1,000 mg per dose would be appropriate for the nurse to administer to this child in one dose.
A dose is a set amount of a medicine, vitamin, or pathogen that is given as a unit. The greater the dose, the greater the amount delivered. Doses are commonly set in medicine for drugs. The term often refers to the amount of medication or other agent given for therapeutic purposes, but it can also apply to any scenario in which a chemical is administered to the body. In nutrition, the term usually refers to the amount of a certain nutrient in a person's diet or in a specific dish, meal, or dietary supplement.
If a dosage range of 20 to 40 mg per kg of body weight is a safe dosage range, and a child weighs 31 kg, the low dose of this medication would be 31 X 20 = 620.
The high dose of this medication would be 31 X 40 = 1,240.
Therefore, a dose of 1,000 mg per dose would be appropriate.
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which aspects of antiparkinson therapy increase the patient's risk of infection? (select all that apply.)
Antiparkinson therapy increase the patient's risk of infection in so many different ways mainly by Long-term use of antiparkinson medications so therefore the correct option is A.
One of the most common ways is through the administration of dopamine receptor agonists, which can reduce the body's natural vulnerable response. also, these medicines can intrude with the immersion of certain vitamins and minerals, which can make an existent more vulnerable to infection.
Other antiparkinson drug specifics, similar as levodopa, can also reduce the body's vulnerable system response and make a case more susceptible to infection. Eventually, because some of the medicines used to treat Parkinson's complaint can beget side goods similar as dry mouth, the case may be more likely to develop an infection in the mouth.
The question is incomplete the complete question is:
which aspects of antiparkinson therapy increase the patient's risk of infection? (select all that apply.)
-Long-term use of antiparkinson medications
-Use of levodopa
-Immunosuppressant therapy
-Deep brain stimulation
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as part of a 31-year-old client's prenatal care, the nurse is assessing immunization history. which immunization is most relevant to ensuring a healthy fetus?
As part of a 31-year-old client's prenatal care, the nurse is assessing immunization history. Rubella immunization is most relevant to ensuring a healthy fetus.
What is fetus?
The unborn child that develops from an animal embryo is known as a foetus or foetus. The foetal stage of development follows embryonic development. Fetal development in humans starts in the ninth week following fertilisation and lasts until birth.
The danger to the foetus from maternal rubella exposure during pregnancy is greater than that from hepatitis, measles, diphtheria, tetanus, or pertussis.
Hence the correct answer is Rubella.
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a nurse is working with a 25-year-old woman who has struggled with anger, depression, and anxiety since her mother stole her identity and opened up seven different credit cards in her name. the nurse recognizes this as which type of abuse?
Through listening and demonstrating interest in the client, the nurse needs to build rapport with them. Compassion rather than judgment must also be displayed by the nurse.
What distinguishes registered nurses from other types of nurses?A nurse is known as a "RN" if she has met all academic and licensing requirements in the past and has been granted a license to practice nursing in the state. In addition to "registered nurse," a title or job will also be mentioned.
What criteria should I use to decide whether a nursing career is right for me?You may know you were meant to be a nurse if you have the emotional stability to cope with people and a sincere desire to help them.
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why is breakfast considered the most important meal of the day? do you eat breakfast? why or why not?
There is a concrete reason why breakfast is frequently referred to as "the most essential meal during the day." The morning meal ends the overnight fast. It restores glucose to increase energy and alertness.
What is considered breakfast?When eaten within two to three hours of waking up, morning is the very first breakfast of the day which breakers the fast well after longest duration of sleep. It can be eaten anywhere and must include items from at only one food group.
Why should you eat breakfast?These are merely a few justifications for why breakfast is the most crucial breakfast of the day. Breakfast consumption has been associated in numerous studies to improved memory and focus, reduced levels of "bad" LDL cholesterol, and a decreased risk of developing insulin, cardiovascular disease, and just being overweight.
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you are on-scene with a 48-year-old unresponsive male patient. bystanders state he complained of chest pain and then suddenly collapsed. vital signs are blood pressure 68/42, pulse 36, and respiratory rate 3. he is unresponsive to painful stimuli. after performing the primary assessment and treating all life threats, what is your next intervention?
The next intervention would be to call for advanced medical help and begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) if the patient does not regain consciousness. If the patient regains consciousness, treatment should be provided to address the underlying causes of the chest pain.
What is cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency procedure used to restore circulation and breathing in a person who has stopped breathing or whose heart has stopped beating.
It involves chest compressions and artificial respiration. CPR can help restart a person's heart and breathing and can potentially save their life.
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which drug is used to decrease the risk of myocardial infarction in patients with unstable angina or previous myocardial infarction?
The drug typically used to decrease the risk of myocardial infarction in patients with unstable angina or previous myocardial infarction is an antiplatelet medication such as aspirin, clopidogrel, or ticagrelor.
What is myocardial infarction?Myocardial infarction, commonly referred to as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition in which there is a lack of oxygen to the heart muscle due to a blocked or narrowed coronary artery. The blockage is caused by a buildup of fatty plaques, which impede the flow of oxygen-rich blood to the heart. This can result in damage or death of a portion of the heart muscle. Symptoms of a heart attack include chest pain, shortness of breath, fatigue, and cold sweats. Treatment of myocardial infarction involves restoring blood flow to the heart as quickly as possible. This may involve clot-busting medications, angioplasty and stent placement, or bypass surgery. Prevention of myocardial infarction involves lifestyle changes such as eating a healthy diet and exercising regularly, as well as taking medications to reduce cholesterol and blood pressure, if needed.
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which action will the nurse take that reflects diagnostic reasoning used to arrive at a nursing diagnosis
In diagnostic reasoning, nurses can collect patient data and analyze it to determine patient problems.
Diagnostic reasoning is a process of seeking information that is reflective and involves the patient so that an in-depth and contextual understanding of the patient's clinical problems can be obtained.
Reasoning features:
Logical thinking process. Interpreted as an activity of thinking according to a certain logic. Thoughts are objectively weighed and based on valid data.Analytical in nature. The analysis is essentially an activity of thinking based on certain steps. Rational. What is being reasoned is a fact or reality that can be thought about deeply.Learn more about diagnostic reasoning at https://brainly.com/question/28487728
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which precautions would the nurse include when discussing home oxygen therapy with a patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd)?
The average SaO2 for COPD patients should be between 88 and 92% (as opposed to between 94 and 98% for most acutely sick patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory collapse).
What is chronic ?
Generally speaking, chronic diseases are problems that last for a year or longer, necessitate continuous medical care, restrict everyday activities, or both. In the US, the most common causes of death and disability are chronic illnesses like diabetes, cancer, and heart disease
What is precautions ?
Application of personal protective equipment (e.g., gloves, masks, eyewear). Cough etiquette and respiratory hygiene. safety of sharps (engineering and work practise controls).
Therefore, average SaO2 for COPD patients should be between 88 and 92% (as opposed to between 94 and 98% for most acutely sick patients who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory collapse).
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a couple who is in for fertility testing ask the nurse what tests are commonly performed to assess fertility. the nurse replies that there are only three primary tests that are used. what are these tests?
Evaluation of tubal patency, examination of the semen, and ovulation monitoring are the three test for fertility testing.
What are tests for fertility testing?A sperm analysis, commonly known as a seminogram or spermiogram, assesses specific features of a male's semen and the sperm that are present inside it. When attempting to conceive or confirming the success of a vasectomy, it is done to assist in evaluating male fertility.
Most women use a home ovulation test. It assists in identifying the stage of the menstrual cycle when conceiving is most likely to occur. Luteinizing hormone (LH) is detected in the urine as it rises during the test. The ovary is told to release the egg by an increase in this hormone.
If a woman's fallopian tubes are unblocked, this condition is known as tubal patency. A procedure termed hystero-(uterus)salpingo-(fallopian tube)graphy uses x-rays to evaluate the patency of the tubes (HSG). Typical radiological imaging tests include HSG.
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a patient has from seizures in postoperative ward. how would the nurse ensure continued safety of the patient
In a postoperative ward, a patient who had seizures has made a full recovery. The nurse must ensure continued safety of the patient by raising the side of bed rails, call light and intercom should be kept near the patient, and the bed placed in lowest position, thus the correct options are A, C, and E.
After a seizure, the side rails of the bed should be raised to prevent a fall to ensure the client's ongoing safety. The customer would benefit from having access to the call light and intercom so they may summon aid if necessary. To reduce the chance of a fall and associated injuries, the bed should be lowered to its lowest setting. Instead of lying flat, the client should be placed in a side-lying position. The tongue is kept from falling back and clogging the airway by resting on one's side. Now that the seizure has passed, the head should be supported by a pillow.
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The complete question is:
A client has recovered from seizures in a postoperative ward. How does the nurse ensure continued safety of the client? Select all that apply.
A. The side rails of the bed should be raised.
B. The client should be placed in supine position.
C. The call light and intercom should be kept near the client.
D. The use of pillows should be avoided.
E. The bed should be placed in the lowest position.
the nurse has asked the client to stand for 30 seconds with his arms forward, palms up, and eyes closed. the client pronates (turns downward) his left palm during the test. what health problem should the nurse first suspect in light of this assessment finding?
The health problem that the nurse first suspected according to the tests carried out was the possibility of impaired nerve function.
What is pronation?Pronation is the movement of the forearm muscles so that the palms face downwards or backward. This movement is usually done to determine the disturbance of muscle function.
However, if the client stands for 30 seconds with his hands forward, palms up, and eyes closed, it is done to find out the function of the nerves. The nerve is a complex network whose role is to regulate every activity of cells, tissues, and organs in the body. One way to find out its function is to do a balance test.
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what is a reason that providers can be excluded from participation in medicare or medicaid? a. healthcare fraud and controlled substance abuse b. healthcare fraud c. healthcare fraud and substance abuse d. controlled substance abuse
Participation in Medicare or Medicaid constitutes health care fraud as well as the production, distribution, prescription, or dispensing of banned medications.
Which of the following does Medicare not cover?Non-medical services like a private hospital room, hospital TV and phone, postponed or missed appointments, and x-ray copies. In simplest terms, a government exclusion list is a roster of individuals and organizations that are not eligible to participate in federal or state contracts due to criminal behavior or misconduct.
Who is excluded from participation in federal health care programs?Most of the exclusions resulted from convictions for crimes relating to Medicare or Medicaid, patient abuse or neglect, financial misconduct, controlled substances, or as a result of license revocation.
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which intervention would the nurse implement immediately for the client with moderate hypothermia? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
A. Provide warm blankets
B. Provide warm fluids
C. Increase the room temperature
D. Remove wet clothing
a woman who has given birth to a baby girl by cesarean delivery is experiencing abdominal pain. the client receive a bolus dose of morphine intravenously. the nurse would recommend that the mother refrain from breast-feeding the baby for how long?
Abdominal discomfort is being experienced by a mother who had a cesarean delivery of a girl. An intravenous bolus dosage of morphine is given to the patient. The correct option is A, that is, the nurse would recommend that the mother refrain from breast-feeding the baby for 4 to 6 hours.
Abdominal discomfort is being experienced by a mother who had a c-section to give birth to a girl. An intravenous bolus dosage of morphine is administered to the patient. To make guiding suggestions simpler, a panel of the US Nuclear Regulatory Commission has suggested that nursing be stopped for 24 hours following administration of all technetium Tc 99m diagnostic products, even though this period of time may be longer than necessary. Some specialists advise nursing the child right before the radiopharmaceutical is given, pausing breastfeeding during 4 to 12 hours after the treatment, and then totally extracting the milk once and throwing it away. During the break in breastfeeding, a woman who has expressed and conserved milk before the examination might give it to the baby. After receiving the typical clinical dosages, mothers are not needed to avoid close contact with their infants.
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The complete question is:
A woman who has given birth to a baby girl by cesarean delivery is experiencing abdominal pain. The patient receives a bolus dose of morphine intravenously. The nurse would recommend that the mother refrain from breast-feeding the baby for how long?
A. 4 to 6 hours
B. 18 to 24 hours
C. 12 to 16 hours
D. more than 24 hours.
a client is treating a skin mycosis with a topical antifungal agent in troche form. the nurse would alert the client to what possible adverse effect?
The nurse would warn the client about the possibility of Nausea. Option D is correct.
Nausea may develop with troche usage owing to GI tract absorption of portion of the medication. If the drug was delivered as a vaginal suppository, cream, or gel, it might cause burning or increased urine frequency. Rash is most commonly related with cream, lotion, or spray application.
Mycelex is a prescription medication used to treat Dermatophytosis or Cutaneous Candidiasis symptoms such as tinea pedis (Athlete's foot), tinea cruris (Jock itch), and tinea corporis (Ringworm), as well as Vaginal Candidiasis and Superficial Dermatologic Infection. Mycelex can be taken alone or in combination with other drugs. Mycelex belongs to the Antifungals, Topical medication class. It is unknown whether Mycelex is safe and effective in children under the age of 12.
The complete question is
A client is treating a skin mycosis with a topical antifungal agent in troche form. The nurse would alert the client to what possible adverse effect?
a. Burning on urination
b. Rash
c. Urinary frequency
d. Nausea
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brianna returned to full-time employment six weeks after her baby's birth. she exclusively breast-fed during her maternity leave, and then pumped her breast milk when she returned to work. now her baby is 3 months old and drinks some formula when at daycare. brianna wants to stop breast-feeding. if you were a pediatric nurse, what would you say to her?
I would advise Brianna to gradually stop breast-feeding, for example by reducing the frequency of breast-feeding and replacing it with formula or other forms of nutrition. I would also suggest that she speak to her health care provider for further advice and support.
What is breast-feeding?
Breastfeeding is the act of feeding an infant or young child with breast milk directly from the mother's breast. It is the most natural and healthiest way to provide nutrition for newborns and young infants. Breast milk provides the perfect balance of nutrients for babies and helps protect them from infections and diseases.
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a registered dietitian who coordinates medical and nutritional needs and provides nutritional services for patients in institutions such as hospitals and nursing care facilities is called a .
Clinical dieticians are licensed dietitians who coordinate patients' medical and nutritional needs and offer nutritional treatments in settings like hospitals and nursing homes.
What does a Clinical dieticians do?
A clinical dietician's main responsibility is creating nutrition plans that will help patients improve or maintain their health. These initiatives could be momentary, like making sure an accident victim gets the right nourishment up to full recovery. For patients with chronic illnesses like diabetes, kidney disease, or ageing that impair optimal nutrition, they might also be long-term. The plans created may be therapeutic to help a patient with heart disease maintain a baseline level of nutrition and health, or they may be preventive for heart disease or obesity.
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Correct question:
A registered dietitian who coordinates medical and nutritional needs and provides nutritional services for patients in institutions such as hospitals and nursing care facilities is called a _____.
a client is very concerned about the harmful effect that all microorganisms may have. the best response by the nurse would be:
As a response to a client that is overly concerned about the harmful effect microorganisms may have, the nurse may tell the client something along the line of "Not every interaction between humans and microorganisms are detrimental."
Microorganisms are organisms that only can be seen through a microscope. In another word, they can not be seen by the n.aked eye. There are many types of organisms that can be categorized as microorganisms, such as bacteria, protozoa, algae, and fungi.
While invisible bacteria and fungi may sound scary, truthfully, microorganisms play a huge role in human life and health. Not only to make humans sick, but also to help our bodies digest food, protect ourselves against infection, and even maintain our reproductive health.
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a client is reading a brochure on atherosclerosis while in the waiting room of medical clinic. which excerpt from the educational brochure warrants correction?
"Because smoking causes a permanent increase in your risk of heart disease, it's best not to start." excerpt from the educational brochure warrants correction.
Atherosclerosis is a kind of arteriosclerosis in which the arterial wall develops irregularities termed lesions. Because of the accumulation of atheromatous plaque, these lesions may cause narrowing. There are normally no symptoms at the start, but if they do appear, they usually appear around middle age. Depending on which arteries are involved, it might cause coronary artery disease, stroke, peripheral artery disease, or renal difficulties.
In general, prevention involves eating a good diet, exercising, avoiding smoking, and keeping a normal weight. Treatment for established illness may include cholesterol-lowering drugs such as statins, blood pressure medication, or anti-clotting medications such as aspirin. Atherosclerosis-related abnormalities emerge in infancy.
The complete question is:
A patient is reading a brochure on atherosclerosis while in the waiting room of medical clinic. Which of the following excerpts from the educational brochure warrants correction?
"Because smoking causes a permanent increase in your risk of heart disease, it's best not to start.""All things being equal, men have a higher risk of coronary heart disease than peri-menopausal women.""High blood pressure often accompanies, or even causes, clogging of the arteries.""Every bit that you can lower your cholesterol means that you'll have a lower risk of developing heart disease."To learn more about atherosclerosis, here
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hip arthroplasty due to severe rheumatoid arthritis in the hip. during her pre-operative exam, a chest x-ray is taken. what diagnosis is reported for the chest x-ray?
A chest X-ray taken during a pre-operative exam for hip arthroplasty due to severe rheumatoid arthritis in the hip would typically not result in a diagnosis specifically related to the hip.
Arthroplasty is a surgical procedure to repair or replace a joint, such as the hip or knee, in order to relieve pain and improve joint function. It is often performed in cases of severe joint damage due to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or other joint conditions. During the procedure, the damaged joint is removed and replaced with an artificial joint, known as a prosthesis. The goal of arthroplasty is to reduce pain, improve joint movement, and restore the patient's ability to perform daily activities. There are different types of arthroplasty, including total joint replacement, partial joint replacement, and revision joint replacement, depending on the extent of joint damage and the patient's individual needs. The success of arthroplasty largely depends on the patient's age, general health, and the specific type of joint replacement used.
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which of the following best practices will help to prevent infection caused by the administration of local anesthetic? group of answer choices wipe needle with disinfectant. store anesthetic cartridges in disinfectant solutions. sheath needle before and immediately after injection. all options listed.
The best practice that will help to prevent infection caused by the administration of local anesthetic is to sheath needle before and immediately after injection. Option C is correct.
Best practises for preventing infection from local anaesthetic delivery include maintaining the sheath on the needle before and quickly replacing the sheath after the injection. Needles are pre-sterile, and if contamination occurs, the needle should be destroyed correctly. It is not recommended to store anaesthetic cartridges in disinfectant solutions since it may contaminate the anaesthetic or corrode the metal cap.
A local anaesthetic (LA) is a drug that eliminates pain sensations. In contrast to a general anaesthetic, a local anaesthetic produces an absence of pain in a specific place of the body without causing loss of consciousness. When administered on specific nerve pathways (local anaesthetic nerve block), it can potentially cause paralysis (loss of muscular strength).
The complete question is:
Which of the following best practices will help to prevent infection caused by the administration of local anesthetic?
a. Wipe needle with disinfectantb. Store anesthetic cartridges in disinfectant solutionsc. Sheath needle before and immediately after injectiond. All options listedTo learn more about Local anaesthesia, here
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a nurse researcher who is considering whether to use a qualitative research design should be aware that the focus of qualitative research is
Qualitative research focuses on understanding and interpreting a phenomenon from the perspective of the participants. It is often used to explore how people think, feel, and experience a particular issue or situation.
Qualitative research is ideal for gaining insight into social and cultural issues, as it allows the researcher to capture in-depth information about the perspectives and experiences of the research participants.
What is phenomenon?
A phenomenon is a remarkable or unusual event, fact, or occurrence that is observable and can often be studied or explained by scientific methods. Phenomena can be natural or man-made, and can be physical, social, psychological, or metaphysical in nature.
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during a day one postpartum assessment, the fundus is palpated 2/u and deviated to the right side of the abdomen, the nurse should suspect that the patient has
During a day one postpartum assessment, the fundus is palpated 2/u and deviated to the right side of the abdomen, the nurse should suspect that the patient has distended bladder.
What is distended bladder?
An swollen or inflamed bladder is referred to as having a distended bladder. In addition to causing swelling, pressure on the bladder from either an internal or external source can also result in the need to urinate even when the bladder is empty.
The uterus will move when there is a full bladder. It is not expected to find a palpable fundus on the right side of the abdomen above the normal level. The client's stance shouldn't change the uterine position. The uterus is being forced out of place by a full bladder.
Hence the correct answer is distended bladder.
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which condition should prompt the emergency nurse to observe for signs and symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation
Placental abruption should prompt the emergency nurse to observe for signs and symptoms of disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Which observation is connected to abruptio placentae?
Before giving birth, placental abruption happens when the placenta separates from the uterus' inner wall. A placental abruption can deprive the infant of oxygen and nourishment while also leaving the mother with severe bleeding. Sometimes an early delivery is necessary.
Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is characterized by bleeding, uterine contractions, and fetal discomfort in patients. In the early treatment of amniotic fluid embolism, we advise the provision of appropriate oxygenation and ventilation as well as, where indicated by hemodynamic state, the use of vasopressors and inotropic drugs. Fluid administration in excess should be avoided.
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which assessment finding of a newly admitted 30-year-old male client would be most likely to cause his physician to suspect polyarteritis nodosa?
The assessment finding of a newly admitted 30-year-old male client that would be most likely to cause his physician to suspect polyarteritis nodosa is the man's blood pressure is 178/102 and he has abnormal liver function tests.
Polyarteritis nodosa is a systemic necrotizing inflammation of blood vessels that mostly affects medium-sized muscle arteries, frequently including arteries of the kidneys and other internal organs but sparing the circulation of the lungs. Small aneurysms are strung like rosary beads, making the "rosary sign" a significant vasculitis diagnostic characteristic. PAN is sometimes related with hepatitis B or hepatitis C viral infection. Infants may be affected by the disorder.
PAN may impact almost every organ system, resulting in a wide range of signs and symptoms. These symptoms are caused by ischemia damage to the afflicted organs, which include frequently the skin, heart, kidneys, and nervous system. Constitutional symptoms include fever, exhaustion, weakness, lack of appetite, and unintended weight loss in up to 90% of afflicted persons.
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true or false? some benefits under medicare part a include hospital stays, skilled nursing care, and home health care.
True, some benefits under medicare part Ainclude hospital stays, skilled nursing care, and home health care.
What are the 4 Medicare plan types?
Medicare is divided into four parts: Parts A, B, C, and D. Inpatient/hospital coverage is provided by Part A; outpatient/medical coverage is provided by Part B; a different method of receiving Medicare benefits is provided by Part C ; and prescription medication coverage is provided by Part D.
Part A includes coverage for some home health care as well as inpatient hospital stays, care in skilled nursing facilities, and hospice care. such as intravenous injections, which can only be administered by a licensed nurse or physician. Your utilization of hospital and skilled nursing facility (SNF) services as determined by Original Medicare
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harry was a preterm newborn who was born after 26 weeks of prenatal development. he is now a healthy, happy 2-year-old. harry's ability to survive after being born so early was due in part to his reaching the .
Harry's ability to survive after being born so early was due in part to his reaching the age of viability.
What is a premature newborn?
Premature birth, also referred to as preterm birth, occurs when a baby is delivered too soon, before the full 37 weeks of pregnancy have passed. The risk of death or major disability increases with the time of birth.
What is the primary reason for premature births?The causes are frequently unknown, but include numerous pregnancies, infections, and chronic illnesses like diabetes and high blood pressure. Another possibility is a genetic element.
Hence age of viability is a correct answer.
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missy is a 36-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus. she requests a refill of her insulin on november 1. she has completed the primary series of mmr, dtap, and hepatitis a vaccines, and she received a dose of tdap 2 years ago. she had a physician-confirmed case of chickenpox as a child. missy is not pregnant. which of the following vaccines should missy receive?
Ask your doctor about the chickenpox vaccine if you're thinking about getting pregnant and you haven't had chickenpox or received a vaccination yet.
Do chicken pox vaccines exist?To prevent chickenpox, there are two vaccines available: Both children and adults are protected from chickenpox by the vaccine. Children are shielded from measles, mumps, rubella, and chicken pox by the MMRV vaccine.
What if I'm pregnant and my child develops chicken pox?Contact your GP, midwife, or NHS 111 right away if you believe you have chickenpox while pregnant. Getting chickenpox during pregnancy can lead to for both the mother and the unborn child, so you should seek medical attention very once.
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true or false? data in the medical record is the primary source for documenting the provision of services.
The given statement "that data in the medical record is the primary source for documenting the provision of service" is true beacuse.
Data in the medical record is the primary source for establishing the provision of services. The medical record serves as a legal document that provides substantiation of the care handed to a case. It also serves as a communication tool between providers, and as a source of information to estimate and ameliorate the quality of care.
The medical record documents the case’s history, physical assessments, judgments , treatments, specifics, and issues. It also serves as a depository for test results, imaging studies, and other data. The medical record should be comprehensive, accurate, and timely in order to give the stylish possible care to the case.
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patient underwent surgery to remove a basal cell carcinoma, which was submitted to the pathologist intraoperatively for diagnosis and evaluation of adequacy of the surgical margins. pathology consultation during surgery included one basal cell carcinoma tissue block specimen, which required frozen section to confirm the adequacy of excision.
In this case, the patient underwent a surgical procedure to remove a basal cell carcinoma (BCC), a type of skin cancer.
What is surgical?Surgical procedures are medical operations performed on patients to diagnose or treat a range of medical conditions. These operations can be minor to complex, depending on the type of procedure. Surgical procedures are typically performed under the supervision of a qualified surgeon, often with the help of a surgical team that includes nurses, anesthesiologists, and other medical professionals.
During the procedure, a tissue sample was sent to the pathologist for diagnosis and evaluation of the surgical margins. The pathologist then used a frozen section technique to determine if the margins of the BCC had been adequately removed. If the margins were deemed inadequate, the surgeon would then need to remove more tissue to ensure that all of the cancer cells had been removed. After the procedure, the tissue sample was then sent to the laboratory for further histopathological evaluation.
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