In the dialysis experiment, since the tube is permeable to starch, it moves out of the tube into the distilled water.
What happens in the lab experiment?In a lab experiment on dialysis, to check if starch moves through the differentially permeable membrane of dialysis tubing, it has to be placed into a beaker filled with distilled water and a few drops of iodine.
The movement of starch will depend on the solution being hypotonic, hypertonic or isotonic with the distilled water. Since the solution in the dialysis tube is hypertonic with respect to the distilled water in the beaker, it will move out of the tube into the beaker.
Therefore, In the dialysis experiment, since the tube is permeable to starch, it moves out of the tube into the distilled water.
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which of the following is not described in the lecture presentation as a definitive characteristics of organisms, separating them from non-living things?
"They have mass and take up room" is not described in the lecture presentation as a definitive characteristics of organisms, separating them from non-living things.
Numerous essential traits or capabilities are shared by all living things:
1) Order: Cells make up organisms, which are highly coordinated, ordered structures. Even very basic, single-celled creatures are astonishingly complicated because within each cell, atoms form molecules, which in turn form cell organelles and other cellular inclusions.
2) Reproduction: DNA replication is the first step in the reproduction of single-celled organisms. Then, as the cell is about to split into two new cells, they equally divide it. Specialized reproductive germline cells that develop into new individuals are frequently produced by multicellular organisms. DNA-containing genes are transferred to the progeny of an organism during reproduction. The presence of these genes guarantees that the progeny will be of the same species and will share traits like size and shape.
3) Expansion and development: Each organism's growth and development are governed by particular instructions encoded in its genes. A species' offspring will develop into adults who share many traits with their parents thanks to the instructions provided by these genes, which control cellular growth and development.
4) Energy conversion: For their metabolic processes, all living things need an energy source. Others use the chemical energy found in the molecules they consume as food. Some species use the chemical energy found in food molecules.
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The complete question is:
Which of the following is NOT described in the lecture presentation as definitive characteristics of organisms, separating them from non-living things?
1) They have mass and take up room.
2) They either partially or fully replicate.
3) They alter both matter and energy.
4) They are built upon one or more cells.
How did the lab activities help you answer the lesson
question "How do the processes of conduction,
convection, and radiation help distribute energy on
Earth?" What did you learn from conducting this lab?
Most of the lab activities can help you to learn that Conduction, convection, and radiation move energy from the Sun to Earth and throughout Earth. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is Energy transfer?The conversion of one form of energy into another form, or the movement of energy from one place to another place in the ecosystem.
There are three ways in which the transfer of energy takes place:
1. Conduction: It is the transfer of energy from one end to the other end from the conducting material. Heat energy, electrical energy, and all the other forms of energy can conduct. For example: the heat transfer from one end of the rode to another end.
2. Convection: It is the process in which heat energy is transferred to the liquid in various manners possible. For example: a geyser transfers the heat energy to the water through electricity.
3. Radiation: It is the transfer of heat in the form of a heatwave. For example: the transfer of heat energy from the light bulb and heater.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
How did the lab activities help you answer the lesson question "How do the processes of conduction, convection, and radiation help distribute energy on Earth?" What did you learn from conducting this lab?
Here are the responses.
a. Conduction transfers heat between two materials that are touching, such as foil and chocolate pieces, or particles, such as the atoms in foil.
b. Convection allows heat to be transferred in liquids, like water.
c. Radiation transfers heat from a light bulb to paper.
d. Conduction, convection, and radiation move energy from the Sun to Earth and throughout Earth.
describe why you think the United States has declined to switch from the imperial system to the metric system. What potential problems does this create in an undeniably global society?
(pls help) Which two statements best describe why chromosomes are important to the function of a cell?
Answer: I believe that ans is options c and d
Explanation:
Chromosomes allow DNA to be accurately copied during these cell divisionChromosomes are also responsible for gene regulation⇒hope this helpsDNA is one of the features common to all known forms of life; it is the blueprint that guides the growth, development, behavior, and reproduction of all organisms. Contained within the genetic material are the instructions for regulating and manufacturing the proteins that control cellular function, but, it was not until the twentieth century that scientists began to perform a series of experiments that ultimately determined the genetic material and the basic structure of the molecule. The first two experiments, Griffith's transformation experiments and Hershey-Chase's experiments using radioactive DNA and proteins, supported that DNA, not proteins, was the genetic material. By the 1950s, the competition to describe the genetic materials structure began. DNA was first examined by x-ray diffraction analysis, a technique for determining the three-dimensional atomic structure of a molecule. The early x-ray diffraction results of Rosalind Franklin indicated that DNA was composed of two strands of the polymer wound into a helical structure. The observation that DNA was double-stranded was of crucial significance and provided one of the major clues that led to Watson-Crick's proposed structure of DNA. Only when this model was proposed did DNA's potential for replication and information encoding become apparent.
The discovery that DNA was double-stranded was significant in revealing its potential for replication and information encoding.
The discovery that DNA was composed of two strands was of crucial significance in understanding the structure of the molecule. The double-stranded nature of DNA provided one of the major clues that led to Watson and Crick's proposed structure of DNA, which was based on the idea that the two strands could separate and serve as templates for the synthesis of new complementary strands. This realization of DNA's potential for replication was a key factor in establishing its role as the genetic material. Additionally, the discovery that DNA was double-stranded allowed for the potential encoding of information in the specific sequence of nucleotides along the length of each strand. This information encoding capability is what allows DNA to direct the growth, development, behavior, and reproduction of all organisms.
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The Complete Question is:
What was the significance of the discovery that DNA was composed of two strands in determining its potential for replication and information encoding?
an overheated and sick dog in a hot environment will have an impaired thermoregulatory response when its
An overheated and sick dog in a hot environment will have an impaired thermoregulatory response when its body temperature increases to match the environmental temperature.
The hypothalamus, which controls the autonomic nervous system and maintains the balance of temperature, is also in charge of this function. In order to keep the body's temperature within one or two degrees of 98.6 degrees, it responds to both internal and external stimuli.
It also regulates the release of chemicals and hormones linked to temperature. It aids in maintaining salt concentrations and balancing bodily fluids.
The epidermis, sweat glands, and blood vessels, as well as the vents, condensers, and heat ducts of your body's heating and cooling system, are all involved in the hypothalamus' role in controlling body temperature.
Water from the body is kept in the dermis, the middle layer of skin. Perspiration glands are stimulated by heat, and when they do, they release water and salt from the body to the skin's surface as sweat. Water evaporates after reaching the surface. The cooling effect of the body's water evaporation from the skin helps to maintain a healthy body temperature.
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Which statement regarding Next-Generation Sequencing is not true?
a. DNA fragments are mounted in separate locations on the platform.
b. Flashes of light are emitted whenever a base is added during 454 sequencing.
c. Fluorescent dyes are used in Illumina sequencing.
d. No dideoxynucleotides are used in next-generation sequencing.
e. Replication in vitro is not necessary for next-generation sequencing.
The correct option is E ; Replication in vitro is not necessary for next-generation sequencing.
The fundamental method of next-generation sequencing is fragmenting DNA/RNA into numerous pieces, adding adapters, sequencing the libraries, and reassembling them to generate a genomic sequence. In theory, it is analogous to capillary electrophoresis.
The primary distinction between Sanger sequencing and NGS is the amount of data sequenced. While the Sanger method only sequences a single DNA fragment at a time, NGS is massively parallel and can sequence millions of fragments at the same time per run. This method allows for the simultaneous sequencing of hundreds to thousands of genes.
The requirement for PCR amplification prior to sequencing is the major limitation of all 2G NGS approaches. This is due to PCR bias during library creation (sequence GC-content, fragment length, and false diversity) and analysis (base errors/favoring specific sequences over others).
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write two things about the motherboard
Motherboard provides a single socket for CPU and also provide ports to attach the drive.
What is the role of mother board?The motherboard is considered as the backbone that attach the computer's components with another at one place and allows them to talk with each other. Without it, no part of the computer, like the CPU, GPU, or hard drive, could interact with each other. Total motherboard functionality is important for a computer to work effectively.
It provides a single socket for CPU, while on the other hand for memory, normally one or more parts are available. Motherboards provide ports to attach the hard drive, and optical drives through ribbon cables. Motherboard carries fans and place designed for power supply.
So we can conclude that a single socket for CPU and ports to attach the drive by the Motherboard.
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there are critical times when memory problems often manifest themselves. match each critical time on the left with the corresponding cause of the memory problems on the right.
A) software installation, B) first boot of a new computer, C) hardware installation or removal, and D) memory upgrade are answers to each statement given respectively.
The installation of all software items and its components for which a licence was purchased is referred to as a full software installation. Custom installation, as opposed to a complete installation, is the process of choosing the programme features one wishes to put on its system. A alternative operating system can be loaded from an optical disc or USB drive during the first boot procedure, even though computers normally boot from the main storage drive (HD or SSD). For Windows computers, the BIOS setting may be modified, while for Macs, the Startup Disk setting in System Preferences can. the actions involved in setting up, testing, and installing new hardware in a computer. System memory, hard drives, and video cards are examples of new hardware that has been placed in a computer. A RAM or system memory increase is occasionally advised to enhance a computer's performance. A memory update entails either replacing the outdated modules with a set of new, higher capacity ones or adding more memory modules to the current ones.
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The complete question is:
There are critical times when memory problems often manifest themselves. Match each critical time on the left with the corresponding cause of the memory problems on the right.
A) This event can require more memory and can cause problems if there is not enough memory when it occurs.
B) Memory is not properly seated or missing/the motherboard is defective.
C) Incompletely or improperly doing this can cause errors that appear to be memory-related.
D) The memory is not compatible and was not installed and configured properly.
which of the following are reasons why eukaryotes have a more complex gene regulation than prokaryotes?
-RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix
-RNA polymerase must be capable of binding the promoter
Option B, RNA polymerase must be capable of binding the promoter Eukaryotic cells are more complex than prokaryotic cells and therefore have a more complex system of gene regulation.
This is because eukaryotic cells contain a nucleus and other cellular compartments, such as the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus. RNA polymerase ,These compartments create a more diverse cellular environment that requires a more sophisticated system of gene regulation to coordinate the expression of genes. Eukaryotic cells also have a greater number of regulatory elements, such as enhancers and silencers, that can control gene expression in a tissue-specific manner. All of these factors contribute to the more complex gene regulation seen in eukaryotic cells compared to prokaryotic cells.
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The complete Question is:
What are the reasons why eukaryotes have a more complex gene regulation than prokaryotes?
A) RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix
B) RNA polymerase must be capable of binding the promoter
some scientists speculate that the ability of modern humans to survive in the tibetan highlands was a result of the interbreeding of homo sapiens and which of the following?
Some scientists speculate that the ability of modern humans to survive in the Tibetan highlands was a result of the interbreeding of homo sapiens and Denisovans.
Researchers have discovered proof that the Denisovans, an extinct type of humans, lived in Tibet's high mountains. Until recently, Homo sapiens had been thought to be the only species capable of surviving in such harsh conditions. A gene that enables current people survive at high altitudes appears to have been passed down from the ancient ancestor.
Before contemporary humans like us spread throughout the globe tens of thousands of years ago, there was a mysterious human species called the Denisovans that lived in Asia. The only fossils discovered up until recently were a few shards of bone and teeth from Denisova Cave, a single location in Siberia. But DNA analysis had revealed that they belonged to a separate branch of the human family.
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TRUE/FALSE. enzymes secreted by the trophoblast digesting the surface of the endometrium to facilitate implantation.
True, enzymes secreted by the trophoblast digesting the surface of the endometrium to facilitate implantation.
The outermost layer of cells in a blastocyst is called a trophoblast. Four days following fertilization, trophoblasts are seen in human embryos. The two develop into a sizable portion of the placenta and supply the embryo with nutrition. They develop during the first trimester of pregnancy and are the first cells to separate from the fertilized egg to become extraembryonic structures, which are structures that do not directly contribute to the embryo. The term trophectoderm is used to describe the region of the trophoblast that is continuous with the embryo's ectoderm after gastrulation. Since they are unable to develop into trophoblasts, the cells in the human embryo lose their totipotency after the first differentiation and are no longer totipotent stem cells. At this point, they are pluripotent stem cells.
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Which two molecules that form during cellular respiration have more energy than the two molecules they were produced from?
A. ATP
B.FAD
C.FADH2
D.ADP
Answer:
During this stage, high-energy electrons are released from NADH and FADH2, and they move along electron-transport chains found in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion. An electron-transport chain is a series of molecules that transfer electrons from molecule to molecule by chemical reactions.
commercially valuable products from microorganisms include ________, which is used in the manufacture of disposable diapers and plastics.
commercially valuable products from microorganisms include hydroxybutyric acid which is used in the manufacture of disposable diapers and plastics
What exactly is hydroxybutanoic acid?4-Hydroxybutanoic Acid is a short-chain fatty acid that occurs naturally and is an immediate precursor of gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) with neuromodulatory and anesthetic characteristics. GHB (4-Hydroxybutyric Acid) is present in all human tissues, with the greatest concentration in the brain.
What is the purpose of beta hydroxybutyric acid?It gives you energy when you don't consume enough carbs or sweets. BHB can also be synthesized in the lab and used as a supplement. It appears to improve the function of the brain and nerves. It might also provide energy to muscles to improve exercise ability.
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explain why methicillin resistant staphlococcus aureus (mrsa) is more prevalent now than it was only 30 years ago. see section 1.7 (page) .
Frequent and inappropriate use of methicillin-type antibiotics has provided selective pressure that has resulted in an increase in the proportion of methicillin-resistant strains of Staphlococcus aureus.
The methicillin-resistant Staphlococcus aureus is an illustration of Darwin's Theory of Evolution. He believed that three principles drive evolution: Variation - the diversity of organisms permits them to adapt better to their surroundings. Heridity is the transmission of traits required for survival to the following generation. Natural Selection - the organism that is most fitted to its surroundings lives and passes on its features;
There are strains of Staphlococcus aureus that are resistant to antibiotics. The frequent use of the medication, and sometimes misuse of it, might select resistant strains. Because these traits are critical to their survival, they are handed down to the following generation.
This is why the rate of methicillin-resistant Staphlococcus aureus has increased along the years.
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Full Question :Explain why methicillin resistant Staphlococcus aureus (MRSA) is more prevalent now than it was only 30 years ago. See Section 1.7 (Page) . Explain why methicillin resistant Staphlococcus aureus (MRSA) is more prevalent now than it was only 30 years ago. See Section 1.7 (Page) . Methicillin resistance causes an infection to spread more rapidly. Antibiotics cause mutations in Staphlococcus aureus that lead to an increase in the number of methicillin-resistant strains. Frequent and inappropriate use of methicillin-type antibiotics has provided selective pressure that has resulted in an increase in the proportion of methicillin-resistant strains of Staphlococcus aureus. Diseases like AIDS have made people more vulnerable to infections from Staphlococcus aureus.
the pedigree shows the segregation of an autosomal recessive trait. assuming that the mutant allele is a and the normal allele is a, what is the genotype of ii-4? (assume that all individuals from outside the family are homozygous for the normal allele.)
The genotype of II-4 is aa.
The pedigree shows the segregation of an autosomal recessive trait, meaning that the phenotype of an individual with the mutant allele (a) is only expressed when the individual is homozygous for the allele (aa). If the normal allele is represented by the letter A, then the individual with the genotype AA is homozygous for the normal allele and will not express the mutant phenotype.In the case of individual II-4, their genotype can be determined based on the information available in the pedigree.
If their parents (I-2 and I-3) are both heterozygous for the allele (Aa), then there is a 50% chance that they will pass on either the normal allele A or the mutant allele a to their offspring. If II-4 is showing the mutant phenotype, then they must be homozygous for the mutant allele (aa). Therefore, the genotype of II-4 is aa.
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which of the following taxonomic approaches could be used to most accurately classify e. coli k12 and e. coli o157:h7 as separate strains but the same species?
Polyphasic approach is used to most accurately classify E. coli k12 and E. coli o157:h7 as separate strains but the same species.
The three interconnected domains of categorization, nomenclature, and identification that make up bacterial taxonomy are meant to reflect phylogeny and evolution. A consensus style of taxonomy known as polyphasic taxonomy seeks to make use of all the information at hand in defining consensus groupings that will be important for the judgments made in the end.
The bare minimum requirements for obtaining useful polyphasic data are:
(i) a preliminary screening for groups of related strains;
(ii) determining the phylogenetic placement of these groups;
(iii) measuring the relationships between the groups and their closest neighbors; and
(iv) gathering various descriptive data, focusing primarily on various facets of the cell.
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The complete question is:
which of the following taxonomic approaches could be used to most accurately classify e. coli k12 and e. coli o157:h7 as separate strains but the same species?
1) Psychopathic approach
2) Phylogenetics approach
3) Polyphasic approach
4) Polygenic approach
Modern humans (Homo sapiens) and archaic humans called Neanderthals (Homo neanderthalensis) shared a common ancestor in Africa but diverged in different geographic areas. When modern humans migrated out of Africa and dispersed around the world starting about 100,000 years ago, they overlapped with Neanderthals in Europe. What evidence would support the idea that the two species are relatively closely related?
1%–4% of modern individuals with European ancestry human have Neanderthal DNA in our genomes.
Around 500,000 years ago, Homo sapiens, modern humans, and Neanderthals, had a common ancestor. Following their separation, humans in Africa and Neanderthals in Europe underwent parallel evolution. Finally reaching Eurasia, humans had intercourse with Neanderthals and exchanged DNA throughout this time. Their split, according to certain genetic calibrations, occurred roughly 650,000 years ago. Scientists are now unsure as to whether Homo heidelbergensis, Homo antecessor, or another species was the last common heritage of Neanderthals and modern humans due to both date problems and fossil anatomy. A broad head, strong supraorbital ridges (brow ridges), and the absence of a prominent chin are characteristics of archaics that set them apart from anatomically modern humans.
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Which of the following hazards is specific only to sub-surface mining?
Responses
poor air quality
dust
equipment malfunction
Poor air quality hazard is specific to sub-surface mining.
What is sub-surface mining?Subsurface mining is the process of taking a metal or fossil fuel out of the ground. The best and most well-known mining technique is this one. In the process of mining for gold, silver, lead, and even jewels, the subsurface mining method is useful. In addition, mining for coal, salt, and oil sands all benefit significantly from it.
What is mining?Mining is the process of removing valuable geological components from the earth and other astronomical objects. Most materials that cannot be produced artificially in a lab or factory or grown via agricultural methods must be obtained through mining.
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FILL IN THE BLANK one aspect of both nature and nurture that profoundly affects each person is the______ , which refers to all microbes that live within every part of the body.
one aspect of both nature and nurture that profoundly affects each person is the microbiome , which refers to all microbes that live within every part of the body.
The group of microorganisms that live in a certain habitat, including fungi, bacteria, and viruses, is known as the microbiome. The phrase is frequently used to refer to the microorganisms that exist in or on a certain area of the human body, such as the skin or gastrointestinal system. These microorganism groups are dynamic and adapt to a variety of environmental conditions, including physical activity, dietary choices, drug use, and other exposures. All microorganisms, including bacteria, fungi, and viruses, make up the microbiome. Well, we used to consider the bacteria that lived inside of us to be harmful. We have always viewed them as pathogens, and we have always desired to eliminate them, believing that to be the true purpose of antibiotics.
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Please Hurry!!!!I if I cross AaDd x AaDd, what is the probability that I get aadd?
The probability of getting "aadd" if you cross "AaDd" with "AaDd" is low. This is because the chances of getting two dominant alleles (AA) and two recessive alleles (dd) in a single offspring is relatively low.
In a cross between two individuals that are heterozygous for a given trait (Aa), the offspring will have a 50% chance of inheriting each allele (A or a) from each parent. This means that the offspring will have a 25% chance of inheriting the dominant homozygous genotype (AA) and a 25% chance of inheriting the recessive homozygous genotype (dd).
So, the probability of getting "aadd" from a cross between "AaDd" and "AaDd" is (1/4) * (1/4) = 1/16, or approximately 6.25%.
cystic fibrosis is caused by a recessive allele. the frequency of this allele is 0.1 in a populoation of 2500
This means that approximately 250 individuals in the population carry the recessive allele for cystic fibrosis.
What is allele frequency in populations?The number of times the allele of interest is observed in a population is divided by the total number of copies of all the alleles at that particular genetic locus in the population to calculate the allele frequency. However, not all of these carriers will have cystic fibrosis as it is a recessive condition and requires two copies of the allele to cause the disease.
The actual number of individuals with cystic fibrosis in the population would be a small fraction of the number of carriers, depending on the rate of heterozygous carriers having children with another carrier and the resulting frequency of homozygous individuals in the population.
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true/false. The pedigree below shows the inheritance of fur color in Bruins. Fur color in Bruins is determined by a single autosomal gene with three alleles (blue, gold, and white) that exhibit an unknown hierarchy of dominance. Genetic testing shows that individuals I-1 and III-4 are each homozygous for one allele. Use this information and the pedigree to answer the following questions.
T/F:
II-5 and II-6 are more likely to have a white Bruin than a gold Bruin
It is FALSE that II-5 and II-6 are more likely to have a white Bruin than a gold Bruin.
I-1 has a homozygous genotype. I-1 should have the WW genotype.
Blue and white phenotypes are present in the offspring of I-1 and I-2. This shows that at least one white allele exists in I-2. I-2 has a WG genotype. When compared to the white allele, B is dominant.
Given that it is white, genotype II-4 is WG.III-4 is the homozygous person. Its genotype is GG as a result.
Only the progeny with the golden phenotype and GG genotype have the genotype II-5, which has at least one G allele. II-5 has the BG genotype (See Checker board). Here, B has the dominant position against G.
As a result, II-4 and II-5 have more blue than white. However, it was shown that both white and gold bruin have equal probability.
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The complete question is:
The pedigree(See Pic 1) below shows the inheritance of fur color in Bruins. Fur color in Bruins is determined by a single autosomal gene with three alleles (blue, gold, and white) that exhibit an unknown hierarchy of dominance. Genetic testing shows that individuals I-1 and III-4 are each homozygous for one allele. Use this information and the pedigree to answer the following questions.
T/F:
II-5 and II-6 are more likely to have a white Bruin than a gold Bruin.
Binding of calcium to which structure or molecule initiates a contraction in smooth muscle, skeletal muscle, and cardiac muscle? Smooth muscle Active sites Active sites Calmodulin Calmodulin E. Myosin heads F. Myosin heads Skeletal muscle Calmodulin Troponin Tropomyosin Troponin Tropomyosin Troponin Cardiac muscle Troponin Calmodulin Active sites Troponin Troponin Tropomyosin
Calcium binds to:
Calmodulin in smooth muscle.Troponin in skeletal muscle.Troponin in cardiac muscle.Calcium can regulate muscle contractions in the body. When nerves stimulate muscles, the body releases calcium. That way, calcium helps the proteins in the muscles do the contraction work.
In smooth muscle, calcium will form a complex with calmodulin which will activate the enzyme for the phosphorylation of myosin. This myosin has ATPase activity, and actin will move over myosin to produce a contraction.
Troponins are a type of protein in the form of complex chemical molecules that can be found in cardiac and skeletal muscles.
In skeletal muscle, calcium ions will bind to troponin C on the actin filaments and push the tropomyosin filaments to close the gaps in the actin filament active site, so that the active site opens.
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problem 10. (10 pts) determine if each of the following sets is a subspace of pn for an appropriate value of n. you should use the subspace test from the lectures to show that a given set is a subspace, or, if it is not a subspace, exhibit one of the axioms of a vector space that fails to be satisfied. (a) w1 is the set of all polynomials of the form p(t)
The set of all polynomials of the form p(t) is a subspace of pn for an appropriate value of n.
To show that a set is a subspace of pn, it must satisfy the three axioms of a vector space: closure under addition, closure under scalar multiplication, and the existence of an additive identity. The set of all polynomials of the form p(t) satisfies all three of these axioms, and therefore it is a subspace of pn for an appropriate value of n. This means that any linear combination of polynomials in this set will also be a polynomial in the same set, and any scalar multiple of a polynomial in the set will also be a polynomial in the same set. Furthermore, there exists a zero polynomial in the set which acts as the additive identity.
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some aspect of the environment, biotic or abiotic, selects what traits will pass to the next generation during the process of
Answer: Natural selection i think
Explanation:
Some aspect of the environment, biotic or abiotic, selects what traits will pass to the next generation during the process of natural selection.
Natural selection describes how organisms are more likely to survive and reproduce when they possess characteristics that are best adapted to their environment.
In 1859, Charles Darwin published "On the Origin of Species," a book that detailed the process of natural selection.
An evolutionary mechanism is natural selection. Environment-adapted organisms have a higher chance of surviving and dispersing the genes that contributed to their success.
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12. The daily condition of the Earth's temperature is:
a) Weather
b) Climate
c) Biotic factors
d) Biome
Answer: weather
Explanation:
Weather refers to day-to-day temperature, precipitation, and other atmospheric conditions, whereas climate is the term for the averaging of atmospheric conditions over longer periods of time.
Which of the following is not true regarding metabolism?
a. Metabolism involves thousands of different chemical reactions occurring in a living organism.
b. An anabolic reaction is one in which a large molecule is broken down into smaller molecules.
c. Linear metabolic pathways occur when the product of one reaction is used as the substrate of the next reaction.
d. Catabolic pathways result in the release of energy.
e. Some metabolic pathways form a repetitive cycle.
The breakdown of a big molecule into smaller molecules is known as an anabolic process. Answer b is the right response.
Anabolic processes are those that entail fusing together a number of tiny molecules to generate a single, larger molecule. A huge molecule is broken down into smaller ones in catabolic reactions, though.
Examples include glycogenolysis, which is the breakdown of polysaccharide glycogen into glucose, as opposed to glycogenesis, which is the production of polysaccharide glycogen from monomeric glucose.
All biological creatures have metabolism, which is a crucial component. Living things can be distinguished from inanimate objects by this characteristic. In order to create the energy needed for a variety of catabolic and anabolic reactions—which are essential for the survival of all living things—metabolism entails processing resources, such as food.
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Will mark brainly!
Define osmosis and osmotic pressure.
Osmosis a process where solvent molecules move from a less concentrated solution to a more concentrated one by tending to pass across a semipermeable membrane while the osmotic pressure is the least amount of pressure that must be applied to a solution in order to block the passage of the solution's pure solvent through a semipermeable membrane.
History of osmosis studyThe crucial biological process was initially in-depth investigated in 1877 by German plant physiologist Wilhelm Pfeffer. Previous researchers had conducted less precise examinations of leaky membranes (such as animal bladders) and the transport of water and escape chemicals through them in opposite directions. Thomas Graham, a British chemist, coined the term "osmose," which is still used to refer to the process, in 1854.
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In DROSOPHILA MELANOGASTER the genes for normal bristles and normal eye color are known to be about 20 map units apart on the same chromosome. Individuals homozygous dominant for these genes were mated with homozygous recessive individuals. The F1 progeny were then test-crossed. If there were 1,000 offspring from the test cross, how many of the offspring would you predict would show cross-over phenotypes?
The genes for normal bristles and normal eye color in DROSOPHILA MELANOGASTER are located on the same chromosome, roughly 20 map units apart. You predicted that 200 of the offspring would exhibit cross-over traits.
The ratio is 1:2 for a diploid drosophila that possesses XY (1 X to 2 sets of autosomes, since it is diploid). The components that the Drosophila sex chromosome ratio encodes are what improve the production of the sxl protein, which in turn activates the female-specific pathway.
The fruit fly is another name for the drosophila. It serves as a model organism in the fields of developmental biology and genetics. On the X chromosome is the gene responsible for eye color.
= 200 (Since 1000 x 0.20 = 200).
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Correct Question:
In DROSOPHILA MELANOGASTER the genes for normal bristles and normal eye color are known to be about 20 map units apart on the same chromosome. Individuals homozygous dominant for these genes were mated with homozygous recessive individuals. The F1 progeny were then test-crossed. If there were 1,000 offspring from the test cross, how many of the offspring would you predict would show cross-over phenotypes?