What is the difference between a hypothesis and a theory?
• A. A hypothesis is a possible explanation of a single event based on
observation, while a theory is a unifying explanation based on
many experiments and observations.

B. A hypothesis has been tested, but a theory cannot be tested.
• C. A hypothesis is a description of events, but a theory explains why
the events took place.
D. A theory is a possible explanation of a natural event that has not
been tested. A hypothesis is a question that cannot be answered
through scientific methods.

Answers

Answer 1

The difference between a hypothesis and a theory is a hypothesis is a possible explanation of a single event based on observation, while a theory is a unifying explanation based on many experiments and observations.

What sets a theory apart from a hypothesis?

A hypothesis is a supposition or forecast of an event that can be seen and assessed by an investigation or piece of scientific research. A hypothesis, on the other hand, is a plausible explanation for a phenomenon that may be examined by science.

To Can a hypothesis lead to a theory?

When a strengthened hypothesis overcomes all challenges and establishes itself as the greatest logical explanation for a certain phenomena, it becomes a theory. The hypothesis may need to be changed or even abandoned if there is a sufficient amount of data that either contradicts the hypothesis or supports a more convincing alternative explanation.

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Related Questions

Complexing with calcium dipicolinate and small acid-soluble proteins (sasps) are mechanisms that protect the _____ of an endospore from harsh environmental conditions.

Answers

Complexing with calcium dipicolinate and small acid-soluble proteins (sasps) are mechanisms that protect the chromosome of an endospore from harsh environmental conditions.

endospore is a spore like body that is formed by bacteria in order to in order to deal with harsh environmental conditions. It remains dormant, tough and non reproductive till the suitable environmental conditions returns.

Complexing with calcium dipicolinate helps the bacterial endospore to resist the heat which crucial for facing the environmental conditions.

Small acid soluble protein or SASPs are known to protect the endospore from damage by heat, UV rays and enzymatic actions.

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Why are the ends of the a band the darkest region of the sarcomere when viewed under a microscope? (choose the best response)

Answers

This is because thick and thin filaments intersect there, the ends of the A bands are where they are darkest.

The primary contractile unit of muscle fiber in skeletal muscle is the sarcomere. The protein filaments (myofilaments) that make up each sarcomere are mostly the thick myosin and thin actin filaments. The term "myofibril" refers to the collection of myofilaments.

What are A-bands?

Anisotropic bands of the sarcomere include the A-bands.A-Bands are dark when viewed up close.The H zone, a large light zone, is located in the middle of a band.Primary myofilaments and fragments of secondary myofilaments are found in A-bands.A-band length doesn't alter while the muscle contracts.

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A mutation in the dna that changes the sequence of a codon but does not change the amino acid sequence of the protein describes a ____________.

Answers

A mutation in the dna that changes the sequence of a codon but does not change the amino acid sequence of the protein describes a Silent mutation.

What is Silent mutation?DNA changes known as silent mutations do not manifest themselves in the phenotypic of the organism. They represent a particular kind of neutral mutation. The terms silent mutation and synonymous mutation are sometimes used interchangeably; nevertheless, neither synonymous mutations nor quiet mutations are always the same. As a result of the nucleotide change not altering the amino acid being translated, approximately 99.8% of genes that have mutations are regarded as silent. The Multi-Drug Resistance Gene 1 is one mutation that disproves the theory that quiet mutations do not affect phenotypic outcome.An example is the shift from AAA to AAG, which codes for the amino acid lysine (which also codes for Lys).

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__________ are tunnel-like junctions that can occur anywhere along the lateral membranes of adjacent cells.

Answers

Gap Junction are tunnel-like junctions that can occur anywhere along the lateral membranes of adjacent cells.

Gap Junction- The intercellular networks known as gap junctions enable ions and small molecules to pass freely between cells. Nearly all cells in solid tissues are connected by gap junctions, which were initially discovered as low-resistance ion channels joining excited cells (nerve and muscle).

Cells- The fundamental units of all living organisms are cells. There are many billions of cells in a human body. They provide the body structure, absorb nutrients from meals, turn those food into energy, and perform certain tasks. A cell is a unit of tissue found in an animal's muscle.

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The embryonic skeleton is made of hyaline cartilage. why is it necessary for the embryonic skeleton to first be formed from a cartilage matrix?

Answers

Malleability is necessary during the growth period within the tight space of the maternal uterus.

Uterus- In the reproductive system of those who are born with the gender given to them, the uterus is a pear-shaped organ (AFAB). During pregnancy, a fertilized egg implants there, and the baby grows there until it is born. Additionally, it is in charge of the menstrual period. It is frequently called the womb.

Hyaline Cartilage- The transparent, glass-like cartilage that covers numerous joint surfaces is called hyaline cartilage. In addition, it is frequently discovered in the ribs, nose, larynx, and trachea. Pearl-grey in color, firm in texture, and containing a sizable quantity of collagen, hyaline cartilage exhibits these characteristics.

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The client has been diagnosed with cutaneous anthrax in a cut on the right hand. what measure should be implemented by the nurse to prevent further spread of the disease?

Answers

Standard precautions should be implemented by the nurse to prevent further spread of the disease

What is Cutaneous anthrax ?

The most prevalent and regarded least hazardous type of anthrax infection is cutaneous anthrax. Typically, an infection appears one to seven days following exposure. Cutaneous anthrax can occur when anthrax spores enter the skin, typically through a cut or scrape.

People who handle contaminated animal items including wool, bone, hair, and hide are most likely to contract anthrax. When bacteria enter a skin cut or scratch, an infection develops. Some anthrax infections are brought on by inhalation (lung) of the bacteria's spores.

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Which organ is responsible for manufacturing and secreting digestive enzymes and bicarbonate? liver pancreas stomach gallbladder

Answers

Pancreas is the organ which is responsible for manufacturing and secreting digestive enzymes and bicarbonate.

Pancreas is an organ as well as a gland. It is a part of the digestive system. It is responsible for releasing the glucose regulating hormones: insulin and glucagon, as well as it secretes pancreatic juices that help if digestion of food.

Digestive enzymes are those involved in the breakdown of different food components. There are different enzymes for digesting the sugars, proteins, lipids, etc. Some of the examples of enzymes are: lipase, pepsin, sucrase, lactase, maltase, etc. These enzymes are released in the mouth, small intestine and stomach of the body.

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A child with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder is prescribed atomoxetine. the nurse would assess the child closely for which adverse reactions?

Answers

Weight and height - The nurse needs to carefully track this child's weight and height because the drug can cause weight loss, anorexia, and nausea that could result in slowed or absent growth.

Commonly, consistent dieting is where anorexia starts. It may eventually cause excessive and unhealthy weight loss. Due to your concern about gaining weight, you might utilize extreme dieting and food restriction techniques.

There are two subtypes of anorexia:

Restrictor type - People with the restrictor kind of anorexia drastically restrict their food intake. Typically, this comprises foods that are heavy in fat and carbohydrates.

Bulimic (bingeing and purging) type - Bulimics force themselves to vomit after overeating. They might use other techniques, such as taking a lot of laxatives, to get their bowels moving.

Duodenal ulcer disease is the most frequent cause of anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and discomfort. Functional dyspepsia and irritable bowel syndrome are close behind.

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The concave surface of the ulna that wraps around the trochlea of the humerus is the?

Answers

The olecranon fossa, which is located above the trochlea of the humeral condyle on the central aspect of the posterior humerus, enables the humerus to accept the olecranon of the ulna when it is extended. The trochlea notch, which is shaped like a C, is carved out of the olecranon, which is the proximal end of the ulna.

The ulna and humerus where they articulate?

Elbow

The diaphysis, a long bony shaft with hyaline cartilage caps at either end, is how the ulna initially appears at birth. The distal epiphysis, a small bony cap that forms on the end of the hyaline by the wrist around age 4, starts to ossify around this time.

On the back of the humerus, above the trochlea, is the olecranon fossa, a deep triangular depression. When the forearm is extended, it gives the olecranon of the ulna room to move. lecranon fossa

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As you drive down the road, a car suddenly swerves into your lane. your heart starts to race, and you begin to perspire. this reaction is being caused by your ___________ nervous system.

Answers

This reaction is being caused by parasympathetic nervous system.

Parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) is a network of nerves that relaxes the body after periods of stress or danger. It also helps run life-sustaining processes, like digestion, during times when it feel safe and relaxed.

Example, Saliva: The PSNS increases saliva production as part of its rest-and-digest function. Saliva includes enzymes that aid in the digestion of meals. Lacrimation: The term "lacrimation" refers to the act of crying. The eyes' fragile tissues are preserved by the lubrication provided by tears.

Lubrication- By applying a thin coating of a solid, liquid, or gas to two moving solid surfaces, lubrication minimizes friction and wear without endangering the surfaces themselves.

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The quality of education one receives refers to the __________.
A. type of college one attends
B. type of education one receives
C. level of reading one acquires
D. how much education one receives Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D

Answers

B : the type of education one receives

The pad of fatty tissue that covers the area of the pubic bone is called the ________.

Answers

The pad of fatty tissue that covers the area of the pubic bone is called the mons pubis

The pubic bone is protected by a fatty cushion called the mons pubis. The mons, or mons veneris in females, is another name for it. Although both have a mons pubis, females tend to have it more pronounced.

Females tend to have a large mound of tissue that is typically covered in pubic hair. During sexual contact, the mons pubis serves as a source of cushioning. Sebaceous glands that release pheromones to promote physical attraction are also found in the mons pubis.

The mons pubis is a part of the vulva. This is the rounded region in the bottom portion of the belly that is in front of the pubic bones (abdomen). At puberty, it grows hair all over it. The vulva has two skin folds.

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When cells become too cold (i.e., the body temperature drops too low), how is their functioning affected?

Answers

When cells become too cold, cell function slows down.

All cells in the body need optimum temperature at which they can perform best. Also, most enzymes in the body work best at normal body temperature.

When a cell becomes too cold, the optimum temperature for the enzyme to work is no more there. The optimum temperature required by the cell is also not there. Hence, the functioning of the cell slows down in such a condition.

For a cell to function properly, it needs optimum conditions like optimum temperatures, optimum pH, optimum water level, etc. If these conditions are not met, a cell is unable to perform optimally.

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Excess tyramine caused by monoamine oxidase inhibitors (maois) can result in what?

Answers

The answer to the above question is Hypertensive crisis.

What is Hypertensive crisis?

A hypertensive crisis is characterized by severely increased blood pressure (equivalent to or more than a systolic pressure of 160 or a diastolic pressure of 110; also known as malignant or accelerated hypertension), which carries a high risk of consequences. Although those with blood pressure in this range may not experience any symptoms, they are more likely than the general population to report headaches and lightheadedness. A hypertensive crisis may also be accompanied by other symptoms including dyspnea from heart failure, deteriorating vision from retinopathy, or a general feeling of malaise from kidney failure. Blood pressure is known to be raised in most patients experiencing a hypertensive crisis, but there may have been additional triggers that caused a fast increase.

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An unconditioned stimulus ____. a.is paired with a conditioned response b.requires conscious effort c.automatically triggers a physiological reflex d.is acquired through practice

Answers

An unconditioned stimulus c. automatically triggers a physiological reflex

What is matched with an unconditioned stimulus?

In Pavlovian conditioning, an originally neutral stimulus that is paired with the unconditioned stimulus is known as a conditioned stimulus. For instance, a tone was heard shortly before the air puff reached the cornea of the eye.

The meal served as the unconditioned stimulus in Pavlov's experiment. A reflexive response to a stimuli is referred to as an unconditioned response. In Pavlov's experiment, the dogs' unconditioned reaction was their salivation for food.

Unconditional behaviour does not require learning; it is innate and natural. Only until an unconditioned stimulus has developed a mental association with a conditioned stimulus can a person acquire a conditioned response.

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The complex external covering composed of two or three layers found on the majority of bacteria is termed the cell?

Answers

The complex external covering composed of two or three layers found on the majority of bacteria is termed the cell envelope.

Bacteria are the prokaryotic microorganisms that cannot be seen through unaided eyes. These are omnipresent creatures that can be visualized only under a microscope. The examples of bacteria are: E. coli, Helicobacter pylori, Lactobacillus, etc.

Cell envelope is the outermost layer that gives the cell its structure integrity and also protects the cell. The envelope is composed of three layers: cell membrane, cell wall and an outer membrane (if present). The envelope is also involved in the cell growth and division.

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The flow of information from a gene to a protein proceeds through which sequence?

Answers

The flow of information in a cell proceeds through the sequence from DNA to RNA to protein.

What is DNA?

Deoxyribonucleic acid is a polymer made of two polynucleotide chains that coil around one another to form a double helix and which contains the genetic material necessary for the growth, development, and reproduction of all known organisms as well as a large number of viruses. They are both nucleic acids, as is DNA .

The nucleotide chain that constitutes DNA is made up of different molecules. There are three groups of sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen bases in every nucleotide. DNA can contain Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C), four different nitrogen bases (C).

All of the genetic data that an organism needs to grow, function, and reproduce is stored in DNA, which serves this purpose. In essence, it is your body's biological instruction manual, which is present in every cell.

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Differences in structure between a dna helix and an rna helix can predominantly be attributed to the presence of _____ in rna.

Answers

Differences in structure between a DNA helix and an RNA helix can predominantly be attributed to the presence of 2' hydroxyl group in RNA.

What is DNA?

Deoxyribonucleic acid, a polymer made of two polynucleotide chains that coil around one another to form a double helix, contains the genetic material required for the growth, development, and reproduction of all recognized organisms as well as a number of viruses. Ribonucleic acid (RNA) and DNA are examples of nucleic acids. Along with proteins, lipids, and complex carbohydrates (polysaccharides), nucleic acids are one of the four main categories of macromolecules required for all known forms of life.

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Why is technology not the solution to all scientific problems?

Answers

Answer:

Below

Explanation:

Technology is only as smart as humans are. Sure, many humans can work on a single piece of technology, meaning that a computer or other piece of tech is smarter than any individual person, but they can still never reach beyond the intelligence of humanity. Therefore, if we can't solve a problem, nothing technological can either

The eukaryotic ribosome is a(n) __________ ribosome, composed of 40s and 60s subunits.

Answers

The eukaryotic ribosome is a 80S ribosome, composed of 40s and 60s subunits.

Ribosome are the nucleoprotein structures. It is involved in the formation of proteins in the process of translation. Ribosomes are composed of two separate units: a smaller one and  a larger one. They can be found lying in the cytoplasm of the cell or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.

80S ribosome is the characteristic of eukaryotic organisms. The smaller unit of it is 40S and the larger one is 60S. The S in the ribosome refers to the Svedberg unit. It is a sedimentation coefficient. Heavier is the structure, higher is the sedimentation coefficient.

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The endosymbiotic theory proposes that eukaryotic cells arose as a result of large cells engulfing smaller, aerobic bacteria. the organelle that provides evidence for this theory is?

Answers

The endosymbiotic theory proposes that eukaryotic cells arose as a result of large cells engulfing smaller, aerobic bacteria. The organelle that provides evidence for this theory is mitochondria.

Endosymbiotic theory says that some of the organelles of eukaryotic cells arose from the prokaryotic creatures. Mitochondria and chloroplast are some organelles. The evidence for the theory was given by the technique gene sequencing.

Mitochondria is the double membranous cell organelle. The inner membrane is folded into finger-like projections called cristae. These increase to surface area of mitochondria to produce maximum amount of ATP. The mitochondria has its own DNA which is circular in structure and this gives the evidence for endosymbiotic theory.

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Which molecule is translated into an amino acid sequence?
a. ribosomal rna
b. messenger rna
c. transfer rna
d. primer rna
e. ribozymes

Answers

b. messenger RNA molecule is translated into an amino acid sequence.

The central dogma is a process through which information from DNA is converted into proteins via messenger RNA. Central dogma comprises the process of transcription and translation.

Through the process of transcription, information from the DNA is transferred into the messenger RNA.

Through the process of translation, information from the mRNA is translated to form an amino acid sequence for proteins.

Each mRNA transcript acts as a codon. This codon is complementary to amino acid sequences required for the formation of proteins. Hence, the correct option is messenger RNA.

The process of translation occurs in the ribosomes where the tRNA brings the amino acids which will form the complementary anti-codons.

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when mendel crossed a plant homozygous for round seeds to another plant homozygous for wrinkled seeds, he found that all the progeny had round seeds.

Answers

When Mendel crossed a plant homozygous for round seeds to another plant homozygous for wrinkled seeds, he found that all the progeny had round seeds. This happened because the allele for round seed is dominant over the allele for wrinkled seeds.

Homozygous is the condition of genotype where the pair of alleles are of the same type. These alleles are present in the same locus of the sister chromatids. Presence of homozygosity is necessary for expressing the true-breeding line of any organism.

Dominant alleles are those that have the ability to mask up the effect of another allele. Such alleles can express their character even during heterozygous condition where only one such allele is present.

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During the time that a planet is in its period of apparent retrograde motion: __________ view available hint(s)

Answers

During the time that a planet is in its period of apparent retrograde motion: over many days or weeks, the planet moves westward relative to the stars, rather than the usual eastward relative to the stars; option D.

What is a retrograde motion of a planet?

A retrograde motion of a planet is an actual or apparent motion of a planet in a direction opposite to that of the motions of most members of the same solar system or planetary system.

This is a  real or actual movement but results due to the relative motion of other planets.

In conclusion,  retrograde motion of a planet is an apparent and not a real motion

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Note that the complete question is given below:

During the time that a planet is in its period of apparent retrograde motion, _________.

A. the planet moves backwards (clockwise as viewed from above Earth's north pole) in its orbit of the Sun

B. the planet appears to rise in the west and set in the east, rather than the usual rising in the east and setting in the west

C. the planet is getting closer to the Sun in its orbit

D. over many days or weeks, the planet moves westward relative to the stars, rather than the usual eastward relative to the stars

If you made a change in the promoter sequence in the dna, what would happen at the rna level?.

Answers

Any change in the promoter sequence will make in unrecognizable and hence the RNA polymerase will not be able to identify it. As a result, no RNA will ne transcribed.

Promoter sequences are the repetitive sequences in the DNA present upstream of the gene. These sequences are recognized by the proteins like RNA polymerase and the process of transcription begins. Any change in these sequences can stop the whole process of transcription.

RNA polymerase is the enzyme that begins the process of transcription. The enzyme is a composition of various subunits. Prokaryotes have only one RNA polymerase whereas eukaryotes have three RNA polymerases.

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Out of the following age groups, which has changed significantly the most over time in the United States? Ages under 5 years Ages above 80 years Ages 25 to 34 years Ages 35 to 44 years

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The estimated population of the U.S. was approximately 331.89 million in 2021, and the largest age group was adults aged 30 to 34. There were 11.67 million males in this age category and around 11.43 million females

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The two processes that occur during respiration are? a) ventilation and diffusion. b) inspiration and expiration. c) diffusion and oxygenation. d) oxygenation and ventilation

Answers

The two processes that occur during respiration are Inspiration and Expiration. The two fundamental elements of pulmonary ventilation are inspiration and expiration.

The process through which air departs the lungs is called expiration, and the process by which air is inhaled is called inspiration. A respiratory cycle is one round of inhaling and expiration.

Expiration (breathing out) and inspiration (breathing in) are necessary processes for the body to absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide. In contrast to inspiration, which includes the active contraction of muscles like the diaphragm, exhalation is frequently passive unless it is forced.

The rib cage's intercostals, parasternal, scalene, and neck muscles, which mostly influence the top portion (pulmonary rib cage), function as both inspiratory and expiratory muscles.

In order to breathe, the abdominal muscles contract against the rib.

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A client experiences an increase in thyroid hormone as a result of a thyroid tumor. which hormonal response demonstrates the negative feedback mechanism?

Answers

A client experiences an increase in thyroid hormone as a result of a thyroid tumor. The hormonal response that will demonstrate the negative feedback mechanism is decreased production of Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

Negative feedback mechanism also called as inhibitory loop is the process of controlling the output of the body. Whenever any output like protein or hormone is produced in excess amount the body works the negative feedback mechanism to inhibit the excess of output by the body.

When there is thyroid tumor excess amount thyroid hormone is produced due to uncontrolled growth of the cells. Hence negative feedback mechanism occurs by decreasing the production of the Thyroid stimulating hormone which in turn decreases the production of thyroid.

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Bacteria and other pathogens that normally populate the skin's surface are called:_____.

Answers

these are called normal skin flora

1._____is the amounts of material an object has with gram as the basic unit 2.weighing is more accurate than _____ 3.in measuring dry ingredients,it should level with the______
4.leaved-off with____when filling dry ingredients is a measuring cup
5.in measuring liquid,place glass or plastic cup on a_____surface






Answers

Answer:

the mass of an object is the amount of material it contains.

Weighing is more accurate than volumn measurement.

in measuring dry ingredients,it should level with th  back of a knife.

4

5

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