Answer: An experiment can prove that a particular intervention does or does not function. An observational study cannot, because it cannot provide such an intervention, or else it would be an experimental study instead.
A 9-year-old girl learning to be competent at school would be in erikson's psychosocial stage of?
A 9-year-old girl learning to be competent at school would be in Erikson’s psychosocial stage industry vs. inferiority.
What is Erikson’s psychosocial stages?Erik Erikson who is an ego psychologist, has developed a significant and important theory of development in the psychosocial field.
Despite the influence of psychoanalyst Sigmund Freud’s work, Erikson’s placed more emphasis on the psychosocial than psychosexual development. The stages of this theory are:
Stage 1: Mistrust vs Trust (It lasts from Infancy from birth to 18 months)
Stage 2: Guilt and Shame vs. Independence (It lasts from Toddler years from 18 months to three years)
Stage 3: Guilt vs. Initiation (It starts in Preschool years from three to five)
Stage 4: Industry vs Subordination (Middle school years from six to 11)
Stage 5: Identity vs. Confusion
Stage 6: Isolation vs. Intimacy (It is found in young adult years from 18 to 40)
Stage 7: Generativity vs. Stagnation (Found in the Middle age from 40 to 65)
In Stage 8, Integrity vs. Hopelessness (Lasts from Older adulthood from 65 to death)
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______ of all occupant fatalities involving young drivers occur when the occupant is not wearing a safety belt
Research has found it that in Michigan 13% of all occupant fatalities involving young drivers occur when the occupant is not wearing a safety belt.
What are Road accidents?
Road accidents can be described as an event leading to personal injury or damage to property that has taken place in an area intended for public transport involving at least one vehicle or road user.
13% of all occupant fatalities in the state of Michigan involving young drivers occur when the occupant is not wearing a safety belt.
In conclusion, one of the road safety practice is the use of safety belts.
The use of safety belts can greatly reduce harm and degree of damage to persons involved in road accidents.
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When monitoring a patient who has diabetes and is receiving a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor for edema, the nurse will monitor for which possible adverse effect?
The nurse will monitor Elevated blood glucose.
Diabetes patients have hyperglycemia, regularly known as excessive blood sugar. human beings with diabetes who have hyperglycemia may be affected by a variety of of things. They consist of things like food regimen and exercising, health problems, and diabetes-unrelated pills. Hyperglycemia can also end result from skipping dosages, now not the use of enough insulin, or taking insufficient amounts of other blood sugar-lowering drugs.
High blood sugar (hyperglycaemia) is where the level of sugar in your blood is too high. It mainly affects people with diabetes and can be serious if not treated. People with diabetes can also have blood sugar that's too low. This is called low blood sugar (hypoglycaemia).
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If your patient had an inability to absorb nutrients from the small intestine, it might indicate a disorder in which tissue?
Inability to absorb nutrients from the small intestine:
Malabsorption Syndromes
When your small intestine is not absorbing, what does that mean?
A malabsorption syndrome prevents your small intestine from properly absorbing nutrients from food. syndrome of the short bowel. This occurs following surgery to partially or completely remove the small intestine. If you have a condition that affects your small intestine, such as an illness, accident, or congenital defect.
The following factors can result in malabsorption syndrome:
damage to the gut brought on by an infection, an inflammatory reaction, trauma, or surgery extended antibiotic use additional ailments such cystic fibrosis, Crohn's disease, chronic pancreatitis, or celiac illness lactose intolerance or lactase deficiencySome abnormalities are congenital, or present from birth, such as biliary atresia, which occurs when the bile ducts don't grow normally and stop the passage of bile from the liver.disorders of the pancreas, liver, or gallbladderparasitic conditionsThe lining of the intestine may get damaged by radiation therapy.a few medications, like tetracycline, colchicine, or cholestyramine, that could harm the lining of the intestineDigestive issues may also be the cause of the sickness. It's possible that your stomach is unable to manufacture the enzymes required to properly digest some foods. Alternately, your body might be unable to combine the food you ingest with the enzymes and acid your stomach produces.
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Which question will the nurse ask the patient to help determine the cause of hypokalemia?
Answer:
what symptoms do you have
Explanation:
An individual with very low levels of vitamin d presents themselves to you complaining of seemingly fragile bones. explain how these might be connected?'
Weak bones would come from a lack of vitamin D since it aids in calcium absorption.
Bones require enough quantities of calcium in order to function properly; otherwise, bones would become fragile and weak. Calcium is obtained through diet, but vitamin D is needed for the calcium in food to be absorbed in the intestines. Calcitriol is the name given to vitamin D in its active state. Calcitriol affects the active transfer of calcium from the food being digested into the intestinal cells of the intestines. Even someone who consumes sufficient of calcium is at risk for developing calcium deficiency since the absorption of calcium in the intestines is significantly decreased when calcitriol is absent. Since calcium is necessary to maintain strong bones, low vitamin D levels can also have an impact on calcium levels.
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A nauseated patient with fever and abdominal pain states that he has not vomited. which description best represents how that fact should be documented?
The fact should be documented as Pertinent Negative.
When practitioners explain why they did not perform a procedure, they use the associated negative (PN). Example: If aspirin was not administered as part of an agency's protocol for treating chest pain, the cause should be documented. The PN value is used for this. A portion of a patient's medical history that is diagnostic even if the patient denies its existence. Vomiting is usually not harmful, but it can indicate a more serious condition. Concussion, meningitis (infection of the lining of the brain), intestinal obstruction, appendicitis, and brain tumors are examples of dangerous illnesses that can cause nausea and vomiting. Dehydration is another issue. An upset stomach, known as nausea, often precedes vomiting.The correct answer is pertinent negative.
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Which nursing intervention is performed during a patient seizure to ensure a clear airway and drainage of saliva? one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The patient should be turned to one side and the head should be slightly tilted forward is the nursing intervention performed during a patient seizure to ensure a clear airway and drainage of saliva.
A seizure is a sudden, uncontrolled electrical disturbance in the brain. It causes changes in behavior, movements etc. Seizures may occur due to many reasons: high levels of salt or sugar in your blood; brain injury from a stroke or head injury brain problems, brain tumor etc.
A few symptoms of seizure include sudden movements, stiffening of body, falling suddenly. Interventions which are necessary in case of a seizure are to ensure there is clear passage for air to pass through, having oxygen, suction ready and maintaining safety during the episode.
Drugs such as benzodiazepines can be used for the treatment of acute seizures since they are the most effective.
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The most significant challenge faced by foster families caring for infants and toddlers is:_______
The children are vulnerable physically and psychologically.
Foster parents with years of experience in shouldering this important responsibility will agree that there are many challenges and rewards. While it's impossible to anticipate every problem you may encounter as a caregiver, many problems and solutions are initially addressed in both training and ongoing training. To get in touch with a member of her local care team, check out our support contact list. Many of our foster parents would agree that many hardships, once overcome, lead to the highest benefits that can only be achieved through foster care.Case workers have the capacity to handle these precise issues. So if any of these issues overwhelm you, you should always contact us. Nursing is a team effort and no one should tackle these issues alone.Therefore, the correct answer is vulnerability.
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The health care provider writes an order for a culture specimen to be collected from a patient with a dog bite wound. what would the nurse do first?
To identify the kind of specimen to be gathered, look over the order.
Canines have the ability to bite and scratch. Or you're walking down the street and suddenly a strange dog attacks you. Either way, you need to act quickly to treat the wound and reduce the risk of infection.Emergency medical care is needed for the day. A dog's small teeth can also tear skin, and the front teeth grab and crush flesh. The end result is a bare, jagged scar. Infected wounds are often very serious. Either way, he recommends seeing a doctor within eight hours of being bitten by a dog. The longer you wait, the greater the risk of infection. If you have diabetes or a weakened immune system, you are more likely to get infections.Therefore, review of the wound is necessary for specimen collection.
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Which issues would the nurse identify as being associated with the difficulty in identification of teratogens? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The issue that the nurse can identify as being associated with the difficulty in identification of teratogens are options 1, 2 , and 3.
What are teratogens?The teratogens are drug agents that are capable of causing abnormalities to a developing fetus.
Some examples of teratogens include the following:
alcohol,toxic chemicals, radiation, and certain prescription drugs.During clinical trials for orphan drugs, animals are used to carry out experiments to observe the extent of teratogenic property of drugs before it's systemic use by human.
Therefore, the following difficult situations can occur during the experiment:
Teratogenic effects may be delayed.Prolonged drug exposure may be required.Animal test results may not be applicable to humans.Learn more about teratogens here:
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Complete question
Which issues would the nurse identify as being associated with the difficulty in identification of teratogens? select all that apply.
1
Teratogenic effects may be delayed.
2
Prolonged drug exposure may be required.
3
Animal test results may not be applicable to humans.
4
Behavioral effects can be easily documented and evaluated.
5
Controlled experiments on humans can reveal the effect of teratogens
Fetal heart rate tracing demonstrating a baseline of 145 beats per minute, moderate variability, no accelerations, and intermittent late decelerations would be classified as a/an:_______.
Fetal heart rate tracing demonstrating a baseline of 145 beats per minute, moderate variability, no accelerations, and intermittent late decelerations would be classified as a category 2 fetal heart rate tracing.
What is Fetal heart rate?In utero, a typical fetal heart rate (FHR) falls between the range of 120 to 160 beats per minute (bpm). It can be seen sonographically starting at about 6 weeks, and the typical range changes throughout pregnancy, increasing to around 170 bpm at 10 weeks and then lowering to about 130 bpm at term.
Although the myocardium starts to beat rhythmically three weeks after conception (as a result of spontaneously depolarizing cardiac pacemaker cells in the embryonic heart), it is only seen for the first time on sonography at about six weeks of pregnancy. Afterward, the FHR is typically between 100 and 120 beats per minute (bpm).
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As the nurse is at the bedside preparing to administer a new medication, the patient mentions that he is allergic to the drug. what will the nurse do first?
Answer:
do more research on the sickness and find out another way to deal with it if there is
A nursing assessment of a client who has been diagnosed with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (nms) would most likely reveal which signs?
A person diagnosed with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) would most likely reveal Signs like Hyperpyrexia, severe hypertension, and diaphoresis.
What is neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?
Antipsychotic medication can cause the neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal idiosyncratic reaction that is marked by fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction.
Extremely high fever (102 to 104 degrees F), an irregular pulse, an accelerated heartbeat (tachycardia), an increased rate of breathing (tachypnea), muscle rigidity, altered mental status, and dysfunction of the autonomic nervous system resulting in high or low blood pressure, profuse perspiration, and excessive sweating are common symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
A client with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) would most likely exhibit symptoms including hyperpyrexia, extreme hypertension, and diaphoresis during a nursing assessment. The three primary signs of NMS—fever, hypertension, and diaphoresis—should be treated right away.
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What should the nurse include when educating the parents of a toddler about safety hazards that can affect breathing?
The nurse should include water safety when educating the parents of a toddler about safety hazards that can affect breathing.
Causes of breathing problems in toddlers includes cold viruses, RSV (respiratory syncytial virus) and an infection known as croup, that affects the throat and vocal cords and causes a barking cough. Toddlers can also have bronchitis, sinus infections and pneumonia.
Safety hazards for toddlers could include sharp objects around the house, dangerous chemicals, choking hazards, stairs & windows, electrical outlets, doors & furniture, playful pets, health hazards, etc.
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Which assessment is necessary for the nurse to complete in a client with chronic kidney disease receiving loop diuretics?
Diuretics are administered to increase urine output, so the measure of intake and output are very important to diuretic use. Hemoglobin levels are important to monitor in the use of erythropoietin in the chronic kidney disease client. Nausea and constipation are important to monitor with the administration of iron-containing vitamins and mineral supplements.
What is nausea?
Everyone dreads the symptom of nausea. You've probably felt that way at least once, possibly after eating something that didn't sit well with you or perhaps while reading a book in a moving car. No of the source, the queasy sensation in your stomach that suggests you might have to vomit is known as "nausea," according to the Cleveland Clinic. proper up arrow Here is what you need to know when you feel nauseous—and when you should visit a doctor—even if it's typically not serious.
Symptoms:
Weakness Sweating
A buildup of saliva in your mouth Urge to vomit
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Diuretics are administered to extend urine output, therefore the measure of intake and output are very important to diuretic use.
Hemoglobin levels are important to watch in the use of erythropoietin in the chronic kidney disease client. Nausea and constipation are important to watch with the administration of iron-containing vitamins and mineral supplements.
What is nausea?
Everyone dreads the symptom of nausea. You've probably felt that way a minimum of once, possibly after eating something that did not sit well with you or perhaps while reading a book in a moving car.
No of the source, the queasy sensation in your stomach that means you might have to vomit is known as "nausea," consistent with the Cleveland Clinic. proper up arrow Here is what you would like to know when you feel nauseous—and when you should visit a doctor—even if it's typically not serious.
Symptoms: Weakness Sweating A buildup of saliva in your mouth Urge to vomitt.
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The nurse provides care for a patient who experienced chest trauma. when the nurse assesses the right lung, which finding suggests a right-sided pneumothorax?
The nurse provides care for a patient who experienced chest trauma and when the nurse assesses the right lung, absence of breath sounds suggests a right-sided pneumothorax.
A pneumothorax indicates that one in all the lungs has folded and isn't functioning. Manifestations of a pneumothorax embrace symptom, faded movement of the concerned chest wall, faded or absent breath sounds on the affected facet, and hyperresonance on percussion.
As a result of no air movement happens with a pneumothorax, no breath sounds, together with crackles, are detected. Assessment findings can embrace hyperresonance on percussion.
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Family physicians may be particularly effective agents in promoting health-related attitudes and behaviors because:____.
Family physicians are looked upon as credible sources of advice.
Who is a family physician?A family physician is first a person who has passed through the medical school for the stipulated number of years. In addition, the person ought to have also had at least another three years of training in the areas that enables the person to provide primary health care.
As such, family physicians may be particularly effective agents in promoting health-related attitudes and behaviors because they are looked upon as credible sources of advice.
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The nurse is assisting to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation. after placing the pads on the client's chest and before discharging the device, which intervention is a priority?
The correct option is "D" i.e Confirm that the rhythm is actually ventricular fibrillation.
What is ventricular fibrillation?
A particular type of aberrant heart rhythm is ventricular fibrillation (arrhythmia). Disorganized heart signals during ventricular fibrillation cause the ventricles, the lower heart chambers, to quiver (twitch) ineffectively. The heart consequently stops pumping blood to the body's other organs.
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is used to revive the patient up until the defibrillator is connected and charged. The EKG is examined after the defibrillator has been connected to ensure that the rhythm is ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Additionally, leads are examined for any loose connections. If there is a nitroglycerin patch, it is taken off. Defibrillation can take place without intubating the patient. Because there is no underlying rhythm to synchronize with, the machine is not configured to operate in the synchronous mode. Amiodarone may be used after defibrillation but is not necessary.
Questions:
The nurse is assisting to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation. After placing the pad on the client's chest and before discharge, which intervention is a priority?
a. Ensure that the client has been intubated.
b. Set the defibrillator to the "synchronize" mode.
c. Administer an amiodarone bolus intravenously.
d. Confirm that the rhythm is actually ventricular fibrillation.
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The client has just been diagnosed with a arrhythmia. the client asks the nurse to explain normal sinus rhythm. what would the nurse explain is the characteristic of normal sinus rhythm?
According to the research, the correct option is the RR interval must be absolutely constant. It is a characteristic of normal sinus rhythm.
What is arrhythmia?It implies a disorder of the rhythm that makes it not stable or regular and is caused by a failure in the electrical system of the heart rhythm, called the excitation and conduction system.
In this sense, it implies a disorder in the systole of the heart affecting the sinus rhythm that is considered normal in relation to the heart when the RR interval, which is the distance between two successive R waves, is constant, when the waves deviate from sinus rhythm, it is probable that they reveal the existence of some cardiac pathology.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is the RR interval must be absolutely constant. It is a characteristic of normal sinus rhythm.
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What can help prevent bullying?
A
B
Mestion
15/5
When those who perpetrate bullying are quickly pushed out of groups.
When people make it clear that bullying is not cool, funny, or tolerated.
All of the above.
When those who experience bullying are told to fight back.
Answer: your
Explanation:
To increase muscle strength, you should perform a _____________ number of repetitions using _____ weights. group of answer choices
a. high; heavy
b. low; light
c. low; heavy
d. high; light
To increase muscle strength, you should perform a low number of repetitions using heavy weights.
What is muscle strength?Your ability to move and lift objects is correlated with your muscle strength. Your ability to lift a certain amount of weight for a brief period of time and apply force are the key performance indicators.
Workouts involving resistance, such as weightlifting, bodyweight exercises, and resistance band exercises, are a few examples of exercises that increase muscle strength and power. Hills can be climbed, as well as running and cycling.
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In the early christian period, who treated clients thought to be possessed by demons causing their mental illness?
In the early Christian period, clergymen treated clients thought to be possessed by demons causing their mental illness.
Who are clergymen?
Clergymen is a male religious leader who is also known as a priest. If a person is male, they are classified as clerics if they are a priest, rabbi, minister, or imam.
While clergyman and clergywoman can be used to distinguish between male and female religious leaders, the terms clergyperson and simply clergy are also acceptable. In Christianity, any phrase involving clergy is most frequently used; Catholic clergymen, for instance, include priests, deacons, and bishops. Its origins are in the Latin clericus, which means "educated man or priest."
Therefore, In the early centuries of Christianity, clerics cared for patients whose mental illnesses were believed to be the result of demonic possession.
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Which does the nurse suggest as an initial short-term goal for a client with post-traumatic stress disorder (ptsd)?
"The client should be able to begin a healthy grief resolution." is what the nurse should suggest as an initial short-term goal for a client with post-traumatic stress disorder (ptsd).
A person may encounter or witness a traumatic or horrifying incident where there was substantial bodily harm or threat, and this can result in posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), formerly known as shell shock or battle fatigue syndrome.
PTSD is a serious condition that can develop after such an event. Traumatic experiences that leave people feeling incredibly terrified, powerless, or horrified can lead to PTSD. Treatment for PTSD has three major objectives: Reduce the frequency, intrusiveness, and effect of the PTSD symptoms on your life.
Instruct you on how to handle symptoms when they do arise. Regain a feeling of positivity and self-worth.
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Aerobic exercise refers to _____ exercise whereas anaerobic exercise refers to _____ exercise.
Answer:aerobic- physical anaerobic- endurance
Explanation:
Considering that staphylococcus epidermidis is ubiquitous on the skin surface and possesses numerous virulence factors, why does it rarely cause disease? describe at least 2 specific reasons.
Due to its inability to penetrate the skin's intact structures, cells, and chemical defenses as well as the absence of other virulence factors including coagulase, adhesion proteins, and toxins found in Staphylococcus epidermidis rarely causes disease.
Staphylococcus epidermidis: What is it?Staphylococcus epidermidis is one of more than 40 species of the Staphylococcus genus. It is a characteristic component of human flora and is also present in marine sponges. It is most frequently detected in skin flora and less frequently in mucosal flora. It is an anaerobic facultative bacteria.
Despite the fact that S. epidermidis is typically not harmful, people with weakened immune systems are more likely to get infections. These infections are typically acquired in hospitals. S. epidermidis is known to build biofilms that grow on catheters and other surgical implants, which is why it is particularly dangerous for patients who have them. S. epidermidis is a frequent contaminant of specimens sent to the diagnostic laboratory since it is a typical component of skin flora. Some S. epidermidis strains thrive in salty environments and are frequently found there.
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The depressed client is receiving light therapy. which instruction would the nurse share with the client?
The answer to the question is "You will sit in front of the light box with your eyes open."
What is the rationale for using light therapy?UV-blocking plastic screens are placed over white fluorescent tubes used in light therapy. No use is made of LED lights or safety goggles.
The person is seated in front of the box with his or her eyes open (although the client should not look directly into the light).
Sessions for light treatment typically last between 10 and 15 minutes at first, increasing eventually to 30 to 45 minutes. Sessions don't begin at 5 minutes and progress to 30 minute blocks.
The mechanism of action of light treatment is thought to involve retinal activation, not vagal stimulation, which causes an increase in serotonin in the brain while reducing melatonin levels.
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Which developmental or environmental factor significantly influences the activity and exercise regimen to be followed by a patient? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The developmental or environmental factor that significantly influences the activity and exercise regimen to be followed by a patient are age, ethnic origin, and work culture.
The definition of an exercise regimen may be a system of eating and exercising for the betterment of your health. An example of an exercise regimen may be a daily routine of doing a hundred jumping jacks every morning before you persist a 3 mile run. Get a minimum of 150 minutes of moderate aerobic activity or 75 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity per week, or a mix of moderate and vigorous activity.
To motivate and have a consistent exercise regimen invite friends and other relations to exercise with you. Set up social activities involving exercise. Develop new friendships with physically active folks. be part of a gym or health fitness group, like the YMCA or a hiking club.
The question is incomplete, here is complete question
What developmental and environmental factors significantly influence the activity and exercise regimen to be followed by a patient? Select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Age
Ethnic origin
Work culture
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The fastest heart rate your heart will beat in one minute and the rate at which your heart will plateau is?
The fastest heart rate your heart will beat in one minute and the rate at which your heart will plateau is the maximum heart rate.
A normal resting heart rate for adults ranges from sixty to a hundred beats per minute. Generally, a lower vital sign at rest implies a lot of efficient heart operate and higher cardiovascular fitness. As an example, a well-trained contestant might need a traditional resting heart rate nearer to forty beats per minute.
The vital sign at that you plateau is your maximum heart rate. You just don't got to train at this level of effort or intensity unless you're training for a specific event that needs this kind of exertion.
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The __________ describes a standard process for communities to identify the threats and hazards they face and define measurable targets for each core capability.
The Comprehensive Preparedness Guide 201 describes a standard process for communities to identify the threats and hazards they face and define measurable targets for each core capability.
What is Comprehensive Preparedness Guide 201 ?
This Threat and Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment (THIRA) guide provides a comprehensive approach for identifying and assessing risks and associated impacts. It expands on existing local, tribal, territorial, and state Hazard Identification and Risk Assessments (HIRAs) and other risk methodologies by broadening the factors considered in the process, incorporating the whole community throughout the entire process, and by accounting for important community-specific factors. The THIRA guide outlines a methodical procedure: Step One assesses the various threats and hazards facing a community of any size. The community's susceptibility to those hazards is evaluated in Step 2 using a variety of time, season, location, and community factors.The community's impact from these threats and hazards is estimated in steps three and four, and capability targets are set using the framework of core capabilities. In order to establish a solid foundation for planning and preparedness actions across prevention, protection, mitigation, response, and recovery, Step Five summarizes the findings of the THIRA process.
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