The first step in the diagnostic process is? a physical exam. taking medical tests. a medical history. a second opinion.

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Answer 1

The first step in the diagnostic process is taking a medical history.

What is medical history?

The medical history, case history, or anamnesis of a patient is information a doctor learns by asking specific questions, either to the patient or to other people who know the patient and can provide pertinent information, with the aim of learning information helpful in formulating a diagnosis and providing medical care to the patient. In contrast to clinical signs, which are determined by direct inspection on the part of medical personnel, medically relevant concerns recorded by the patient or others familiar with the patient are referred to as symptoms. A form of history will often be taken throughout most medical encounters. The breadth and focus of medical histories differ.

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Related Questions

as future educators/professionals, how will you encourage others to promote pe and make a difference?

Answers

as future educators/professionals, to encourage others to promote pe and make a difference we need to: Ask parents to stay physical education in mind at home.

By giving students information to require home to parents, like a PE class newsletter, you'll let parents know that their students are learning valuable lessons and skills in PE class. And also make them realize the importance of PE in our life .

What is the importance of physical education?

Exercise promotes children's general health and fitness, as well as their mental health and cognitive growth. Children who exercise regularly are also more likely to concentrate and retain attention in class. Exercise enhances social skills, confidence, and positivism in addition to strengthening muscles and bones. We provide a range of lunchtime and after-school clubs that provide kids the chance to develop new talents and compete in school events. On our website, you may find a list of all of our clubs.

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When caring for the client with acute pancreatitis, which alterations does the nurse recognize is consistent with the disease?

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Hyperglycemia is the alteration does the nurse recognize is consistent with the disease of the client the nurse is caring which is acute pancreatitis.

The two test indicators that are most frequently utilized to determine a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis are serum amylase and lipase. Hyperglycemia, a raised serum bilirubin level, and an elevated white blood cell count are all possible conditions.

The medical term for elevated blood sugar is hyperglycemia (blood sugar). When the body doesn't produce enough insulin or uses it improperly, high blood sugar results. If you don't address hyperglycemia, it can become a significant issue, therefore it's critical to do so as soon as you see it.

Ketoacidosis, often known as a diabetic coma, might develop if hyperglycemia is not treated.

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A client with hodgkin's disease is to receive the cyclic antineoplastic vincristine as part of a therapy protocol. Which mechanism of action would the nurse associate with this medication?

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Cyclic antineoplastic vincristine (Oncovin) will be administered to patients with Hodgkin disease as part of a treatment protocol.

B-lymphocytes, a specific type of lymphocyte, begin to multiply abnormally and begin to accumulate in specific lymphatic system regions, such as the lymph nodes, in Hodgkin lymphoma (glands). You become more susceptible to infection as a result of the damaged lymphocytes losing their ability to fight infection.

In contrast to the side effects of most chemotherapeutic agents, what is a common side effect of vincristine?

A chemotherapeutic medication used to treat cancer is vincristine.Weight loss, diarrhea, headaches, nausea, vomiting, constipation, numbness, mouth sores, stomach/abdominal pains or cramps, and many other adverse effects are possible. Hodgkin lymphoma are diagnosed because of a painless, enlarged lymph node in the neck

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Which nursing intervention is a priority for an infant during the first 24 hours following surgery for cleft lip repair?

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Carefully cleaning the suture line after feedings using a sterile technique is the intervention of the highest priority during the first 24 hours after the surgery for cleft lip repair.

What is a cleft lip?

Openings or cracks in the upper lip, the palate, or both are known as cleft lip and cleft palate, respectively. When a developing baby's facial tissues don't fully seal, it can lead to cleft lip and cleft palate.

The most prevalent birth malformations are cleft lip and cleft palate. Although they most frequently manifest as solitary birth abnormalities, they are also linked to a variety of inherited genetic diseases or syndromes.

Therefore, after surgery of a cleft lip, carefully cleaning the suture line after feedings using a sterile technique is of the highest priority.

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You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by:______.

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You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive  patient in cardiac arrest by: compressing the sternum between the nipples.

An Adult's Compressions procedure:

Place the heel of the dominant hand on the sternum between the nipples of the adult victim who is lying flat on their back on a solid surface (lower half of the sternum).As you support your first hand with the heel of your non-dominant hand, lace the fingers of both hands together.Lock your elbows and extend your arms straight. The line from your shoulders to your wrists should be straight. Directly over your hands should be your shoulders.Apply forcefully and quickly. Compress the chest by at least 2 inches. At least 100 compressions should be delivered each minute.Between compressions, allow the chest to fully extend to allow the heart to fill with blood. The blood flow decreases with each compression when the chest cannot fully recoil, depriving the brain of vital oxygen.

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Which information correctly describes the evaluation process? one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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The information which correctly describes the evaluation process are, Evaluation is an ongoing process, Evaluation involves making clinical decisions and Evaluation requires the use of assessment skills.

The evaluation process goes through four phases — coming up with, implementation, completion, and dissemination and coverage — that complement the phases of program development and implementation. every section has distinctive problems, methods, and procedures.

Evaluation is in progress throughout the nursing method once nursing diagnoses or patient health issues are known. It's a method that involves clinical decision making and use of assessment skills as critical measures. analysis might reveal changes in patients that usually don't seem to be obvious.

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The federated model of health information exchange architecture is best described as a model in which:_______.

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The federated model of health information exchange architecture is best described as a model in which: The health information exchange database only has a master patient index with unique patient identities, and data only exists within each institution's system.

What is Federated model of health?

Many healthcare organizations retain data that is exchanged using a federated approach, sometimes referred to as scattered or decentralized, and make it available upon request. The federated design, according to Mark Savage, senior counsel at Consumers Union, avoids the risks related to constructing a centralized database, which, if attacked, would disclose a tremendous amount of data.

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Give 1 example/element of your identity and write three sentences explaining why you believe you need to be able to express that part of who you are.


I need help RNNN!!!!!!!!


50 POINTS!

Answers

Answer:

I understand that u may not get what the question is asking you to do but it is asking you for YOUR IDENTITY and i will not be able to answer this question bc i am not you.

Explanation:

If u need help with what identify is or element here is the definitions

Element : any of more than 100 substances that cannot by ordinary chemical means be separated into different substances Gold and carbon are elements. 2 : one of the parts of which something is made up There is an element of risk in surfing. 3 : the simplest principles of a subject of study the elements of arithmetic.

Identity:he fact of being who or what a person or thing is.a close similarity or affinity.

"the initiative created an identity between the city and the suburbs

A recipe calls for 140 grams of chicken breast. this is equivalent to ______ ounces of chicken breast.

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140 grams of chicken breast is equivalent to 4.93 ounces.  

What is the Conversion factor?

The conversion factor may be defined as a type of number that is significantly utilized in order to change one set of units to another through the functions of mathematical operations like multiplication or division.

According to the question,

The amount of chicken breast = 140 grams.

You want to convert grams into ounces. So, you require a conversion factor.

1 gram = 0.035 ounce.

Now, 140 grams = 140 × 0.035 = 4.93 ounces.

Therefore, 140 grams of chicken breast is equivalent to 4.93 ounces.  

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The nurse and health care provider are discussing a client who has pernicious anemia. the nurse anticipates that the client has which deficiency?

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The patient suffering with pernicious anemia has vitamin B12 deficiency.

Pernicious anemia is what?

A type of anemia in which vitamin B12 is deficient is called pernicious anemia. Vitamin B12 is required to make red blood cells in the body. You can get this vitamin by eating foods including meat, poultry, seafood, eggs, and dairy products. For intestinal absorption, vitamin B12 is bound by the special protein known as an intrinsic factor (IF).

What signs and symptoms point to pernicious anemia?

The symptoms of pernicious anemia may include fatigue, shortness of breath, rapid heartbeat, pallor, tingling and numbness in the hands and feet, appetite loss, diarrhea, shakiness when walking, bleeding gums, diminished sense of smell and confusion.

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The emphasis ______ is on the use of technology to organize information in health care.

Answers

Answer:

medical informatics

Explanation:

All the participants in the study are given information regarding the benefits of a healthy diet. According to the cognitive dissonance theory, which hypothetical finding is most likely?

Answers

Answer:

Self-serving bias suggests that when explaining their own behavior, individuals attribute positive behaviors to internal, stable sources, but attribute negative behaviors to external sources. A non-obese individual would attribute his or her healthy weight to an internal, stable source, such as strong willpower. However, a non-obese individual would not attribute his or her healthy weight to an external source, such as not having any fast food restaurants near home. Therefore, D is incompatible with the self-serving bias.

The patient recieved a cultured epithelial autograft (cea) to the entire left leg. which would the nurse include in the discharge teaching for this patient?

Answers

The patient received a cultured epithelial autograft (cea) to the entire left leg therefore the nurse would include referring the patient to a counselor for psychosocial support in the discharge teaching for him/her.

Who is a Nurse?

This is referred to a healthcare professional who specializes in taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved.

The patient received a cultured epithelial autograft (cea) to the entire left leg which may lead to body image concerns due to distortions as a result of the burns. It is best to refer the patient to a counselor for psychosocial support so that the individual can be easily integrated into the society.

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A client asks you to design a nightclub that he owns. based on the lsc, what additional information do you need in order to determine the correct occupancy classification?

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A

The (Life Safety Code) LSC is a collection of fire safety regulations created to offer a respectable level of fire safety. It encompasses operational, protective, and building elements intended to offer safety from panic, smoke, and fire. The HCFC is a collection of specifications created to lay forth minimal standards for the installation, inspection, testing, maintenance, effectiveness, and safe practices for buildings, materials, appliances, and equipment. The NFPA, which was established in 1896 to further the research and advance fire prevention techniques, publishes The LSC and HCFC, which is routinely amended.

Compliance with the 2012 version of the NFPA, LSC and HCFC is a fundamental criterion for life protection against fire for establishments taking part in the Medicare and Medicaid programs.

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A nurse is assessing a client who is at 35 wks gestation and is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous iv infusion for severe pre-eclampsia. what finding should the nurse report to the provider?

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The nurse should report a urinary output of 20 mL/hr because this can indicate inadequate renal perfusion, increasing the risk of magnesium sulfate toxicity which can  worsen the client's pre-eclampsia.

What is  severe pre-eclampsia?

Pre-eclampsia can be categorized as mild or severe. You may be diagnosed with mild pre-eclampsia if you have high blood pressure plus high levels of protein in your urine.

You can also be diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia if you have symptoms of mild preeclampsia plus signs of kidney or liver damage.

Thus, the nurse should report a urinary output of 20 mL/hr because this can indicate inadequate renal perfusion, increasing the risk of magnesium sulfate toxicity which can  worsen the client's pre-eclampsia.

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A client presents with fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. what should the nurse suspect are possible causes? select all that apply.

Answers

The possible causes viral bacterial toxin

Frequent symptoms of infections brought on by bacterial toxins or viruses include fever, vomiting, and diarrhea. Fever or vomiting are not signs of irritable bowel syndrome, chronic discomfort, or laxative misuse.

Causes of vomiting and diarrhea: -

Gastroenteritis

An intestinal ailment known as gastroenteritis can be brought on by viruses, bacteria, or parasites. Gastroenteritis is occasionally referred to as the stomach flu or a virus.

Additionally, some travelers have gastroenteritis, sometimes known as traveler's diarrhea.

Gastroenteritis caused by a virus is extremely infectious and spreads quickly between people. The norovirus is the most typical cause of gastroenteritis, and it takes 24-48 hours to incubate. This implies that a person can spread the sickness before realizing they are ill.

Gastroenteritis symptoms include:

abdominal cramps and agony

diarrheal diarrhea

dizziness or vomiting

Occasionally, a fever

The majority of patients recover from viral gastroenteritis in 1-3 days, according to the NIDDKTrusted Source. Some viruses, however, can persist for one to two weeks. Adenovirus and rotavirus are two of them, and they are typically younger children.

Foodborne illness

When someone consumes or drinks tainted food or water, food poisoning ensues. Food poisoning can be brought on by viruses, bacteria, or parasites, just like gastroenteritis. Food poisoning is not infectious, in contrast to gastroenteritis.

Oftentimes, food poisoning strikes abruptly. It may start to manifest 30 minutes to many weeksTrusted Source after ingesting the infected food, depending on the virus or bacterium a person ingests. The most typical signs are as follows:

stomach pain

nauseous and dizzy

diarrhea

fever

Most victims of food poisoning recover on their own. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)Trusted Source notes that those with poorer immune systems, elderly persons, children under the age of 5, pregnant women, and those with weakened immune systems are more prone to have consequences.

Medications

According to NIDDKTrusted Source cite the fact that vomiting and diarrhea are additional negative effects of several drugs. These include magnesium-containing antacids and antibiotics.

Chronic digestive issues can result from long-term antibiotic usage because it alters the gut flora in the large intestine. It could also make a Clostridium difficile infection more likely.

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A high waist-to-hip ratio is an indication of a? high pendicular load. low pendicular load. high allostatic load. low allostatic load.

Answers

A high waist-to-hip ratio is an indication of a high allostatic load (option C).

What is allostatic load?

Allostatic load is the overall burden of the body as a result of repeated and chronic stress.

Allostatis is the process of achieving stability, or homeostasis, in the body, through physiological or behavioral change. The failure to achieve this stability is referred to as allostatic load.

A waist-to-hip ratio compares the waist measurement to the hip measurement. High ratios can mean that one has more fat around your waist, which can be due to psychological stress etc.

Therefore, a high waist-to-hip ratio is an indication of a high allostatic load.

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The nurse observes that a postsurgical client has hemorrhaged and is in hypovolemic shock. which nursing intervention will manage and minimize hemorrhage and shock?

Answers

Reinforcing dressing or applying pressure if bleeding is frank.

If bleeding is evident, the caregiver should apply pressure or tighten the bandage. Caregivers should keep the head of the bed flat if it is not dangerous. Helping the patient take a deep breath or massaging the back does not control or reduce shock and bleeding. An emergency known as hypovolemic shock occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to the body because of the loss of blood and other fluids. Many organs can stop functioning as a result of this type of trauma. Hypovolemic shock is caused by a loss of at least one-fifth of the normal blood volume. Blood loss due to severe injury or rupture of large vessels is the most common cause of hypovolemic shock.

Therefore, reinforcing dressing will manage and minimize hemorrhage and shock.

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The nurse assesses a client who sustained a thermal burn injury. the nurse is most concerned if which observation is made?

Answers

The answer to the question is The client has singed nasal hairs.

What is a thermal burn?

The most frequent cause of a thermal burn is skin contact with a hot substance, such as steam from an iron, boiling water, or a hot surface on your stove.

Children and toddlers are particularly susceptible to thermal burns from hot liquids or flames. The location and degree or severity of the burn will determine the burn's symptoms. Usually, they get worse in the first few hours or days following a burn.

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Three organization elements essential for successful health information systems implementation are:__________

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Three organization elements essential for successful health information systems implementation are technology, procedure and policies, and culture.

There are many factors that decide a successful health system to be implemented, the most basic of them includes good infrastructure of the hospital/clinic which plays a key factor. The availability of a trained group of physicians like doctors, surgeons, and nurses also plays an essential role in the quality of health care facilities provided.

One should also not rush into forcing a new health care system but giving it time to adjust within the environments of the healthcare facilities. Other important factors may include communication between the healthcare providers and takers, accessibility of the patient's history, and a good healthcare facility management.

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A nurse is caring for a client in the clinic. which sign or symptom may indicate that the client has gonorrhea?

Answers

A sign or symptom that the client may have gonorrhea:

Urination causes burning as,  Gonorrhea most commonly affects the throat, urethra, or rectum. In females, gonorrhea can also infect the cervix.

What exactly is gonorrhea?

Both men and women are susceptible to gonorrhea, a bacterial infection spread through sexual activity.

Gonorrhea is most commonly transmitted through vaginal, oral, or anal_ intercourse. However, children of infected mothers can contract the disease after birth.

In infants, gonorrhea most commonly causes eye damage.

The best way to avoid STIs is to avoid having sex at all, to use a condom when you do, and to maintain a mutually monogamous relationship.

How is gonorrhea spread?

You can contract or spread gonorrhea through oral, anal_, or vaginal sex.

When engaging in sexual activity, using a condom or other barrier method can significantly reduce your chances of transmitting or contracting STIs such as gonorrhea. Just keep in mind that these barriers will not always completely eliminate your risk, especially if they are not used correctly.

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A nurse on an orthopedic unit is caring for four clients with a casted extremity. which client does the nurse prioritize to see first?

Answers

A client has described feeling tingly.

Itching (pruritus), mild to moderate edema, warmth or throbbing owing to edema, pain with movement or pain that becomes better with analgesics, and dry skin underneath the cast are all expected symptoms of a cast on an extremity.

Compartment syndrome may be indicated by extreme pain that is not relieved by analgesics and alterations in limb feelings (tingling or numbness).

Analgesics are what?The drugs known as analgesics are used to treat pain. Analgesics don't cut off nerves, impair your ability to detect your surroundings, or affect consciousness, unlike drugs used for anesthetic during surgery. They are referred to as painkillers or pain relievers occasionally.

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A client with infective endocarditis (ie) and a fever is admitted to the intensive care unit. which of these physician orders should the nurse implement first?

Answers

Order blood cultures drawn from two sites.

Infectious endocarditis (IE) is an infection of the endocardium, the inner lining of the heart muscle, brought on by pathogens that enter through the circulation. The majority of cases of IE are seen in individuals with abnormal (leaky or narrow) heart valves, artificial (prosthetic) heart valves, or pacemaker leads. Any structural cardiac condition can increase a person's risk of having IE. Rheumatic fever used to be the primary risk factor for IE and is still prevalent in underdeveloped nations. Fatigue and shortness of breath with exercise are the primary symptoms, along with a low-grade persistent temperature without a clear cause. Along with a murmur that is new or shifting, patients may also have joint and muscular discomfort.

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The systematic and continuous gathering of information about the occurrence of diseases and other health phenomena is known as:_____.

Answers

The systematic and continuous gathering of information about the occurrence of diseases and other health phenomena is known as Public Health Surveillance.

What is Public Health Surveillance?

Public health Surveillance may evaluate and track changes in the population's health and provide suggestions for action thanks to public health surveillance. In order to guide public health action, the systematic, continuing collection, analysis, and distribution of data ensures that the appropriate information is available at the appropriate time. The main ideas and goals of public health surveillance will be covered in this chapter, and you will learn how effective surveillance systems are built on the basis of four fundamental steps: data collection, analysis, interpretation, and reaction. The advantages and disadvantages of the various surveillance methods used to gather data on public health will also be clarified in this chapter. The chapter's conclusion examines the impact of technological, social media, and internet advancements. are influencing how public health surveillance will develop.

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Why is the percent daily value for protein omitted from the nutrition facts food label?

Answers

Typically, protein has no % Daily Value.

Nutritional information labels on packaged foods and beverages have changed to help you make smart choices. His percent daily value per serving (%DV) of a food indicates how much a given nutrient contributes to her overall diet for the day. His daily value for protein is not required if the product is intended for the general public (ages 4 and over) and does not have a description as stated. According to the FDA, protein consumption is not a public health concern in the United States, so reporting daily values ​​is not warranted.

Due to the above mentioned reasons protein does not have a %DV.

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The nurse is providing care for a 3-year-old toddler and needs to take the child's temperature rectally. how far should the nurse insert the probe into the rectum?

Answers

One inch (2.5 cm) should be put into the rectum for taking a child's or infant's rectal temperature.

How temperature is measured rectally?

By carefully inserting the thermometer  into your child's rectum, you can take their rectal temperature. The rectum marks the bowel's termination. The anus is the name for the rectum's entrance. Your child's anus is the opening in their bottom where their BMs exit the body.

A Rectal Thermometer: What Is It?

To measure the body's internal temperature, a rectal thermometer is inserted into the rectum. Its bulb-like shape is comparable to that of an oral thermometer, but its tip is often shorter and stubbier enabling simpler entry into the rectum.

Because they are typically more trustworthy and accurate than conventional thermometers, pediatricians advise using them on children under the age of three. For instance, ingesting hot or cold beverages can readily affect the results from mouth thermometers, while the temperature of the surrounding area might affect readings from skin thermometers.

Rectal thermometers provide a more accurate reading since they measure interior body temperature, which makes them less susceptible to such influences.

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The nurse is training a health care provider on precautionary measures to avoid equipment-related accidents. which information would be included in the training?

Answers

The nurse is training a health care provider on precautionary measures to avoid equipment-related accidents and information that would be included in the training is tag on faulty instruments, promptly report mal-functions and asses electrical hazards.

Precautionary measures to avoid equipment-related accidents don't Remove Machine Guards, wear Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) at all times, provide Adequate Training to Machinery Operators, train Machinery Operators to be aware of their surroundings, and follow maintenance schedules.

Following precautionary measures keeps workers healthy and protects their well-being. they'll perform their jobs additional effectively, associate degreed be assured that they do not have to be compelled to worry regarding being eviscerate or stricken by an sickness.

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Which description is accurate about the type of solution in which a patient expereinces a submersion injury?

Answers

When someone is submerged in any liquid, submersion damage happens.

Children are severely disabled by diving accidents, the second leading cause of death among the pediatric population. According to the latest World Health Organization (WHO) Bulletin report, drowning is a major global public health threat, and the circumstances of disappearances are important for diagnosis. Victims of disappearance may have no symptoms at all, or they may develop symptoms and signs. Even brief immersion can cause wheezing and laryngospasm. Aspiration can cause victims to experience choking, coughing, and choking even after being submerged for a relatively short time.Hypoxia can occur in submerged patients, causing dyspnea, hypopnea, or apnea. Hypothermia is also commonly associated with drowning from immersion in cold or warm water.

Any type of solution can result in submersion injury.

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A nurse is caring for a client undergoing treatment for bacterial vaginosis. which instruction should the nurse give the client to prevent recurrence of bacterial vaginosis?

Answers

The instruction the nurse should give the client to prevent recurrence of bacterial vaginosis is to practice monogamy.

What is bacterial vaginosis?

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition which results as a result of the imbalance between the good and the harmful bacteria in the vagina.

Thus, in bacterial vaginosis, there is bacterial overgrowth in the vagina. Some symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include:

abnormal vaginal discharge,itchingodor

Bacterial vaginosis usually affects women of childbearing age.

Some causes of bacterial vaginosis include:

unprotected sexual intercoursemultiple sexual partnersfrequent douching

In conclusion, bacterial vaginosis occurs due to overgrowth of harmful bacteria in the vagina.

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Which of the following are microorganisms that vary in their morphology?
a. Fungi
b. Viruses
c. Bacteria
d. Parasites

Answers

the correct answer is viruses
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