds are categorized as blunt or penetrating wounds.
The doctor should be aware of the traumatized person's diverse requirements. When patients feel ready, listen to them and encourage them to discuss their reactions. Accept the person's emotional responses. An intense, agonizing reaction is a typical reaction to a distressing incident.
Anxiety and panic attacks, fear, rage, irritability, obsessions and compulsions, shock and disbelief, emotional numbing and detachment, depression, shame and guilt (especially if the person dealing with the trauma survived while others did not), obsessions and compulsions, obsessions and compulsions, and shame and guilt.
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When an animal receives a vaccine, about how long will it take before the aniimal's immune system will protect the animal from disease?
Vaccinations cause organisms to develop active immunity. The immunity that occurs when an organism's immune system is actively producing antibodies against an encountered antigen is known as active immunity. Weakened antigens are given to the organism through vaccination, which causes the immune system to produce antibodies against it. This antigen exposure and antibody release results in lifetime immunity to that specific antigen. It takes the animal about two weeks to develop immunity to the vaccination after it is administered.
What is animal Vaccination?Animal vaccination is the vaccination of livestock, or wild animals. The practice is related to veterinary medicine. The first invented animal vaccine was developed in 1879 by Louis Pasteur against chicken his cholera. The production of such vaccines encounters problems related to the economic hardships faced by individuals, governments and companies. Animal vaccination is less regulated than human vaccination. Vaccines are divided into conventional vaccines and next-generation vaccines. Animal vaccines have proven to be the most cost-effective and sustainable method of controlling infectious diseases in animals. The animal vaccine industry was valued at $7 billion in 2017 and is projected to reach $9 billion by 2024
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Answer: About 2 weeks
Study the diagram of apparatus used to demonstrate the process of brea answer the questions that follow. 38 O Diagram II Diagram I Apparatus to Illustrate the mechanism of breathing 1 Which structures of the human body are represented by the parts I A: B: C: D 1.2 Name the stage of breathing represented by the apparatus in: (a) Diagram I: (b) Diagram II:
The act of breathing, also known as the movement of air into and out of the lungs, is known as pulmonary ventilation. The main forces behind pulmonary ventilation are atmospheric pressure (Patm), alveolar pressure (Palv), and intrapleural pressure (Palv), which are all measurements of air pressure (Pip).
Systems for Breathing
The physical characteristics of the lung have an impact on both the intrapleural and alveolar pressures. However, both the atmospheric and intrapulmonary air pressures are necessary for breathing—the process by which air enters the lungs during inspiration and exits during expiration.
Three forms of pressure—atmospheric, intra-alveolar, and pleural—are necessary for pulmonary breathing. The force that gases in the air around a surface, such as a body, exert is known as atmospheric pressure.
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The pericardial sac that encloses the heart is a two-layered structure. The outer layer is the ________.
The pericardium, also called pericardial sac, is a double-walled sac containing the heart and the roots of the great vessels. It has two layers, an outer layer made of strong connective tissue (fibrous pericardium), and an inner layer made of serousmembrane (serous pericardium).
the client whose health care provider has instructed them to reduce intake of saturated fat indicates an unwillingness to give up eating red meat. what suggestion can the nurse make to help the client ensure saturated fat consumption is within the recommended range?
The nurse should suggest the patient to pay close attention to the portions of meat intake.
Dietary fat contains saturated fatty acids. It is one of the harmful fats along with trans fat. Most of these fats are solid at room temperature. Large amounts of saturated fat are found in foods such as butter, cheese, red meat, palm oil, coconut oil, and butter. Eating too much saturated fat can lead to heart disease and other health problems. risk of heart disease. Your body needs healthy fats for energy and other bodily processes. However, eating too much saturated fat can cause cholesterol to build up in your arteries (blood vessels). Saturated fat increases LDL (bad) cholesterol. High LDL cholesterol and weight gain increase the risk of heart disease and strokeTherefore, the patient should pay attention to the portions of meat intake.
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_____________ of medicare is for payment of medical expenses such as office visits and x-ray and laboratory services.
Part B of medicare is for payment of medical expenses such as office visits and x-ray and laboratory services.
Outpatient medical treatment, such as doctors appointments, some home healthcare services, some lab tests, X-rays, some medicines, and some medical instruments, are covered by Medicare Part B. Medicare Part A covers skilled nursing clinic stays and hospital, as well as some home healthcare services.
If you are eligible for Medicare Part A, you are also eligible for Medicare Part B. If you are 65 or older and already receive Social Security benefits, you are automatically registered. You may, however, decline.
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A client is admitted to the hospital after sustaining a head injury. which is the most reliable sign of increased intracranial pressure the nurse can monitor for?
A client is admitted to the hospital after sustaining a head injury. Decrease in the level of consciousness is the most reliable sign of increased intracranial pressure the nurse can monitor.
Intracranial pressure- A medical ailment or a brain damage may cause the skull to become more compressed. ICP, or elevated intracranial pressure, is a dangerous condition that can result in headaches. Existing brain or spinal cord damage may become worse under the strain.
Consciousness- A physical component of the brain called the Dynamic Core is responsible for producing the stream of coherent mental creations that make up consciousness. Consciousness is a consequence of dynamic patterns of reentrant signaling in the Global Workspace, which is composed of complex, widely scattered, linked neuronal networks.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question.
Q. A client is admitted to the hospital after sustaining a head injury. Which is the most reliable sign of increased intracranial pressure the nurse can monitor for?
Rise in respiratory rateNarrowing of pulse pressureDecrease in the level of consciousnessIncrease in the diastolic blood pressureTo know more about the Intracranial pressure, click on the below link,
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A client in labor is attached to an electronic fetal monitor (efm). which finding by an efm indicates adequate uteroplacental and fetal perfusion?
Fetal heart rate variability within 5 to 10 beats/minute
What is electronic fetal monitor (efm) ?The moment has arrived. As your child is about to be born, you are headed to the hospital. You meet the nurse who will connect you to a monitoring device that will track both your contractions and the heartbeat of the unborn child. What is this, and why is it crucial for your unborn child's care. The sole means through which the fetus can interact with the healthcare professionals is through electronic fetal monitoring (EFM). EFM is a method used by medical professionals to assess how well your baby is doing during labor and delivery. It counts uterine contractions and fetal heartbeat.
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Sam has been diagnosed with having pulmonary edema. Which heart valve is most likely malfunctioning and not closing properly?.
If rubella vaccine is administered to a postpartum patient, instructions to the patient include:_____.
If rubella vaccine is administered to a postpartum patient, instructions to the patient include an explanation of the risks of becoming pregnant within 28 days following injection.
If a woman contracts rubella while she is pregnant, it might result in a miscarriage or major birth problems in the unborn child. With the MMR vaccine, rubella can be avoided. This offers defense against three illnesses: rubella, mumps, and measles.
In the event that pregnancy develops within three months of receiving the rubella vaccine, there may be potential dangers to the fetus. The mother must be aware of any potential negative effects as well as the three-month pregnancy ban.
Before receiving the immunization, the mother should be afebrile. Even while a little quantity of the vaccine does get into breast milk, experts do not feel that nursing should be stopped.
PTS: 1 DIF: Application, Cognitive Level 334Nursing Process Step: Execution OBJMSC: Client Needs: Promoting and Maintaining HealthTo know more about the Rubella vaccine go to https://brainly.com/question/28202714
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Which information indicates a good understanding of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (pamps)?
Inflammation indicates a good understanding of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (pamps).
What is Inflammation?A vital component of your body's healing process is inflammation. Inflammatory cells that have travelled to the site of an injury or a foreign substance like germs cause it to happen. Inflammatory cells that stay too long may cause chronic inflammation. Rheumatoid arthritis, among other medical diseases, can show signs of chronic inflammation. Your healthcare professional might suggest medication or at-home treatment. By eating anti-inflammatory foods and controlling your stress, you can lessen inflammation.
Chronic inflammation is different from short-term (acute) inflammation (chronic). Inflammation that is acute disappears in a few days or hours. Even after the initial trigger has subsided, chronic inflammation can persist for months or even years.
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the effect of a practice-based multicomponent intervention that includes health coaching on medication adherence and blood pressure control in rural primary care.
Poorer outcomes are influenced by low anti-hypertensive drug adherence.
To determine the effects of health coaching interventions on medication adherence and blood pressure (BP), and to determine whether changes in long-term medication adherence were associated with changes in blood pressure over time in 477 hypertensive patients, the authors conducted a secondary investigation. data analysis. Medication adherence and blood pressure data were collected at baseline, 6, 12, 18, and 24 months. Over time, the intervention improved medication adherence (5.75–5.94, P=0.04) and reduced diastolic blood pressure (81.6–76.1 mm Hg, P=0.001). Longitudinal decreases in diastolic blood pressure were associated with changes in medication adherence (p=0.047). Improvements in medication adherence and blood pressure over time were significantly greater in patients with low baseline adherence than in those with high baseline adherence.Therefore, the mentioned experiment explains the effect of a practice-based multicomponent intervention.
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Etiology and manifestation instructional notes assist coders in the proper sequencing of the codes; thus, a(n) __________.
Etiology and manifestation instructional notes assist coders in the proper sequencing of the codes; thus, a(n) etiology code.
Before the code for a related symptom, the etiology or "cause" code for the underlying illness must be stated. The HHA is supposed to make sure that a valid manifestation code is sequenced right after the assignment of the etiology code when a diagnosis is being considered as an etiology diagnosis.
The relevant condition brought on by the underlying disease is referred to as the manifestation diagnosis, which is never given as the patient's primary diagnosis.
Codes with this title are a part of the etiology/ manifestation convention, and the manifestation code will typically have "in diseases classified elsewhere" in the title. It is clear from the code's title that it is a manifestation code.
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The order for the patient reads: ondansetron (zofran) 2 mg iv now. the vial of zofran on the floor contains 4mg/5ml. how many ml should be administered?
The order for the patient reads ondansetron (zofran) 2 mg iv now. the vial of zofran on the floor contains 4mg/5ml. 2.5 ml should be administered.
What is ondansetron (zofran) injection?For the prevention of nausea and vomiting brought on by initial and subsequent courses of emetogenic cancer treatment, particularly high-dose cisplatin, ZOFRAN Injection is recommended. Patients must be at least 6 months old to use ZOFRAN. It is recommended to take Zofran Injection to stop postoperative nausea and/or vomiting. Routine prophylaxis is not advised for individuals in whom there is little likelihood that postoperative nausea and/or vomiting will occur, as is the case with other antiemetics. Even when there is a low likelihood of postoperative nausea and/or vomiting, Zofran Injection is advised for patients in whom it is necessary to prevent it. If a patient does not receive preventive Zofran Injection and develops postoperative nausea and/or vomiting, Zofran Injection may be administered to stop subsequent occurrences.
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Explain the agonist-to-antagonist spectrum of action of psychopharmacologic agents, including how partial and inverse agonist functionality may impact the efficacy of psychopharmacologic treatments.
A ligand that binds to a receptor and changes the receptor's state to cause a biological response is an antagonist.
A complete agonist activates the system's maximum reaction capacity.
Even with 100% receptor occupancy, a partial agonist falls short of the system's maximum response capacity.
When a full agonist is present, a partial agonist becomes an antagonist (if they compete for the same receptors)
A ligand known as an inverse agonist decreases the proportion of receptors in an active state by binding to them.
An allosteric modulator has no impact on its own but boosts (or diminishes) the effects of a primary agonist.
You must have a solid foundation in basic neuroscience in order to be a successful psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner. This includes understanding the antagonist-to-antagonist spectrum of action of psychopharmacologic agents
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a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for diazepam. which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for diazepam. The nurse should include in the teaching that diazepam can cause drowsiness, muscle weakness, headache, constipation, or nausea.
Diazepam, also known as Valium, is a medication that belongs to the benzodiazepine family that functions as an anxiolytic. It is generally used to cure a range of disorders, including anxiety, alcohol withdrawal symptoms, seizures, muscle spasms, insomnia, etc.
Benzodiazepines function by increasing an important neurotransmitter called GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) at the GABA A receptor. This increase in the GABA results in the sedative, hypnotic (sleep-inducing), anxiolytic (anti-anxiety), muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant effects for which the medications are recommended.
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The drug the nurse plans to have available for immediate iv administration whenever magnesium sulfate is administered to a maternity patient is?
The drug the nurse plans to have available for immediate intravenous (IV) administration whenever magnesium sulfate is administered to a maternity patient is Calcium gluconate.
Calcium gluconate- The calcium salt of gluconic acid, calcium gluconate, is administered intravenously to treat illnesses caused by calcium deficiency, including hypocalcemic tetany, hypocalcemia associated to hypoparathyrodism, and hypocalcemia brought on by fast growth or pregnancy.
Hypocalcemia- The condition known as hypercalcemia occurs when the blood's calcium level is elevated. The bones can become brittle, kidney stones can form, and our heart and brain function can be affected by having much more calcium in our blood.
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How does a nurse know a client is experiencing an adverse reactions or allergic reaction
Answer:Adverse drug reaction (ADR, or adverse drug effect) is a broad term referring to unwanted, uncomfortable, or dangerous effects that a drug may have. Side effect is an imprecise term often used to refer to a drug's unintended effects that occur within the therapeutic range.
Explanation:
A medical imaging facility recently purchased a new open mri machine to cater to patients who find the older closed machines claustrophobic. this new machine is an example of?
A medical imaging facility recently purchased a new open MRI machine to cater to patients who find the older closed machines claustrophobic. This new machine is an example of Capital.
MRI- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which examines the organs and structures inside our body, uses radio waves and a strong magnet. Medical professionals utilize MRI scans to diagnose a variety of conditions, from cancer to torn ligaments. MRIs are very useful for researching the brain and spinal cord.
Claustrophobic- Claustrophobia, the well-known dread of being trapped in small, confined spaces, is usually considered to be a conditioned response to traumatic occurrences. Unexpectedly, researchers found that changes in a single gene that produces a stress-regulated neuronal protein might cause claustrophobia.
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A client has had a carotid endarterectomy. to monitor for the complication of cranial nerve dysfunction, the nurse assesses the client for which finding?
A client has had a carotid endarterectomy. to monitor for the complication of cranial nerve dysfunction and the nurse assesses the client for difficulty in swallowing.
Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical treatment to remove plaque, an accumulation of fatty deposits that causes a carotid artery to become narrowed. The primary blood vessels that carry blood to the neck, face, and brain are called carotid arteries.
An average carotid endarterectomy takes one to two hours to complete. Two different procedures will be used if both of your carotid arteries need to be opened. The first side will be finished before moving on to the second side a few weeks later.
A carotid endarterectomy carries hazards, just like any other form of surgery. The two primary dangers are stroke, which has a 2% risk overall but may be higher in patients who have already had a stroke before the operation.
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