Active is the status of a medical record if the patient's last appointment was 5 years ago
What distinguishes active medical records from inactive ones?
While inactive records are read-only and only kept for historical purposes, active records are modifiable and still helpful to the organization today.
"Inactive" refers to records that are rarely accessed but nonetheless need to be kept around for reference purposes or to fulfill the entire retention mandate. Inactive records typically pertain to a patient who has finished their course of therapy or has not sought care in a while. A patient's completed medical record is considered closed when the patient has passed away or is discharged from treatment.
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the nurse is caring for an 18-month-old child who has had surgery. the medical record indicates the child weighs 23 pounds (10.45 kg). when monitoring his urinary output the nurse is aware that normal hourly output should be what value?
The normal hourly urinary output for an 18-month-old child who weighs 23 pounds (10.45 kg) would be approximately 1 to 2 mL/kg/hr. This means the expected normal hourly output for this child would be approximately 10.45 to 20.9 mL per hour.
Why is monitoring the urinary output important?
Monitoring urinary output is important in the postoperative period to assess the child's hydration status and kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance in the body, and urinary output can provide insight into how well they are functioning. A decrease in urinary output can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney function, or other complications. By monitoring this value, the nurse can identify potential problems early and take appropriate action to address them. This can help to ensure that the child's recovery is smooth and that any potential complications are managed effectively.
Hence, the answer is, the normal hourly urinary output for an 18-month-old child who weighs 23 pounds (10.45 kg) would be approximately 1 to 2 mL/kg/hr. This means the expected normal hourly output for this child would be approximately 10.45 to 20.9 mL per hour.
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in reviewing the electrolyes of a client, the nurse notes the serum potassium level has increased from 4.6 meq/l to 6.1 me1/l. which assessment does the nurse perform first to prevent harm
C. Pulse rate and rhythm in reviewing the electrolyes of a client, the nurse notes the serum potassium level has increased from 4.6 meq/l to 6.1 me1/
Pulse rate and rhythm refers to the number of times the heart beats per minute, typically measured at the wrist or neck. A normal pulse rate for adults is usually between 60 and 100 beats per minute, but can vary based on factors such as age, physical activity, and medical conditions. A pulse that is faster or slower than normal can indicate an underlying health issue, such as anemia, fever, or heart disease.Pulse rhythm refers to the pattern of the heartbeats, including any irregularities or variations. A normal pulse rhythm is steady and regular, but an irregular rhythm can be a sign of an underlying condition such as atrial fibrillation or heart block. Monitoring both the rate and rhythm of one's pulse can help in identifying potential health problems and tracking changes over time. refers to the number of times the heart beats per minute, typically measured at the wrist or neck. A normal pulse rate for adults is usually between 60 and 100 beats per minute, but can vary based on factors such as age, physical activity, and medical conditions. A pulse that is faster or slower than normal can indicate an underlying health issue, such as anemia, fever, or heart disease.Pulse rhythm refers to the pattern of the heartbeats, including any irregularities or variations. A normal pulse rhythm is steady and regular, but an irregular rhythm can be a sign of an underlying condition such as atrial fibrillation or heart block. Monitoring both the rate and rhythm of one's pulse can help in identifying potential health problems and tracking changes over time.
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The complete question is:
In reviewing the electrolytes of a client, the nurse notes the serum potassium level has increased from 4.6 mEq/L (mmol/L) to 6.1 mEq/L (mmol/L). Which assessment does the nurse perform first to prevent harm?
A Deep tendon reflexes
B. Oxygen saturation
C. Pulse rate and rhythm
D. Respiratory rate and depth
true/false. a syringe is used to inject the sample into the gas chromatograph where it is vaporized, mixed with gas, and then carried through the tube.
A syringe is used to inject the sample into the gas chromatograph where it is vaporized, mixed with gas, and then carried through the tube is true.
What is used for injecting samples in gas chromatography?
The most common injection method is where a microsyringe is used to inject a sample through a rubber septum into a flash vapouriser port at the head of the column. The temperature of the sample port is usually about 50°C higher than the boiling point of the least volatile component of the sample.
How are samples vaporized in gas chromatography?
In gas chromatography (GC), the sample is vaporized and injected onto the head of a chromatographic column. Elution is brought about by the flow of an inert gaseous mobile phase such as helium, argon, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen.
Which chromatography technique requires the vaporization of samples?
In gas chromatography, the components of a sample are dissolved in a solvent and vaporized in order to separate the analytes by distributing the sample between two phases: a stationary phase and a mobile phase.
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a nurse is teaching a group of women at the local health clinic about reproduction. after describing the various internal structures involved, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which structure as connecting the external structures with the cervix?
A lesson plan was created to educate nursing students about the menstrual cycle. When progesterone and oestrogen levels drop, menstruation follows.
Which hormone would the nurse name as being principally in charge of ovarian follicle maturation?Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), which initiates the formation of follicles (eggs), and oestrogen, the main female hormone, are both produced by the pituitary gland when GnRH encourages it to do so.
What is the first step in creating a lesson plan for patient education?The patient's present understanding of their disease and their knowledge needs are evaluated as the first stage. Some patients need more time to adjust to new knowledge, pick up new abilities, or change their short- or long-term lifestyles.
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after teaching a group of students about adverse reactions to anti-infective agents, the instructor determines that the students need additional teaching when they identify what as a common adverse effect?
Cardiac toxicity can be identified to have a common adverse effect.
If the students identify a common adverse effect of anti-infective agents, but the instructor determines that they still need additional teaching, it may mean that they do not fully understand the implications or severity of that adverse effect. For example, if the students only identify the most common adverse effects of antibiotics, such as diarrhea or upset stomach, but do not recognize the importance of reporting these effects to their healthcare provider, they may still need further education.
Other factors that may indicate a need for additional teaching include if the students are unable to distinguish between minor and serious adverse reactions, or if they do not understand the importance of reporting adverse reactions to their healthcare provider in a timely manner. It is important for students to have a comprehensive understanding of adverse reactions to anti-infective agents so that they can provide safe and effective patient care.
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a client who reports weakness is found to have developed anemia. which physical manifestation does the nurse most closely associated with the specific diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia?
The nurse should look for Cheilitis, Koilinychias, and Glossitis to confirm that now the client has established iron-deficiency anaemia.
Your doctor will request a blood test to check your ferritin, haemoglobin, blood iron, and complete blood count in needed to aid diagnose iron-deficiency anaemia. Lethargy, weakness, and exhaustion are common symptoms of anaemia that patients report.The nurse should look for Cheilitis, Koilinychias, and Glossitis to confirm that now the client has established iron-deficiency anaemia. Shortness of breath, syncope, and a decreased capacity for exercise are all symptoms of severe anaemia. Your doctor will likely conduct a physical examination, inquire about your family medical history, order the subsequent tests, and diagnose anaemia. comprehensive blood count You can use CBC to determine how many blood cells are present in the samples of your blood.
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a nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postpartum and is taking a sitz bath
Answer:
Explanation:
A sitz bath is a shallow bath used to relieve discomfort and promote healing in the perineal area after childbirth. It can also help to reduce swelling and improve hygiene. As a nurse, it is important to ensure the client's safety and comfort during the bath. This may include checking the water temperature, providing a secure and stable surface to sit on, and assisting the client in and out of the bath as needed. Additionally, the nurse should encourage the client to pat the perineal area dry, rather than rubbing it, and to use a clean towel to avoid introducing any infections.
a patient reports difficulty falling asleep most nights and is constantly fatigued. the patient does not want to take medications to help with sleep. what non-pharmacologic measure will the nurse recommend?
The non-pharmacologic measure the nurse would recommend is: Get out of bed at the same time each morning.
What factors affect sleep?
Factors that affect sleep include stress and many medical conditions, especially those that cause chronic pain and other ailments. What we eat and drink, the medicines we take, the sleep environment, etc. External factors can also have a significant impact on sleep quantity and quality.
To facilitate sleep, patients should be advised to wake up at the same time each morning and establish a routine. Avoid strenuous exercise before bed. The patient should not consume alcohol 6 hours before her bedtime. Patients should not take naps during the day. Stick to your sleep schedule. Plan for no more than 8 hours of sleep. Other precautions are, Be careful what you eat and drink. Do not go to bed hungry or full. Create a relaxing environment. Keep your room cool, dark and quiet.
Therefore, The non-pharmacologic measure the nurse would recommend is: Get out of bed at the same time each morning.
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a client is hospitalized with a pressure injury. which task could be delegated to an unlicensed nursing professional (unp)? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
client is hospitalized with a pressure injury. which task could be delegated to an unlicensed nursing professional
B , C , D
Unlicensed nursing refers to the provision of nursing care by individuals who do not hold a valid nursing license. Practicing nursing without a license is illegal and can result in serious consequences for both the patient and the individual providing the care. Unlicensed individuals may not have the necessary training, education, or expertise to provide safe and effective care, which can put patients at risk for harm. It is important for patients to seek nursing care from individuals who are licensed and qualified to practice nursing in order to ensure that they receive the highest quality of care. The use of licensed and qualified nursing professionals helps to maintain standards for patient safety and the delivery of quality healthcare services.
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The full question was here:
a client is hospitalized with a pressure injury. which task could be delegated to an unlicensed nursing professional ? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Providing bath to reduce the clients body temperature
B. Positioning the bed in a low position and keeping the side rails up
C. Monitoring vital signs, such as BP to decrease risk of falls
D. Observing a client who has bad tendencies to prevent adverse incidents
E. Collaborating with family members to provide emotional support for the client post-surgery
the nurse is to administer an opioid antagonist. the nurse knows that the valid reasons for administering this type of medication include what reasons? (select all that apply.)
An opioid antagonist must be administered by the nurse. The nurse is aware that this might be the case of opioid overdose, or to prevent a tumour cell's response to estrogen that is promoting
The correct option is both a and b.
The management of moderate to severe pain is recommended while using opioid analgesia. Opioids are drugs that block opioid receptors in the central nervous system, spinal cord, and peripheral nervous system to reduce pain.
Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) administration of opioids is not covered by this guideline.
Opioid antagonist that can assist in reversing an overdose of opioids. Numerous other long- and short-term negative effects are possible as a result of an opioid overdose, including deadly respiratory depression.
A drug called naloxone can quickly cure an opioid overdose. It is an antagonist to opioids. As a result, it binds to opioid receptors, blocking and reversing the actions of other opioids.
"The question is incomplete. The complete question is:
the nurse is to administer an opioid antagonist. the nurse knows that the valid reasons for administering this type of medication include what reasons? (select all that apply.)
a. reversing an overdose of opioids
b. prevents a tumour cell's response to estrogen that is promoting.
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your patient presents with the following parameters: cvp 0, ci 1.4, pa s/d 10/4, wedge 3 and svr 1800. what is the most likely cause
The most likely cause of the given parameters like CVP 0, CI 1.4, PA S/D 10/4, wedge 3, and SVR 1,800 can be: hypovolemic shock.
Hypovolemic shock is the critical condition of blood loss or any other fluid's loss where the heart is unable to pump enough blood to the body. This results in the sudden stoppage of working of all the organs. The blood loss can be 15% of the total blood volume which makes up to 750 cubic centimeters (cc) of blood.
SVR stands for Systemic vascular resistance. It is defined as the amount of force exerted by the vasculature of the body upon the circulating blood. The average range of SVR in a human body should be 800 to 1200 dynes s/cm⁵.
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a nurse is observing a group of 4-year-old children in a play area. what action, when observed by the nurse, would alert the nurse to typical play for this age group?
"Tell me about the circumstances when this occurs." Bladder control is present in 4- and 5-year-olds, but an occasional accident may occur, particularly in stressful situations or when the child is absorbed in an interesting activity.
What makes RNs unique from regular nurses?The term "RN" refers to a nurse who has previously attained all academic and licensing criteria and has been given a license to practice nursing in the state. There will also be a title or position listed next to "registered nurse."
How would I know whether choosing a nursing career is the best move for me?It may be an indication that you were meant to be a nurse if you have the emotional stability to deal with people and just a need to assist them.
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a recent trend in nursing has been an increase in the number of men and women with degrees in other fields or other careers applying to nursing programs. what is the single most important reason for this trend?
The single most significant factor behind this development. Both job stability and fulfilling work are provided by a profession in nursing.
What makes RNs unique from regular nurses?The term "RN" refers to a nurse who has previously attained all academic and licensing criteria and has been given a license to practice nursing in the state. There will also be a title or position listed next to "registered nurse."
Do RNs have an advantage over CNAs?The range of tasks performed by an RN and just a CNA differs. CNAs, who work as the assistants of RNs or other medical practitioners, do not have the same level of autonomy as RNs in their work. CNAs perform a more constrained job description and are supervised, but because they lighten the load on other staff members, patients receive better care overall.
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upon auscultation of a client's heart rate, the nurse notes the rate to have an irregular pattern of 72 bpm. the nurse notifies the health care provider because the client is exhibiting signs of:
Due to the client's dysrhythmia symptoms, the nurse alerts the doctor.
A dysrhythmia is a pattern of irregular heartbeats. The term "tachycardia" refers to an elevated heart rate of 100 to 180 beats per minute. A pulse rate under 60 beats per minute is considered bradycardia. Blood pressure that is consistently higher than normal is referred to as hypertension. Risk factors for almost any type of arrhythmia include narrowed heart arteries, a heart attack, abnormal heart valves, prior heart surgery, heart failure, cardiomyopathy, and other heart damage. A disturbance in the heart's regular rhythm known as an arrhythmia or dysrhythmia results from changes in the conduction of electrical impulses. These impulses cause and direct the cardiac output-producing atrial and ventricular myocardial contractions.
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The above question incomplete. Check complete question below-
Upon auscultation of a client's heart rate, the nurse notes the rate to have an irregular pattern of 72 beats/minute. The nurse notifies the physician because the client is exhibiting signs of which of the following?
A) A dysrhythmia
B) Tachycardia
C) Bradycardia
D) Hypertension
a pregnant client has a history of preterm births followed by neonatal deaths. which is an indication of preterm labor that this client would be instructed to report?
A pregnant client has a history of premature deliveries and infant fatalities. Pelvic pressure is the most serious warning sign that the client must be trained to report.
Chronic pelvic pain is defined as discomfort that lasts six months or more in the area below your bellybutton and between your hips. There are several reasons of chronic pelvic discomfort. It might be a sign of another disease or a separate problem in and of itself. Pelvic pressure in the pelvic and rectal area causes cramping and groyne discomfort, and it is frequently accompanied by a low backache.
It is also more common in second and subsequent pregnancies. Pelvic Organ Prolapse is normally not a significant health issue, although it can be unpleasant. You may feel pressure on the vaginal wall or a feeling of fullness in your lower abdomen. It may also cause discomfort in the groyne or lower back and make intercourse painful. Kegel exercises or surgery may be beneficial.
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a nurse has performed tracheal suctioning on a client who experienced increasing dyspnea prior to a procedure. when applying the nursing process, how can the nurse best evaluate the outcomes of this intervention?
To better evaluate the results of this intervention, the nurse should measure oxygen saturation.
What is oxygen saturation?It is the amount of oxygen.It is the concentration of oxygen in body fluids.Tranchal suctioning refers to the removal of secretions from the body through suction. The efficiency of this suction is usually measured by oxygen saturation, as the removal of secretions allows for greater absorption of oxygen by the fluids. Therefore, a greater oxygen saturation refers to a more efficient tracheal aspiration.
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during a complete physical exam, in what position is the patient typically placed during the examination of the breast, abdomen, and extremities?
During a complete physical exam, the patient is typically placed in a supine position for the examination of the breast, abdomen, and extremities.
In the supine position, the patient lies flat on their back with their arms at their sides. This position allows the healthcare provider to easily access and examine the breast, abdomen, and legs, and also provides a good view of the patient's skin and any swelling or deformities. The patient may also be asked to change position, such as to the side-lying position, during the physical exam to facilitate the examination of specific areas.
The supine position implies lying on a level plane with the face and middle looking up, rather than the inclined position, which is face down. At the point when utilized in surgeries, it awards admittance to the peritoneal, thoracic and pericardial districts; as well as the head, neck and limits.
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which pain management approach is best for mrs. jessup? a. nsaids and opioid medications, cold application to the back, supported ambulation, and distraction b. aspirin and opioid medications, heat application to the chest and back, bedrest, and reiki therapy c. opioid medication, prayer, and music therapy d. tca, tens, and guided imagery
nsaids and opioid medications, cold application to the back, supported ambulation, and distraction management approach is best for mrs. jessup.
What is opioid medications?
Opioid medications are a type of prescription pain medication that are typically used to treat moderate to severe pain. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord and blocking pain signals from reaching the brain. Common opioid medications include oxycodone, hydrocodone, morphine, fentanyl, and codeine.
Therefore, Option A is correct.
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a nurse is reviewing the immune system before planning an immunocompromised client's care. how should the nurse characterize the humoral immune response?
The nurse characterize the humoral immune response as Antibodies are made by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen. Hence, Option D is the correct answer.
What do we understand by Antibodies?A protein produced in response to an antigen by plasma cells, a type of white blood cell (a substance that causes the body to make a specific immune response). Only one particular antigen can be bound by each antibody. This binding serves to aid in the destruction of the antigen. An antibody is a protein-based element of the immune system that travels through the blood, detects and destroys foreign substances like bacteria and viruses. For instance, IgA is found in the mucous membranes lining the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts, whereas IgG, the most common antibody, is primarily present in the blood and tissue fluids.
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the nurse is preparing to administer an iv antibiotic to a child. after calculating the recommended dose with the child's weight, the nurse discovers the prescribed dose exceeds the safe dose range in a pediatric drug book. the medication has been given to the child at this dose for 3 days. what action should the nurse take next?
When the medication has been given to the child at a dose for three days, the next action is to consult the prescribing professional to confirm the dosage.
Always double-check medication calculations before administering the dose. When a drug dose is discovered to be beyond the recommended safe dose range, the dose has to be confirmed with the prescribing doctor. Regardless of whether they've been administered previously, doses that are higher than the suggested range must always be validated. This drug was not prescribed by the parents. Even after the drug had been administered for three days, the dosage was still incorrect. Only if the dose is outside of the safe range can it be confirmed by calling the pharmacist. The drugstore neither knew the child's medical history nor who prescribed the prescription.
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if a person has a medical condition that has a quality of life index of 0.75, and the condition persisted for two years, then the individual would experience:
If a person has a medical condition that has a quality of life index of 0.75, and the condition persisted for two years, then the individual would experience: 1.50 QALYs during that two-year period.
What is QALYs?
The Quality-Adjusted Life Year (QALY) is a standardised metric that combines quality of life in terms of health and survival to assess the burden of disease. The QALY has also been used to inform decisions about clinical management and specific patient care. It is primarily used in cost-effectiveness analyses to direct decisions regarding the distribution of scarce health care resources among competing health programmes or interventions for a population of interest.
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Polycythemia is a condition where hematocrit numbers are high. High levels make the blood thicker, which can result
in strokes, blood clots, and heart attack. Which patient is most at risk for these complications? What chemical produced
by basophils thins the blood? What drug is often used as a blood thinner?
Polycythemia is most at risk for adults between 50 and 75. Basophils also release an enzyme called heparin that prevents blood from clotting too quickly.
What is Polycythemia?A large concentration of red blood cells in your blood is referred to as polycythemia, also known as erythrocytosis. Blood becomes thicker as a result, making it less able to pass through blood arteries and organs.
Heparin, an enzyme that basophils also secrete, slows down the clotting process. Histamine and heparin are both stored in the granules of basophils.
Heparin and warfarin (commonly known as Coumadin), which are anticoagulants, slow down the clotting process in your body.
Therefore, Polycythemia is most at risk for adults between 50 and 75
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the nurse caring for a client experiencing a panic attack, and anticipates that the psychiatrist would order a stat dose of which classification of medications? ( choose correct answer) the nurse caring for a client experiencing a panic attack, and anticipates that the psychiatrist would order a stat dose of which classification of medications? ( choose correct answer) standard antipsychotic medication. a short-acting benzodiazepine medication. tricyclic antidepressant medication. anticholinergic medication.
A short-acting benzodiazepine medication is the most likely the choice for the psychiatric order for a client experiencing a pa-nic attack therefore the correct option is B.
Benzodiazepines are a class of specifics that act as central nervous system depressants, which help to reduce symptoms of anxiety and fear. These specifics act snappily to reduce symptoms and generally have a short duration of action. They're believed to act at receptors in the brain to increase the exertion of the neurotransmitter GABA,
which helps to reduce anxiety and fear. Benzodiazepines are among the most generally specified specifics for fear attacks and are considered safe and effective when used as specified. They're generally given as a “ stat ” cure, meaning they act snappily to reduce symptoms. still, benzodiazepines can be habit- forming and should only be used.
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the phenomenon that describes the period of time in which a country suffers from both communicable and non-communicable diseases is known as the:
The phenomenon describing the period of time in a country suffering from both communicable and non-communicable disease is known as the double burden.
Communicable diseases are the type of diseases that can spread through contact. This contact can be with another person, an animal, some infected surface or contaminated food. The examples of communicable disease are: Tuberculosis, Coronavirus infections, Dengue, Hepatitis, etc.
Non-communicable disease are the type of disease that are not spread because of contact. These disease may be due to unhealthy habits, some malfunction in the body or some other reason. The examples are: cancer, Diabetes, Heart disease, Chronic lung disease, etc.
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the u.s healthcare system is unusual in which of the following ways, as compared to healthcare systems in other developed countries? The U.S. has a higher percentage of specialists compared to generalists than most other developed countries.
The U.S. has a higher percentage of uninsured patients than other developed countries.
The U.S. has a higher percentage of its costs related to administration than most other developed countries.
The U.S. spends far more per capita and a higher percentage of its GDP than any other country.
A) The US has a higher proportion of specialists and generalists than most other developed countries. This is one of the rarer systems in US healthcare.
The United States costs her more per capita for health care than other wealthy nations. Different countries have different amounts of resources allocated to healthcare. Because each country has its own political, economic, and social characteristics that help determine its spending. The US has a higher proportion of specialists and generalists than most other developed countries. The United States has a higher proportion of uninsured patients than other developed countries. The United States has a higher proportion of costs associated with administration than most other developed countries.
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the nurse is obtaining informed consent from a client. to adhere to ethical and legal standards, the nurse must ensure that the informed consent consists of what? select all that apply.
Option B, The most important aspect the nurse must ensure is included in informed consent to adhere to ethical and legal standards is the explanation of the risks with the procedure or treatment.
This is because informed consent requires that clients legal standards have a clear understanding of what they are consenting to, including any potential harms or benefits. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client has received adequate information about the procedure or treatment, and understands the risks and benefits involved. This will help the client legal standards make an informed decision about their care and protect their autonomy and rights as a patient. It is also important to note that informed consent is an ongoing process and the nurse must continue to assess the client's understanding and legal standards decision-making capacity throughout the course of treatment.
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The complete Question is:
What is the most important aspect the nurse must ensure is included in informed consent to adhere to ethical and legal standards?
A. Explanation of procedure or treatment
B. Risks and benefits associated with the procedure or treatment
C. Alternatives to the procedure or treatment
D. Confirmation of client's understanding of the information provided
which position would the nurse select for an infant with hydrocephalus? on either side and supine supine and trendelenburg prone, with the legs elevated about 30 degrees supine, with the head elevated about 45 degrees
In neutral position the nurse select for an infant with hydrocephalus.
How should the hydrocephalus patient be positioned after surgery?
The newborn receiving a VP shunt must be placed on the back or unaffected side with the head
elevated 15 to 30 degrees.elevated 45 degrees.flat.What is the important nursing care of an infant with increased intracranial pressure?
The head of the bed should be raised to a 30-degree angle, the neck should be in a neutral posture, the body should maintain a normal temperature, and volume overload should be avoided as interventions to decrease or stabilise ICP.
Hence neutral position is a correct answer.
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the nurse is monitoring the healing of a full-thickness wound to a client's right thigh. the wound has a small amount of blood during the wet to dry dressing change. what action should the nurse initiate next?
The action to be initiated by the nurse should be :Look for the hints, such as the full-thickness wound, little blood, and wet to dry dressing. With a full thickness wound, the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissues all the way to the bone are destroyed. Therefore, you would anticipate to observe some minor bleeding or drainage, wouldn't you? Yes. This was anticipated. Simply note this common discovery.
If a full-thickness wound is producing a small amount of blood during a wet-to-dry dressing change, the nurse should initiate the following actions:
Assess the wound: The nurse should inspect the wound for any signs of excessive bleeding or other changes, such as increased redness, swelling, or discharge.
Stop bleeding: The nurse should apply gentle pressure to the wound using sterile gauze to stop the bleeding. If the bleeding does not stop after a few minutes, the nurse should seek additional medical assistance.
Document the findings: The nurse should document the amount and appearance of any bleeding, as well as any other observations made during the assessment, in the client's medical record.
Notify the healthcare provider: The nurse should notify the healthcare provider of the bleeding, as they may need to make adjustments to the client's treatment plan.
Continue to monitor the wound: The nurse should monitor the wound regularly to ensure that it is healing properly and to detect any signs of infection. If the wound becomes more painful, red, or swollen, the nurse should seek medical assistance.
It is important to note that wound healing can be a complex process, and that each client may require different treatments and interventions based on the type and location of their wound, as well as their overall health status and medical history.
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when on a cruise ship, many people wear a skin patch for the prevention or treatment of sea sickness; the term that indicates how the medication is administered (through the skin) is
The term used to describe the administration of medication through the skin is "transdermal." Transdermal medication is delivered through the skin into the bloodstream, allowing for systemic effects without the need for oral or injected administration.
This method of delivery can be useful for various medical conditions, including sea sickness.
In the case of sea sickness, the use of a transdermal patch can be a convenient and effective option for preventing or treating the symptoms of nausea, dizziness, and vomiting. The patch is typically placed on the skin, usually behind the ear, and releases a slow and steady dose of medication over a period of time. This helps to maintain therapeutic levels of the medication in the bloodstream and provides continuous relief from symptoms.
The advantages of transdermal medication delivery include avoiding the first-pass metabolism of oral medications, reducing the risk of adverse effects such as gastrointestinal distress, and allowing for easy and discreet administration. Transdermal medication can also be used for conditions that require a sustained release of medication, such as chronic pain or hormone replacement therapy.
However, it's important to note that not all medications are suitable for transdermal delivery, and it's important to follow the instructions provided by the manufacturer or healthcare provider. The skin patch should be placed on a clean, dry, and hairless area, and should not be covered by clothing or subjected to water or excessive heat.
In conclusion, transdermal medication is a convenient and effective option for the prevention or treatment of sea sickness, as well as a variety of other medical conditions. It provides a slow and steady release of medication through the skin, avoiding the first-pass metabolism and reducing the risk of adverse effects. The nurse should educate the patient and their family on the proper use of the skin patch, and monitor for any adverse reactions or interactions with other medications.
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Correct question: When on a cruise ship, many people wear a skin patch for the prevention or treatment of seasickness; the term that indicates how the medication is administered (through the skin) is
a.intradermal
.b.transdermal.
c.subdermal.
d.subcutaneous
parents of an 8-year-old client report the child struggles with the chore of cleaning their bedroom. what advice will the nurse give to assist with this challenge for a child at this stage of development?
The advices that the nurse may give to assist with the challenge of an 8-year-old child who struggles with their chores are to break the chore into smaller tasks that the child can accomplish easily. For example, tell the child to tidy up their bed first, before then putting the dirty laundry in the hamper.
Piaget divides a child's cognitive development into 4 stages:
Sensorimotor stage (0–2 years old).Preoperational stage (2–7 years old). Concrete operational stage (7–11 years old)Formal operational stage (11 years old through adulthood)An 8-year-old child falls under the concrete operational stage, where children are more capable of solving problems and thinking in perspective.
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