The information which the nurse who is reviewing the procedure for vitamin k injection in the newborn would provide to the student will be that Vitamin K is required in the body for blood clotting.
Vitamin K injections are given to newborns to prevent serious diseases such as haemorrhagic damage or its deficiency to the newborn. It can be given to newborns in the form of drops or injections but the injections are safer and more effective.
The injection should be given as IM (intramuscular) dose injection within 6 Hours post birth. One intramuscular (IM) dose of vitamin must be given routinely within the time period (0.5 mg for infants weighing ≤1,500 g or 1.0 mg for infants weighing >1,500 g).
The student should make sure that follow up doses are important. If the newborn is not ready for injection then oral medicine in form of drops can be given.
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According to occam's razor, if you have a headache, what is the mostly likely explanation of this symptom?
Answer:
It means that you are dehydrated.
Explanation:
You're at a party with some of your closest friends when, to your surprise, your best friend pulls out a marijuana joint. she asks you if you'd like to smoke it with her, and when you decline, she says that one little puff can't really hurt and that you should try it. this is an example of which type of negative peer pressure?
This is an example of direct negative peer pressure, where the pressure to engage in a certain behavior comes directly from one's peers.
What is a Negative Peer Pressure?Negative peer pressure is a form of social influence where peers encourage or pressure an individual to engage in behaviors that go against their values, beliefs, or best interests.
In this case, the type of here is direct negative peer pressure, where the pressure to engage in smoking marijuana, comes directly from one's peers. The friend is attempting to persuade the person to engage in the behavior by downplaying the potential risks and using peer influence to make the person feel like they should comply.
The person in this situation may feel conflicted between their desire to fit in with their friends and their personal values or beliefs, and it is essential to recognize and stand up to direct negative peer pressure in order to make the right decisions for oneself.
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The nurse is assessing a patient for the movement of the hip ball-and-socket joint. which range-of-motion (rom) exercise should the nurse ask the patient to perform to assess adduction?
The nurse should ask the patient to move the leg back toward the medial position.
What is nursing assessment?A nursing assessment is a process of gathering relevant patient information by a registered nurse.
The nurse should ask the patient to move the leg back toward the medial position and beyond if possible so as to check for adduction in the hip joint.
Nursing assessment helps a nurse to give accurate help to a patient and reduce the risk of wrong medications.
In conclusion, there are specific range of motion exercises for different nursing assessments as it helps to identify the needs of a particular client.
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A parent brings a 6-year-old to the clinic and informs the nurse that the child is tired all the time, even though the child sleeps 7 to 8 hours each night. what is the best response by the nurse?
Answer:
The response should be: It is completely normal for a child this age to be tired because he is growing alot more now.
Infections and infectious diseases begin in a place where disease organisms grow and reproduce. what is this place called?
Infections and infectious diseases begin in a place where disease organisms grow and reproduce, its called:
Reservoir/Susceptible host
What is Reservoir/Susceptible host?
The person, animal, thing, or substance from which an infectious agent is transmitted to the host is referred to as a source of infection. Reservoirs are locations where infectious agents that are still alive and active can infect people.
Diseases caused by organisms like bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites are referred to as infectious diseases. Numerous species live inside of our bodies. They are generally advantageous or even secure. But in specific circumstances, some bacteria have the capacity to cause disease.
Some infectious diseases have the potential to spread from person to person. Others are transmitted by insects or animals. And if you consume contaminated food or water or come into contact with environmental organisms, you could catch others.
Though they may differ depending on the organism causing the infection, fatigue and fever are frequent indications and symptoms of infection. While moderate infections can be treated with rest and at-home remedies, severe illnesses that could be fatal might necessitate hospitalisation.
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Irene has excellent fine motor coordination. In what activity would she MOST likely excel based on this skillset?
The correct answer about fine motor coordination.
Fine-motor coordination is the capacity to synchronise the actions of the eyes and hands in order to carry out precise manipulating motions. It requires the regulation of the body's tiny muscles (eye-hand coordination). The reflexive grab and avoidance behaviours, which become integrated and improved with advancing age and experience, appear to be the first precursors of fine-motor control.
The majority of manipulative tasks need the use of two hands working together. These actions are known as bi-manual ones. Uni-manual activities are actions like opening a door that need only one hand. The third category of manipulating activities is graphic, which includes things like handwriting and drawing.
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Answer:
Playing the piano
Explanation:
Took the test and got it right,
if you want the reason though fine motor coordination is the ability to execute smooth, accurate, controlled motor responses. Fine motor coordination exercises are designed to improve the coordination of small muscles in the hands, fingers, and wrists that enable precision and dexterity of movement. These exercises can be broken down into different motor components that impact the ability to use the hands in functional tasks and tool use.
Hope this helped !!
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (ra). Which assessment finding does the nurse expect to assess?
According to the research, the correct option is persistent inflammation of the joints. It is the assessment finding that the nurse should expect to assess.
What is rheumatoid arthritis?It is a systemic and chronic inflammatory disease in which the joints become inflamed, producing pain, deformity and difficulty in movement, although it can also affect other parts of the body.
In this sense, the joints that are most frequently inflamed are the wrists, fingers and toes, and there may be difficulty starting movements, said persistent inflammation can end up damaging the bones and ligaments.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is persistent inflammation of the joints. It is the assessment finding that the nurse should expect to assess.
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Which question would be most helpful in beginning an initial assessment interview for a client who has just been admitted to a psychiatric inpatient unit?
The question which would be most helpful in beginning an initial assessment interview for a client who has just been admitted to a psychiatric inpatient unit is "What brings you into the hospital today?"
Initial assessment is that the method of distinctive a human learning and support must change set design of a personal learning plan which can offer the structure for his or her learning. In different words it determines the learner's place to begin for his or her learning program.
The focus in psychiatric unit is on treating mental state by providing medicine assessments, prescribing medications, and giving therapies like cognitive-behavioral medical care (CBT), dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), supportive psychotherapy, and family therapy.
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How would the nurse explain the purpose of standard precautions to the nursing assistant on a surgical unit?
On a surgical unit, the nurse would describe to the nursing assistant the goal of conventional measures in order to reduce the possibility of spreading unknown germs.
No matter the diagnosis or suspected infectiousness of a client, all staff members take the same measures for all client situations.
Standard precautions mandate that healthcare professionals, not patients, wash their hands and wear personal protective equipment to keep others and themselves safe from bodily fluids. A client's identified illness supports the use of transmission-based precautions, such as airborne, droplet, and contact precautions.
Describe pathogens.
Phylogenetically, Pathogens Disease in humans is caused by a wide variety of infections. The most well-known are bacteria and viruses. Diseases caused by viruses range from the common cold and smallpox to AIDS.
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Which type of ventilation relies on doors and windows on the same level as the fire?
Fire-prone areas should have horizontal fire ventilation.
How is horizontal ventilation set up?In buildings, it is frequently impossible to create openings above the fire. This could happen, for example, if there is a fire in an apartment within an apartment complex or in an industrial structure with a lightweight concrete roof, in which case the only available ventilation is through the windows or doors already in place.
The fundamentals of so-called horizontal ventilation are outlets that are situated at the same level as the fire.
Because of this, fire gases often do not move upward through the building and instead exit via the outlets in a horizontal pattern (normally windows or doors).
Utilizing the building’s permanent apertures (windows, doors, or vents) to the fullest extent is how horizontal ventilation is often carried out in order to exhaust the fire gases.
Outlets should be used in high-position openings on the leeward side. As inlets, you should use openings that are low to the ground on the windward side.
In this manner, the gases can be vented out while making the best use of the thermal buoyancy force of the hot gases and the wind pressure
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Infants by age _____ months will imitate acts modeled on television. 12 10 16 14
Even when they are performed by a stranger using an unknown object, as they could be when watching TV at home, babies as young as 14 months old will imitate behaviours seen on TV.
Do kids copy what they see on television? Who do kids most frequently imitate?According to this research, babies as young as 14 months old will imitate what they watch on television, and toddlers as young as 2 are more likely to do so, even if the person they are imitating is a stranger. Your small toddlers are obviously imitating you to learn.
Infants and early children up to the age of five are more likely than out-group members to emulate one another, according to recent research. Gender, ethnicity, age, and linguistic cues are strong predictors of social groups and consequently of group membership.
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A nurse may administer norethindrone to a female client for which reason?
Answer:
• Treatment of amenorrhea
• Treatment of endometriosis
• Prevention of pregnancy
Explanation:
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A nurse is teaching an inservice regarding prevention of venous thromboembolism. which nursing interventions should be included in the teaching?
When a thrombus (like deep vein thrombosis) forms and embolize into the bloodstream, it is termed as venous thromboembolism (VTE) (eg, pulmonary embolism). Hospitalized patients sometimes have several risk factors for VTE, such as endothelial damage from operations or IV catheter placement, as well as venous stasis from prolonged immobility.
Which type of venous thrombosis occurs most frequently?The most common kind of venous thrombosis is DVT (Deep vein thrombosis) in the leg. A clot can develop anywhere within the venous system. An embolus is a blood clot that has either partially or completely separated from the vein where it developed and is now moving through the venous system.
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Pretend you are teaching a friend the difference between the words Anatomy & Physiology. Describe using the academic language you leaned in class the difference between the two.
Which nursing theory is useful in promoting self-management for a patient with diabetes taking insulin?
The rationale would the nurse understand for placing a chest tube after an infants open-heart surgery is to reduce intracranial pressure.
What is the problem of myelomeningocele repair?The side-lying position with the head slightly elevated promotes venous return by gravity, which helps reduce intracranial pressure, a problem after myelomeningocele repair.
Although preventing aspiration, promoting respiration, and maintaining cleanliness of the suture line are all important, the reason for this position that is unique with this type of surgery is that it minimizes intracranial pressure.
Therefore, The rationale would the nurse understand for placing a chest tube after an infants open-heart surgery is to reduce intracranial pressure.
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The current recommendation is to drink
O a 8 glasses of water a day
1 gallon of water per hour
O 1 pint of water per day
Od 16 your body weight in ounces every day
Answer:
8 glasses of water every day.
Explanation:
A client is prescribed misoprostol. the nurse would expect to administer this drug by which route?
A client is prescribed misoprostol. The nurse would expect to administer this drug by ORAL route.
Misoprostol can be administered orally, vaginally, sublingually, buccally, or raptorially. Studies on the pharmacokinetics of misoprostol administered vaginally vs orally have revealed that vaginal misoprostol had delayed absorption, lower peak plasma levels, and slower elimination, much like an extended-release medication. 4–6 Additionally, misoprostol administered vaginally is linked to stronger cervix and uterine effects as well as a larger area under the curve (AUC) and a bigger total exposure to the medication. 5 However, there is a considerable range in the way that different women absorb misoprostol via the vaginal epithelium.
3 Between vaginal misoprostol administered dry and vaginal misoprostol moistened with water, saline, or acetic acid, there is no clinically discernible difference.
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#1. Which is a consumable product?
A. Soap
B. Helmet
C. Bicycle
D. Cd player
An adolescent girl with a seizure disorder controlled with phenytoin and carbamazepine asks the nurse about getting married and having children. which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
The response by the nurse for an adolescent girl with a seizure disorder controlled with phenytoin is to consult with her healthcare provider to change medication.
What is phenytoin?Phenytoin is a special drug medication used for the treatment of seizures which has been associated with increased risks during the pregnancy stage.
In conclusion, the response by the nurse that would be most appropriate if an adolescent girl with a seizure disorder controlled with phenytoin and carbamazepine asks the nurse about having children is to consult with her healthcare provider to change medication.
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For patients to be eligible for hospice care, physicians using must certify that they are not expecting to live beyond how many months?
For patients to be eligible for hospice care, physicians using must certify that they are not expecting to live beyond 6 months or less.
Hospice care focuses on the care, comfort, and quality of lifetime of someone with a significant health problem who is approaching the top of life. At some purpose, it's going to not be potential to cure a significant health problem, or a patient could opt for to not endure sure treatments.
Patients admitted to hospice from a hospital are possibly to die at intervals six months. Those admitted from home are possibly to die at intervals six months and people admitted from nursing homes are least likely.
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The manager schedules a staff nurse to attend a motivational interviewing training session. which nurse behavior caused the manager to make this decision? select all that apply.
The manager schedules a staff nurse to attend a motivational interviewing training session and the nurse behavior which caused the manager to make this decision include interrupting the client, minimizing the client’s concerns and arguing with a client over agreed upon plans.
Training in motivational interviewing is a guide. Motivational interviewing (MI) is an evidence-based treatment which will facilitate people to resolve feeling regarding change. Specifically, it's a “collaborative, person-centered variety of guiding to elicit and strengthen motivation for change”
Benefits of motivational interviewing include: serving to clients to require responsibility for themselves and their actions, encouraging clients to examine a future freed from abuse or psychological state struggles and making ready clients to become additional receptive to treatment.
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Which patient is considered to be at an increased risk of a fluid and electrolyte imbalance?
Elderly people have a lesser percentage of body water and are thus at an increased risk of fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
What is the importance of electrolytes?Your body contains minerals called electrolytes that carry an electric charge. They are present in your tissues, blood, urine, and other bodily fluids. Electrolytes are essential since they:
Ensure that the water in your body is in balance.Balance the acid-base (pH) ratio in your body.Expel waste from your cells.Ensure that your heart, muscles, brain, and nerves all function as they should.Electrolytes include substances like sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, and magnesium. You obtain them through the meals and liquids you consume.
Your body's electrolyte levels might fluctuate between too low and too high. When the amount of water in your body varies, this may occur.
Therefore, older adults, who have lesser water concentration, will be at risk of experiencing fluid and electrolyte imbalance.
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Descriptive epidemiology describes the determinants of a health problem.
a. true
b. false
Option B) False
Descriptive epidemiology does not describe the determinants of a health problem.
Descriptive epidemiology entails the distribution, and pattern, of a disease in a population by describing details of the distribution, pattern, and parameters involved.
What is descriptive epidemiology?Descriptive epidemiology is defined as epidemiological studies that include activities that either fall within the descriptive region of the descriptive-analytic spectrum or have descriptive components that are much stronger than their analytical components.
In simple terms, descriptive epidemiology describes the outbreak in terms of a person, place, and time.
Descriptive epidemiology can also generate hypotheses of any etiologic research. Ecologic and cross-sectional studies are the most commonly applied descriptive epidemiology studies.
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Which structure of the integumentary is responsible for producing sweat and helping
to cool the body?
sebaceous gland
epidermis
sudoriferous gland
dermis
Answer: Sudoriferous glands
Explanation: These are the glands that secrete sweat through your skin. There are two types of sweat glands: eccrine glands and apocrine glands. Eccrine glands are all over your body and open to your pores, while apocrine glands open into your hair follicles.
Your team served first in a game of pickleball and scored three points, it is the other teams turn to serve now, how would they say the score of the game? (This is a question for P.E)
Answer0-3
Explanation:brain;y
The nurse in the health center is conducting assessment related to risk for infection on different age clients. Which clients are at higher risk of acquiring infection?
Nursing implications for a client taking central nervous system (cns) stimulants include monitoring the client for which conditions?
Nursing implications for a client taking central nervous system (cns) stimulants include monitoring the client for conditions such as tachycardia, weight loss, and mood swings.
What is a central nervous system (cns) stimulant?A central nervous system (cns) stimulant is a type of drug that has the ability to bind to the receptors in the Central nervous system which helps to enhance its activities.
Examples of central nervous system (cns) stimulants include the following:
amphetamines, methylphenidate, atomoxetine, modafinil, armodafinil, pitolisant and solriamfetol.The side effects or adverse effects that may be encountered when taking central nervous system (cns) stimulant include the following:
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A registered nurse is caring for a patient experiencing fluid volume excess. which assessment finding is anticipated?
Edema is a symptom of excess fluid in the tissues and outside the vascular space. TTT: Define the terms "excess" and "deficit."
What is edema?Edema is the accumulation of fluid in your body tissues, which causes swelling. Any part of your body can develop edema, however it usually shows up more noticeably in the hands, arms, feet, ankles, and legs. Edema may result from taking medication, being pregnant, or having an underlying condition, which is commonly liver cirrhosis, congestive heart failure, or renal disease.
Taking drugs to drain excess fluid and ingesting less salt are two common ways to treat edema. The underlying condition must be addressed separately when edema is a symptom..
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The nurse is discussing the therapeutic effects of bethanechol (urecholine) with a patient who is receiving this drug for urinary retention. the nurse understands that bethanechol:___________
Bethanechol increases the bladder's and the organs that support urination's contractions.
An alpha-2 antagonist medicine called bethanechol decreases the quantity of water in the bladder and enhances muscular spasms in the area around urination. This movement makes it easier and faster for urine to be released, which might lessen UTI or hyperactive bladder symptoms. In addition, by reducing constipation, Bethanechol may help to reduce overall digestive distress.
What is Bethanechol?It has been demonstrated that the choline derivative bethanechol enhances cognitive performance in dementia patients. As a result of this substance's inhibition of the acetylcholinesterase enzyme, acetylcholine levels rise. Because acetylcholine is crucial for learning and nerve cell communication, bethanecholar supplementation may aid dementia patients with Alzheimer's disease or other types of dementia by raising their levels.To learn more about Bethanechol, visit:
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Which client should the nurse anticipate will be at greatest risk for alteration in quality of life as a result of loss?
A client which is 45-year-old with severe depression should be anticipated by nurse as a client with greatest risk for alteration in quality of life as a result of loss.
What is depression?
A serious medical illness that commonly has an impact on a person's feelings, thoughts, and behaviors is known as major depressive disorder, also referred to as depression. Fortunately, it can also be treated. Depression is characterized by sadness and/or a loss of interest in former pastimes. It can affect your performance at work and at home and lead to a variety of mental and physical problems.
Therefore, A 45-year-old client with severe depression should be considered by the nurse as having the highest chance of experiencing a change in quality of life as a result of loss.
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