The home health nurse should go through the following information while instructing a client with neurological urinary tract dysfunction how to undertake intermittent self-catheterization:
1) The right way to clean the genital area in preparation for catheterization.
2) Detailed directions on how to put the catheter correctly.
3) Information about the appropriate catheter size and type.
4) Importance of keeping a clean and sanitary atmosphere and washing your hands.
5) Techniques to minimize discomfort and bladder spasms while the treatment is being done.
6) Information on how to keep used catheters safely stored and disposed of.
7) Instructions on how to correctly keep an eye out for issues including bladder spasms or a urinary tract infection.
8) Voiding is important both before and after the surgery.
9) Importance of keeping a regular catheterization schedule to avoid urine retention.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is given as:
The home health nurse is caring for a client with a neurological urinary tract dysfunction. What information should be included when teaching the client how to perform intermittent self-catheterization?
1. Performed in an emergency department (ED).
2. Prevents urinary catheter infections.
3. Perform as a clean procedure.
4. Requires using sterile gloves.
a nursing instructor is teaching the concept of immunity. the instructor determines that the session was successful when the students correctly choose that cell-mediated immunity protects the body against what type of infection(s)? select all that apply.
Cell-mediated immunity protects the body against fungal, bacterial and viral infection.
What is Cell-mediated immunity?
Immunity that is mediated by cells alone, often known as cellular immunity, does not require antibodies. Instead, in response to an antigen, cell-mediated immunity involves the activation of phagocytes, cytotoxic T cells that are specific for the antigen, and the production of different cytokines.
Hence cell-mediated immunity protects the body against fungal, bacterial and viral infection.
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a nurse is preparing to administer iv acyclovir to a client diagnosed with a herpes simplex viral infection. the health care provider has ordered 5 mg/kg every 8h. the client weighs 60 kg. how much medication will the nurse administer per dose?
The nurse will administer 300 mg of acyclovir per dose. (5 mg/kg x 60 kg = 300 mg)
public health professionals have to learn to work effectively with the media. public health is potentially appealing for the popular press because:
Public Health professionals have to learn to work effectively with the media. Public health is potentially appealing for the popular press because:
Its stories have urgency, drama and novelty.
Who are public health professionals?
Public health nurses have been around for a while, but not many people are familiar with the term "public health specialist." Specialists in public health are educated people whose careers are devoted to establishing environments that support health.
They work to make their nearby communities' health better. Because communicable diseases are more prevalent than ever, there is a great need for public health specialists to help maintain community health and awareness of potential health threats.
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a client is on a ventilator and is sedated. what care may the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap)?
The client on mechanical ventilation requires routine oral care, which the UAP can perform. The nurse is within the range of her profession when performing the other tasks.
The method by which breaths are given to the client is known as ventilator mode. Controlled mechanical ventilation, intermittent mandatory ventilation, synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation, continuous mandatory ventilation, or assist-control (A/C), pressure support ventilation, and airway pressure release ventilation are the most often employed modalities.
The basic objectives for a client undergoing mechanical ventilation who has a tracheostomy and/or endotracheal intubation are to promote gas exchange, maintain a patent airway, prevent trauma, encourage effective communication, reduce anxiety, and avoid cardiac and pulmonary problems.
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as a nurse prepares to change a client's dressing, the client states that she is afraid that it will be painful. noting that the client's heart rate and respiratory rate have increased, the nurse adjusts the plan of care to reflect care for a client in which phase of selye's general adaptation syndrome?
The mechanism through which your body responds to stress is known as "general adaptation syndrome" (GAS). Hans Selye, a physicist, was the one who first recognised the phenomenon in 1946.
Using Hans Selye's GAS model, what are the stages of the stress response?These phases were classified by Selye as alarm, resistance, and fatigue. You might find it easier to deal with stress if you comprehend these various reactions and how they relate to one another.
What does alarm stage look like?For instance, if you heard gunfire on a city street and approached the shooter, you would be selecting the "fight" reaction.
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what items should the nurse have available when a client recovers after a thyroidectomy? select all that apply.
The nurse should have the following items available when a client recovers after a thyroidectomy:
1. Painkillers prescribed by a doctor, such as acetaminophen, ibuprofen, or opioids. The client may have pain or discomfort, which these drugs might assist control.
2. Sterile gauze and tape to keep the area around the wound tidy and dry.
3. An antibiotic cream or ointment to assist prevent infection of the wound.
4. A plush pillow to support the client's neck and keep it in a cosy position.
5. A warm compress to ease pain and swelling in the neck region.
6. A cool compress to help the patient's fever if it arises.
7. An instrument to measure the client's temperature.
8. A tidy, non-stick dressing for the dish
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you are following a 32 yo g3p2 with chronic hypertension controlled by methyldopa. you follow her with serial ultrasounds and non stress testing because you are concerned about:
I follow her with serial ultrasounds and non stress testing because I am concerned about fetal growth restriction, abnormal fetal heart rate, placental insufficiency, preterm labor and hypertensive crisis.
What do you mean by labor?
Labor is the process of childbirth, in which the baby is physically pushed out of the mother's womb through the birth canal. It is a natural process that can be accompanied by pain, although it can also be supported by medical interventions.
Serial ultrasounds can help monitor the growth and development of the baby and detect any abnormalities in the organs and major structures of the baby. Non stress testing can assess the fetal heart rate and this information can help detect any abnormalities with the fetal heart rate which can indicate placental insufficiency or other problems. Additionally, monitoring the blood pressure of the mother is important as uncontrolled or uncontrolled hypertension can put the baby at risk for preterm labor and/or hypertensive crisis. Monitoring the mother's blood pressure also helps to ensure that the medication she is taking is controlling her blood pressure.
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I have been using an IUD for 3 years and have not gotten pregnant. Why do I need another method of birth control now?
a-Any method of birth control can fail.
b-Using two methods of birth control all the time drastically reduces the chance that you will get pregnant.
c-Most female patients who got pregnant during isotretinoin treatment were using only 1 method of birth control.
d-All of these.
All of these reasons are true you might consider using another form of birth control in the addition of your IUD therefore the correct option is D.
Any method of birth control can fail, and using two methods of birth control all the time drastically reduces the chance that you will get pregnant. This is especially true if you're taking isotretinoin, a drug used to treat acne, as studies have shown that utmost womanish cases who got pregnant during isotretinoin treatment were using only 1 system of birth control.
It's important to flash back that there's no system of birth control that's 100 effective and that using multiple styles of birth control is the stylish way to help an unwanted gestation. Talk to your doctor about your options and find a combination of birth control styles that works stylish for you.
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unspecified disruptive impulse-control and conduct disorder
Disorders, impulse control and conduct disorders, are a group of disorders associated with varying degrees of aggressive behavior, self-control, and impulse control. The resulting actions and actions are usually seen primarily as threats to the safety of others and social norms.
Simply put, nonspecific impulse control disorder is a diagnosis characterized by a person exhibiting signs and symptoms of impulse control disorder, but the urge (or urges) do not necessarily fall into any of the major categories. The most prominent treatment is cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). CBT is effective in treating impulse control disorders. This is because the focus of treatment is to clarify the relationship between thoughts and actions.
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What is unspecified impulse control disorder?
based on susan's assessment data and history, you identify which of the following as a priority nursing diagnosis for susan at this time?
We discover a deficient fluid volume linked to a fluid intake that is insufficient based on Susan's assessment data and history. as a top nursing concern at this time for Susan.
Fluid Volume:
Dehydration, also known as fluid volume depletion, is a frequent condition that many patients experience and is treatable by nurses. Excessive water loss from the body results in dehydration. The result is a dehydration of the body's cells and blood vessels. The reason for this is because the body excretes more water than it takes in.
Nursing Assessment of Fluid Deficiency
1. Conduct a thorough, head-to-toe assessment:
When making clinical judgments to assist determine the cause of dehydration, this enables caregivers to evaluate the whole individual and bring together all the facts.
2. Rate recording and output:
This allows caregivers to obtain objective data to determine the patient's net fluid loss.
3. Evaluate vital signs:
Vital signs may be abnormal with dehydration (i.e., tachycardia and/or hypotension).
4. Evaluate laboratory values:
We refer to this as In light of Susan's assessment (3 cm dilated, 80% of her past erased, and fetal position at zero), as well as your examination of her data, Nursing Diagnoses Types:
1. A diagnostic with a problem-focused approach.
You position Susan's torso where it is indicated on your appraisal for the ultrasonography transmitter. There are several reasons why the overall heart rate has improved. These include looking for shortening and thinning.
2. Nursing risk identification. When risk factors necessitate the nurse's intervention, a risk factors is done in nursing.
3. Health promotion "A conclusion drawn from a skillful evaluation process" is what a nurse assessment is.
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Complete Question:
Based on Susan's assessment data and history, you identify which of the following as a priority nursing diagnosis for Susan at this time?
after reviewing the psychosocial implications following a disaster, the nurse is assigned to care for a client who has just witnessed a mass shooting. upon obtaining subjective information from the client, which actions would the nurse take? select all that apply
The nurse is tasked with providing care for a client who just witnessed a mass shooting. She must remain composed and comforting.
What are nursing implications for a disaster?Nurses activate the disaster plan in their hospitals, triage cases, administer emergency care to hurt people, and assist in coordinating patient transportation to other medical institutions during response, the most crucial stage of disaster management.
With a red tag, which client condition should the nurse prioritise?The victim's condition and current treatment needs are indicated by four color-coded triage tags: Red flag The most critical requirement for treatment is indicated by a red marking.
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early prenatal care can help decrease the risk of prenatal abnormalities, but it cannot provide pregnant women with specific information about .
Having a healthy pregnancy is one of the best ways to promote a healthy birth. Early and consistent prenatal care increases the chances of a healthy pregnancy. Pre-pregnancy care visits to a health care provider can begin this care even before pregnancy.
What is pregnancy?
Although assisted reproductive technologies can be used, sexual activity is typically how pregnancy develops. A pregnancy can end in a live birth, miscarriage, induced abortion, or stillbirth. The gestational age (GA) is the period of time between the beginning of the last menstrual period (LMP) and the time when childbirth usually takes place, which is around 40 weeks. Total duration was just over nine months. When compared to the age at conception, it is about 38 weeks long.
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the nurse is assessing the moral developmental level of children being seen in the clinic according to the kohlberg's conventional stage of moral development. which children does the nurse determine have met this stage of development? select all that apply.
Children who according to nurses have fulfilled the stage of moral development are children in queues to take turns playing with toys.
What is moral development?Children's moral development is a way to introduce rules in social life to the surrounding environment from an early age. Efforts to develop morals are not only carried out as cultural life but more important than that, namely as an effort to preserve ethics, norms, and values, manners in accordance with human life which are instilled from an early age.
For its application in the moral development of early childhood, it is necessary to relate it to the roles and functions of norms in accordance with the social life of children.
Examples of children who understand moral development such as wanting to apologize if they make a mistake, saying thank you, want to queue to take turns playing with toys, and say ''please'' if they need help.
Your question is not complete, maybe what your question means is :
The nurse is assessing the moral developmental level of children being seen in the clinic according to Kohlberg's conventional stage of moral development. which children does the nurse determine have met this stage of development? select all that apply.
Children queue to take turns playing with toys.Children always play together without being picky friends.Learn more about cognitive developmental theory here :
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all of the following are reasons for non-compliance to periodontal maintenance except: group of answer choices a) dental fear b) expense c) low priority compared to other things d) denial e) the flavor of the dental polish
All of the following are reasons for non-compliance with periodontal maintenance except e) the flavor of the dental polish
What is the periodontal tissue of a tooth?Periodontal tissue is a tooth-supporting tissue structure that surrounds the teeth and attaches them to the jawbone, thereby supporting the teeth so that they are not separated from their sockets. Maintaining periodontal teeth required dental care.
Dental care is an effort made to keep teeth healthy and able to carry out their functions. Healthy teeth are clean teeth without cavities. Oral and dental care in toddlers and children is enough to determine the health of their teeth and mouth at the next age level.
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which order will the nurse use to record data from the patients assessment and formulate the nursing diagnosis
The sequence used by the nurse to record data and formulate a nursing diagnosis for the client is when the patient begins to experience complaints and medical history.
What is a diagnosis?Diagnosis is a process that will help understand a person's condition and disease. the diagnosis process is carried out by nurses, doctors, or other experts.
Usually, the information needed for diagnosis is a physical examination and an exploration of the patient's medical history.
Diagnosis is a procedure that should not be done haphazardly. Only doctors and health services can provide a diagnosis. Doing self-diagnosis is one of the fatal mistakes in health.
Usually, the nursing diagnosis includes the time the complaint was felt and the patient's medical history.
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what type of ganglia belongs to the parasympathetic nervous system?
Terminal ganglia are associated with the parasympathetic division.
What is the function of parasympathetic nervous system?
Ones parasympathetic nervous system is a component of your autonomic nervous system. It could be called your "automatic" nervous system because it controls many duties that you do not have to think about. This can include controlling your heart rate, blood pressure, digestion, urination, and sweating, among other things. The parasympathetic nervous system balances your sympathetic nervous system. While your sympathetic nervous system controls your body's "fight or fliht" response, your parasympathetic nervous system helps to regulate your body's response during times of rest.
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which clinical finding in a child with a diagnosis of meningitis indicates an increase in intracranial pressure? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. irritability bradycardia hyperalertness decreased pulse pressure decreased systolic blood pressure
Because it denotes disruption of the central nervous system, irritability is a classic indicator of elevated intracranial pressure. A classic late indication of elevated intracranial pressure is bradycardia.
What clinical findings point to a rise in intracranial pressure?Clinical suspicion for intracranial hypertension should be raised if a patient displays the following signs and symptoms: headaches, vomiting, and altered mental status ranging from drowsiness to coma.
What in children causes elevated intracranial pressure?Increased ICP in children is typically a side effect of traumatic brain damage, although it can also happen in cases of hydrocephalus, brain tumors, intracranial infections, hepatic encephalopathy, or reduced venous outflow from the central nervous system (table 1).
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what is the health trend of patients being treated at our customer locations, given the measurement of vitals measured with our monitoring equipment for these 3 indicators (blood sugar, pulse, temperature) ?
Vital signs are indicators of the body's most fundamental processes. The following are the four primary vital signs that doctors and other healthcare personnel regularly check:
Temp. of the body
pulse rate
breathing rate (rate of breathing)
the heart rate Blood pressure is frequently tested together with the vital signs even though it is not regarded as a crucial sign.
Vital signs can be used to spot or track medical issues. Vital signs can be assessed in a hospital, at home, during an emergency medical situation, or in other places.
It is not possible to determine the health trend of patients being treated at customer locations based on just three indicators (blood sugar, pulse, and temperature). To determine a patient's health trend, multiple factors need to be considered, including medical history, current symptoms, and additional test results. The measurement of these three indicators can provide important information about a patient's health status, but it is just a piece of the overall picture. A healthcare professional would need to interpret and analyze this data, along with other information, to determine a patient's health trend.
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a school representative brings a minor to the facility with a broken arm, which will require surgery. who may consent to the treatment of the patient
The person who may consent to the treatment of a minor with a broken arm who requires surgery depends on various factors such as the state laws and the patient's age. Generally, the following individuals may give consent for the treatment of a minor:
What is surgery?
Surgery is a medical specialty that involves the use of invasive techniques to diagnose and treat a variety of medical conditions. It involves making incisions or penetrations into the body to access the affected area, and can involve the removal of tissue, the repair of tissues or organs, or the insertion of devices or implants.
A parent or legal guardian: In most cases, the parent or legal guardian of a minor has the right to give consent for medical treatment.An emancipated minor: In some states, minors who have reached the age of majority or are legally considered to be independent can give consent for their own medical treatment.A court-appointed guardian: If a court has appointed a guardian for the minor, the guardian may have the right to give consent for medical treatment.A court order: In some cases, a court may issue an order allowing medical treatment for a minor without the consent of a parent or guardian.In any case, the healthcare facility should obtain the appropriate consent for treatment of the minor and document it in their medical records. If there is any uncertainty about who may give consent, the facility should consult legal counsel to ensure they are in compliance with relevant laws and regulations.
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the nursing instructor is discussing short-term versus long-term corticoid steroid therapy with the nursing students. what would be the most appropriate teaching for a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy?
When stopping a medicine, taper the doses. This is the most appropriate teaching for a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy.
Why it is necessary to tapper corticosteroid?Stopping your medication without consulting your doctor is not a good idea. When taking steroid tablets for longer than a few days, you typically need to gradually reduce your dosage. Your adrenal gland, which produces critical hormones for the body, may abruptly stop producing hormones if you quit.
Your adrenal glands reduce cortisol production if you take prednisone for longer than a few weeks. Your adrenal glands have time to regain their regular function when the prednisone dosage is gradually reduced.
Oral: 40 to 60 mg once day for 7 to 14 days, then a taper of up to three months (for example, reduce the dose by 5 mg/day at weekly intervals until 20 mg/day is reached, then further reduce by 2.5) is followed by.
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what term best describes a physical examination test that yields the same result on different examination days in a patient whose status has remained constant.
Reliable is the term that best describes a physical examination test that yields the same result on different examination days in a patient whose status has remained constant.
During a physical examination, medical examination, or clinical examination, a medical practitioner looks for any possible medical signs or symptoms of a medical disease. It usually includes of a series of inquiries regarding the patient's medical history, followed by an examination depending on the symptoms stated. The medical history and physical examination both contribute to the development of a diagnosis and treatment strategy. These details are then added to the medical record.
Laboratory tests, chest x-rays, pulmonary function testing, audiograms, whole body CAT scans, EKGs, cardiac stress tests, vascular age tests, urinalysis, and mammograms or prostate examinations, depending on gender, are common components of comprehensive physical exams.
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which type of surgical instrument must never be immersed in any type of mechanical decontaminating equipment?
The type of surgical instrument must NEVER be immersed in any type of mechanical decontaminating equipment that is powered.
Decontamination is a process of reducing the number of contaminating microorganisms or other substances that are physically or chemically harmful so that they are safe for further handling. The decontamination process includes soaking, washing, and drying, up to the sterilization process.
Decontamination with bacteria using chlorine solution, soapy water, and DTT water can kill bacteria, namely gram-positive, gram-negative and bacterial spores and remain active in use in hard water.
Types of power, pneumatic, and battery-powered surgical instruments. Each type is susceptible to damage due to improper cleaning and sterilization or lack of preventive maintenance. So, decontamination is not necessary as it will damage the tool.
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what would the nurse interpret as a positive response to the phalen test for a client suspected of having carpal tunnel syndrome?
The nurse would interpret complaints of numbness, tingling, and pain as a positive response, for the patient suffering from carpal tunnel syndrome.
The numbness in the nerve is mainly due to twisting due to which there are sensations of minute shocks, weakness and tingling. The Phalen test is done to check for the numbness, in which the back portion of the hands are joined together and inverted in downward direction at about 90 degree angle.
The pain can extend to whole of the arm in such cases, and is treated mainly by ice therapy, surgery or some injections which can help in reducing the inflammation or pain. The median nerve of the wrist is under extreme pressure in this disorder which results in pain and reduced hand dexterity.
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a client is taking psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid daily. what information should be included in the discharge plan?
The information that should be included in the discharge plan of a client who is taking psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid daily is to drink at least 8 ounces of fluid with the medication.
Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid is a medication used to treat constipation. It increases the stool's bulk, which helps to cause the intestines to move. It also makes the stool softer by increasing the amount of water in it, which also makes the stool easier to pass.
When taking this medication, make sure to drink enough fluid. The drug can swell in the throat, causing you to choke if you don't take it with enough liquid.
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the parent of an adolescent who has taken methylphenidate 20 mg/day for 6 months for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adhd) brings the child to clinic for evaluation of a recent onset of nausea, vomiting, and headaches. the parent expresses concern that the child seems less focused and more hyperactive than before. what will the nurse do next?
The nurse will assess the child's current symptoms and review their medication history.
They will also assess the child's current level of attention and hyperactivity and will ask the parent questions about any changes they have noticed in their child's behavior.
What is hyperactivity?
Hyperactivity is a condition characterized by excessive restlessness and activity. It is often associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Symptoms may include difficulty focusing, talking excessively, fidgeting, and interrupting others.
Therefore, The nurse will assess the child's current symptoms and review their medication history.
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what should the clinician do if she notices that the patient is developing a hematoma? group of answer choices apply direct pressure immediately. apply heat immediately. advise patient that swelling and discoloration will disappear within 1 to 2 months. all options listed.
The clinician should apply direct pressure immediately if she notices that the patient is developing a hematoma. Hence, Option A is the correct answer.
What do we mean by hematoma?A blood clot that forms in an organ, tissue, or area of the body. Hematomas are frequently caused by a blood vessel that has been broken as a result of surgery or trauma. It can happen anywhere in the body, including the brain.
Hematomas may be cause for concern. They can be extremely dangerous, and if large enough, they may lower blood pressure. They may even cause shock, a potentially fatal condition caused by a lack of blood or oxygen to the body's organs. Hematomas usually go away on their own, shrinking gradually as the blood that has accumulated inside them is absorbed. A large hematoma may not disappear completely for several months.
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health claims are allowed on food packaging if certain criteria are followed. which of the following is not one of the criteria? group of answer choices a food must be a naturally good source of one of six nutrients (vitamin a, vitamin c, protein, calcium, iron, or fiber). must be supported by strong scientific evidence. must not contain more than 30% of the daily value for fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, or sodium.
Health claims cannot describe how and where to identify, prevent, alleviate, or treat a condition; they may only describe how a substance lowers the risk of getting an ailment.
What wellness references are permitted on food labels?Certain nutrients that are present naturally in foods, including such calcium, fibre, and fat, can be linked to health benefits.A U.S. Health and Drug Administration must approve the health claims in order for them to be considered fair and to be supported by recent, trustworthy scientific studies (FDA).
Which of the following three nutritional claim categories can be seen on food packaging?Health claims, general nutritional claims, and structure/function claims are the three categories of claims that may be used on food and dietary supplement labels as permitted by law and/or FDA regulations.
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how long will it take you to travel from the gate to baggage claim if you walk while riding on the moving sidewalk?
Answer:
Explanation:
The speed of the moving sidewalk: Moving sidewalks typically run at a speed between 0.5-1.4 meters per second, with an average speed of around 1 meter per second.Your walking speed: The average walking speed for a human is around 1.4 meters per second.The distance between the gate and baggage claim: The length of the moving sidewalk will vary depending on the airport, but they can range from a few meters to several hundred meters.Given the above information, the time it will take you to travel from the gate to baggage claim while riding on the moving sidewalk will depend on the speed of the sidewalk and the distance between the two points. If the speed of the sidewalk is less than your average walking speed, you may choose to walk rather than ride, which would likely take you less time. If the speed of the sidewalk is greater than your walking speed, it would likely be faster to ride rather than walk. However, the exact time it would take can not be determined without more specific information.
joint commission requires the attending physician to countersign health record documentation that is entered by
A nurse or other healthcare provider. The Joint Commission is a non-profit organization that accredits and certifies health care organizations and programs in the United States.
One of their requirements is that the attending physician must countersign health record documentation that is entered by a nurse or other healthcare provider. This is to ensure that the documentation is accurate and complete, and that it reflects the patient's current condition and treatment plan. The countersigning process helps to prevent errors, misunderstandings, and discrepancies in the medical record, and provides a way to verify the information in the event of an audit or legal dispute. This requirement is in line with the Joint Commission's commitment to promoting high-quality, patient-centered care, and is an important part of their accreditation process.
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the nurse is caring for a client supported on a ventilator who has been unresponsive since arrival via ambulance a week ago. the client has not been identified and no family members have been found. the nurse is concerned about the plan of care regarding maintenance or withdrawal of life support measures. place the steps the nurse will use to help resolve this ethical dilemma in the correct order
The right order of steps that the nurse will use to help resolve this ethical dilemma is 2, 5, 6, 1, 3, 4.
An ethical dilemma, also known as a moral problem or ethical conundrum, arises when a person must choose between two possibilities, none of which are wholly ethically acceptable.
The steps involved in resolving ethical dilemma are:
Recognize the dilemma.Identify the various viewpoints.Assemble resources and help.Plan beforehand.Act in accordance with moral principles.To learn more about the ethical dilemma click on the given link:
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