The primary source of energy for the human body is carbohydrate. Chemically, carbohydrates are organic molecules with the formula Cx(H2O)y, where x and y are whole numbers that vary depending on the particular type of carbohydrate that is being discussed.
Carbohydrates are broken down by animals' metabolisms, including humans', to provide energy. The chemical metabolism of the sugar glucose, for instance, is depicted below:
Animals receive carbs by consuming meals like potatoes, rice, bread, and other items that contain them. Plants produce these sugars during the photosynthetic process. Sunlight energy is captured by plants and used to reverse the mechanism just explained.
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leaves with large surface areas contain more chloroplasts and can conduct more photosynthesis how is this an adaptation for plants with large leaves?
The large surface area of leaves allows absorption of a large amount of light. In addition, palisade cells present on the upper surface of the leaf, where the light falls, are adapted for light absorption.
What are the functions of palisade cells?Palisade cells are plant cells located on the leaves, right below the epidermis and cuticle that is the outermost layer of the leaf. In simpler terms, they are known as leaf cells.
The palisade mesophyll layer is where most of the photosynthesis occurs in the leaf. The palisade cells contain a lot of chloroplasts to help them perform this photosynthesis. The palisade cells are closely packed together to maximize light absorption.
The palisade parenchyma tissue usually is located on the upper side of the leaf, and the spongy parenchyma on the lower side. There may be only a single layer of palisade cells perpendicularly arranged below the upper epidermis, or there may be as many as three layers.
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in multiple sclerosis, there is progressive and intermittent damage to the myelin sheath of central axons. one symptom is poor motor control of the affected area. why does destruction of the myelin sheath affect motor control?
In multiple sclerosis, there is progressive and intermittent damage to the myelin sheath of central axons. One symptom is poor motor control of the affected area.
The destruction of the myelin sheath affects motor control because it decreases the efficiency with which the brain can communicate with the body.Myelin is an insulating layer on the outside of axons, particularly in the peripheral nervous system. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is an autoimmune disease that affects the brain and spinal cord (central nervous system).MS affects women more than men. The disorder is most commonly diagnosed between ages 20 to 40, but it can be seen at any age.
Multiple sclerosis is caused by damage to the myelin sheath. This sheath is the protective covering that surrounds nerve cells. When this nerve covering is damaged, nerve signals slow or stop. The nerve damage is caused by inflammation. Inflammation occurs when the body's own immune cells attack the nervous system. This can occur along any area of the brain, optic nerve, and spinal cord.
The exact cause of it is unknown. The most common cause that is thought is that it is caused by a virus, a gene defect, or both. Environmental factors may also play a role.
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in a population of finches, trait t is for talus (leg) color. the allele t codes for black, and t for grey. in tis population, we have an allele frequency of 0.45 t and 0.55 t. what is the expected proportion of offspring who will have the genotype tt?
The expected proportion of offspring who will have the genotype tt is 0.2475, which is calculated by multiplying the allele frequencies together (0.45 * 0.55 = 0.2475).
The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium principle states that allele frequencies in a population won't vary in the absence of evolutionary factors. Allele frequencies are altered in all populations, though, by mutation, natural selection, genetic drift, and migration. A few years ago, the number of house finches abruptly started to fall. A strain of avian conjunctivitis was the root cause. By dividing the total number of copies of all the alleles at that specific genetic locus in the population by the number of times the allele of interest is observed in a population, an allele frequency can be computed.
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which enzyme joins fragments of dna into a continuous strand?
The enzyme that joins fragments of DNA into a continuous strand is called ligase.
Ligase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in DNA replication, repair, and recombination. It works by catalyzing the formation of covalent bonds between adjacent nucleotides in broken or fragmented DNA strands. This process is called ligation and results in the joining of two DNA fragments into a continuous strand.
Ligases are essential for ensuring the integrity of the genetic material and preventing errors that could lead to genetic disorders or other health problems. There are different types of ligases in cells, including DNA ligases, RNA ligases, and phosphodiester ligases, each with specific functions and target substrates. Overall, ligases play a key role in maintaining the stability and continuity of DNA, ensuring the accurate transmission of genetic information from one generation to the next.
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what happens to the paired chromosomes during anaphase?
During anaphase, each pair of chromosomes is separated into two identical, independent chromosomes. The chromosomes are separated by a structure called the mitotic spindle.
The term "anaphase" refers to the stage of mitosis that follows the process of metaphase, when replicated chromosomes are split and the newly-copied chromosomes (daughter chromatids) are moved to opposite poles of the cell. Anaphase is derived from the Ancient Greek words "ana-" for "backward" and "phásis" for "appearance." With order to aid in chromosome segregation and the re-formation of the nucleus, chromosomes also reach their overall maximum condensation in late anaphase.
When the anaphase-promoting complex ubiquitylates the inhibitory chaperone securin, anaphase is said to have begun. A protease called separase is inhibited by the protein securin. Securin's degradation releases separase, which then degrades cohesin, the protein that holds sister chromatids together.
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the bonds holding paried bases together in opposing strands of dna
Hydrogen bonds is present between G-C and A-T base pairs of dna.
All the molecule present in the DNA as a double helix are formed from two complementary strands of nucleotides that are joined together with the help of hydrogen bonds between G-C and A-T base pairs.
In general ,the phosphodiester bond are linked by the phosphate group of one base to –OH group on the 3-carbon of the sugar from another base. On the other hand the adjacent nucleotides of the single strand of DNA are linked with the covalent bonds known as phosphodiester bonds. They are formed by the process of condensation reactions took place at the 3' OH of the sugar of the first nucleotide and the 5' phosphate of the next nucleotide in the strand.
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Select all the statements that correctly describe the cooperative binding of oxygen to hemoglobin.
a. Hemoglobin consists of four heme-bound subunits.
b. Hemoglobin acts as an oxygen store under anaerobic conditions
c. The hemoglobin-oxygen binding curve is sigmoidal.
d. Hemoglobin always binds oxygen tightly
e. Salt bridges between hemoglogbin subunits allow oxygen to bind tightly
a. Hemoglobin consists of four heme-bound subunits. c. The hemoglobin-oxygen binding curve is sigmoidal. The interaction between the four hemoglobin subunits that increases or decreases.
the affinity of each subunit for oxygen is referred to as cooperative binding of oxygen to hemoglobin. This interaction produces a sigmoidal hemoglobin-oxygen binding curve, in which hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen rises as more oxygen molecules attach to the subunits. Hemoglobin consists of four heme-bound subunits. The hemoglobin-oxygen binding curve is sigmoidal. The interaction between the four hemoglobin subunits that increases or decreases. The cooperative binding of oxygen to hemoglobin provides for effective oxygen transport and release in response to changing oxygen levels in the body.
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What are three ways athletes can maximize replenishment of their muscle glycogen stores after intense training sessions or a competitive ev a. addition of protein, addition of fiber, and timing b. addition of protein, amount of carbohdyrate, and timing c. addition of fiber, meal size, and timing d. addition
Athletes may increase the replenishment for their muscle glycogen stores in three different ways: by consuming more protein, more carbohydrates, and by timing their meals.
The correct answer is B
How does a protein affect the body?Amino acids are the chemical "building blocks" that are required to create proteins. Amino acids are used by your body to create hormones, enzymes, and to build or repair your muscles and your bones. These could also be used as a source of energy.
What happens if your body doesn't have enough protein?In addition, a protein deficiency may cause gradual loss of muscle mass, which will reduce overall strength, make it more difficult for you to maintain balance, plus slow your metabolism. If your cells aren't getting enough oxygen, you could feel exhausted, which could lead to anemia.
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what describes the profound and enduring effect on later development that teratogens can have during the embryonic period?
critical period - Teratogens can have a variety of effects on the embryo or fetus, including physical malformations, issues with the child's behavior or emotional development, and a decreased IQ.
Some medications, illicit drugs, tobacco, chemicals, alcohol, certain infections, and in some cases, uncontrolled health issues in the expectant parent are examples of common teratogens.
A well-known teratogen, alcohol exposure during pregnancy can have negative effects on the developing fetus. Organogenesis occurs in the embryo between implantation, which occurs at about 14 days after conception, and about 60 days after conception. This is typically the time when teratogenesis is most vulnerable and a malformation is most likely to result from exposure to a teratogenic agent.
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during one month, a blood donation center found that 45.5% of the donors had the a antigen. 14.2% of the donors had the b antigen. 4.3% of the donors had the a antigen and the b antigen. 84.4% of the donors were rh . 87.4% of the donors had the b antigen or were rh . (a) find the percent of donors that have the a antigen or the b antigen. % (b) find the percent of donors that have the b antigen and are rh .
The percent of donors that have the a antigen or the b antigen is 55.9%.
The percent of donors that have the b antigen and are rh is 11.7%.
Let us assume a situation where A denotes the set of donors having A antigen, B denotes the set of donors having B antigen and R denotes the set of donors having Rh+ antigen.
n(A) = 45.8
n(B) = 14.2
n(A and B) = 4.1
n(R) = 84.7
n(B and R) = 87.2
a)The percentage of donors having A or B antigen is:
n(A and B),
= n(A) + n(B) - n(A and B)
= (45.8 + 14.2) - 4.1
= 55.9%
b)Similarly, n(B and R),
= n(B) + n(R) - n(B and R)
= (14.2 + 84.7) - 87.2
= 11.7%
Hence, required percentages are 55.9% and 11.7%.
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birds and crocodiles share a more recent common ancestor than either group shares with lizards or mammals. lizards and crocodiles have a common ancestor also shared by birds. which statement about the relationships among these organisms is false?
Birds as well crocodiles happen to share a common ancestor which the either group shares with a lizard or a mammal.. Birds and crocodiles are monophyletic but lizards and crocodiles are not but all three of them together form a monophyletic group.
A phylogenetic tree can be basically defined as a diagram which shows related organisms, shared traits as well as common ancestors within a particular monophyletic group. In a phylogenetic tree, there always will be a common ancestor shown.
Birds as well the crocodiles happen to share one common ancestor which the either group happens to share with a lizard or a mammal. Birds and crocodiles belong to a monophyletic group but lizards and crocodiles are not but all three of them together form a monophyletic group.
--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"Birds and crocodiles share a more recent common ancestor than either group shares with lizards or mammals. Lizards and crocodiles have a common ancestor also shared by birds. Which of the following statements about the relationships among these organisms is most accurate?
a. Birds and crocodiles are a monophyletic group.
b. Lizards and crocodiles do NOT compose a monophyletic group.
c. Birds, crocodiles, and lizards taken together compose a monophyletic group.
d. Birds, crocodiles, lizards, and mammals taken together also compose a monophyletic group.
e. All of the above."--
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Besides the proteins being processed for distribution, what other components could be expected to be found inside the Golgi apparatus?
a) Ribosomes
b) Enzymes
c) DNA
d) Cytoskeleton
Besides the proteins being processed for distribution, the other components that could be expected to be found inside the Golgi apparatus are option b) Enzymes.
The Golgi apparatus is titled after Camillo Golgi, who discovered a reticular formation in the cytoplasm of numerous cell types using silver chromate staining and originally described it in 1888. Proteins obtained from the ER were thus processed and sorted in the Golgi apparatus, or Golgi complex, where they are eventually transported to lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion.
Proteins called enzymes assist our bodies' chemical reactions move forward more quickly. For several processes, including digestion and liver function, enzymes are crucial. Health issues might result from having too much or too little of a specific enzyme. Substrates are the molecules that enzymes may work upon, and the enzyme changes the substrates into other molecules known as products.
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in a prokaryotic cell, all of the following are functions of either fimbriae or pili except __________.
All of the following are functions of either the fimbriae or the pili in a prokaryotic cell, with the exception of phagocytosis defense.
Single-celled organisms known as prokaryotes are found in the Bacteria and Archaea domains. Prokaryotic cells lack organelles, have no nucleus, and are much smaller than eukaryotic cells. A cell wall protects every prokaryotic cell. Many also have a polysaccharide-based capsule or slime layer.
A cell type without a true nucleus or membrane-bound organelles is referred to as prokaryotic. All other forms of life are eukaryotic, whereas organisms in the domains Bacteria and Archaea are based on the prokaryotic cell. Prokaryotic organisms, on the other hand, are very prevalent and account for a large portion of the biomass on Earth.
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Complete Question -
In a prokaryotic cell, all of the following are functions of either fimbriae or pili EXCEPT __________.
transfer of DNA
protection from phagocytosis
formation of biofilms
attachment to a surface
which choice represented the main source of food, shelter, and clothing for the plains peoples? A: Wildlife of the Rio GrandeB: BuffaloC: Fields of wheatD: Forest
The right answer is B. The buffalo are said to be the main source of clothing, shelter, and source of food for the people of the plains.
Native Americans who lived on the plains relied heavily on the buffalo. The buffaloes were also referred to as "bison." Buffaloes were used not only for food, but also for housing and the production of clothing.
The women of the plains used the horns of the bison in addition to their skin to create the source for clothing. The dried-out buffalo dunks were used as firewood. Buffalo bones have been carved, used as knives, and when cooked, even used to make glue. They used pemmican, a dried form of buffalo meat.
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Unpasteurized fruit juice can be contaminated if there are pathogens in or on the fruit used to make it.a. Trueb. False
Unpasteurized fruit juice can be contaminated if there are pathogens in or on the fruit used to make it. True.
Pasteurization, also known as pasteurisation, is a method of food preservation in which foods, both packaged and unpackaged (such as milk and fruit juices), are subjected to a mild heat treatment, typically at a temperature of less than 100 °C (212 °F), in order to destroy pathogens and increase shelf life. Although most bacterial spores survive the procedure, it is designed to kill or inactivate microorganisms and enzymes, including vegetative bacteria, that contribute to food spoiling or disease risk. The procedure bears the name of Louis Pasteur, a French scientist who discovered via his study in the 1860s that heating wine would destroy undesirable germs.
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Understand SI If a pollen spore is unable to carry S proteins in its pollen coat, can plants still prevent the germination of this pollen if it is too genetically similar? Multiple Choice a)Yes, in all cases, b)No. c)Yes, but only through sporophytic SI. d)Yes, but only by gametophytic SI.
Yes, plants can still survive only through sporophytic SI, if unable to carry S protiens.
What is Sporophytic SI in plants?Sporophytic SI (self-incompatibility) is a form of reproductive isolation in plants that prevents self-fertilization. It is caused by a genetic locus which codes for S proteins. These proteins identify pollen spores as either self or non-self and prevent the germination of self-pollen. If a pollen spore is unable to carry S proteins in its pollen coat, then it will not be recognized as self and the plant can still prevent its germination by using sporophytic SI.
It is an important mechanism of reproductive isolation in plants and is used by many species to prevent inbreeding. By preventing self-fertilization, it ensures that the genetic diversity of a species is maintained and that the evolutionary potential of the species is maximized.
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if a genetic study began with your grandparents, which generation would represent you and your siblings? multiple choice question.
If a particular genetic study began with our grandparents, we and our siblings would represent the F2 generation.
Hence, option c is the correct option.
When we are assessing a genetic study, we can observe that there are different generations through which the patterns of inheritance are studied. Parental generation can be defined as the first generation which involves that there are two individuals which are mated to foresee or analyze the genotypes that their offspring will have.
The first generation also known as the F1 generation basically includes the offspring of the parental generation. If our grandparents are the parental generation, the our parent will represent the F1 generation and we along with our siblings would be the F2 generation.
--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"If a genetic study began with your grandparents, which generation would represent you and your siblings? a. P b. F1 c. F2 d.F3"--
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which of the following forces of evolution increases (on average) genetic diversity within one population? select all that are correct group of answer choices genetic drift natural selection (for an allele conferring fitness benefit) migration to population mutation
Mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, and natural selection are the forces that drives genetic diversity within the population.
What is Evolution?
Evolution is an ongoing process that occurs in all living organisms. It is a process of change over time, and it results in the adaptation of organisms to their environment. There are several forces that drive evolution, some of which increase genetic diversity within a population. These include mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, and natural selection. Each force has its own set of advantages and disadvantages that can affect the genetic diversity of a population.
Genetic diversity is an essential factor in maintaining the health of any population. It is important because it provides a wide range of genetic options that can help a species adapt to changing environments, resist disease, and recover from natural disasters.
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silverswords had no tree and shrub competitors prior to recent human ecological disturbance to the hawaiian islands. descended from a tarweed ancestor that evolved in an environment with many tree and shrub species, its arrival on the islands represented an evolutionary radiation because of a ?
Before recent human ecological disruption to the Hawaiian Islands, Silverswords had no rival trees and shrubs species.
Its arrival just on islands represented an evolutionary radiation because of a variety of open ecological niches because it descended from the a tarweed ancestor which evolved in a habitat with many tree and shrub species.
The Asteraceae family's Hawaiian silversword alliance is a well-known adaptive radiation. The clade hasn't been assigned any fossils, like so many island plant lineages. As a result, it is challenging to check biogeographic hypotheses about radiation because the clade's age and rate of diversification are not precisely known. The term "silversword alliance," also referred to as "tarweeds," describes an adaptive radiation of about 30 species in the Asteraceae, also known as the composite as well as sunflower family.
(Silverswords had no tree and shrub competitors prior to recent human ecological disturbance to the Hawaiian Islands. Descended from a tarweed ancestor that evolved in an environment with many tree and shrub species, its arrival on the islands represented a(n) __because of a(n)__.)
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which of the following statement about archaea is false? question 41 options: they lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls. they evolved before bacteria. they are prokaryotes. some are thermoacidophiles; others are extreme halophiles.
The correct option (b) they evolved before bacteria
Archaea is a single-celled organism domain. These microbes are prokaryotes because they lack cell nuclei. Archaea were originally classed as bacteria and given the name archaebacteria (in the Archaebacteria kingdom), but this word is no longer used.
Archaeal cells differ from the other two domains, Bacteria and Eukaryota, in several ways. Archaea is further subdivided into many recognized phyla. Classification is challenging because most have not been isolated in a laboratory and have only been found in environmental samples by their gene sequences. It is uncertain if they are capable of producing endospores.
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the process in part a describes the synthesis of biological macromolecules. the reverse process involves the breakdown of polymers. which type of enzyme catalyzes the reverse process?
Polymers are broken down in the opposite method. The reverse process is catalyzed by hydrolase enzymes, hence answer choice (A) is accurate.
The group of enzymes known as hydrolase is responsible for bond cleavages caused by reactions with water. Most hydrolases have a digestive nature, breaking down nutrients into more manageable portions for digestion. For instance, lipases hydrolyze lipids (triglycerides) to glycerol and fatty acids, whereas proteases break down proteins into smaller peptides and subsequently amino acids. Because they must be able to digest a variety of nutrients, hydrolases often have a wide range of substrate preferences. Because of their wide substrate specificity, excellent stereoselectivity, and ability to catalyze other related processes in addition to hydrolysis, hydrolases are very helpful to organic chemists. They also reverse hydrolysis and catalyzed alcoholysis.
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The complete question is:
The process shown in part A (above) demonstrates the synthesis of biological macromolecules. The reverse process involves the breakdown of polymers. Which type of enzyme catalyzes the reverse process?
a) hydrolase
b) dehydrogenase
c) polymerase
Which of the following is the
stigma,
where pollen lands on
the flower?
A. D
B. C
C. B
D. A
Answer: D
Explanation: The stigma is the part of the pistil where pollen lands and germinates.
Answer: The answer is D
Explanation:
the main function of cristae is to group of answer choices facilitate diffusion of substances into the mitochondria. increase chemical transport in mitochondria. decrease the surface area for chemical reactions. increase the surface area for chemical reactions. supply enzymes for reactions.
enlarge the area available for chemical reactions. The mitochondria's inner membrane folds several times.
Cristae is the term for these folds. Function: The cristae increase the surface area that is accessible to boost cellular respiration efficiency. The folds in the inner mitochondrial membrane are known as mitochondrial cristae. Chemical processes, such redox reactions, can occur on a larger surface area thanks to these folds. Give chemical reactions a lot of surface area. Because they significantly enhance the surface area of the mitochondria's inner membrane, the cristae are significant. The crista lumen, the third mitochondrial compartment, is defined by the cristae.
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The main function of cristae is to
increase chemical transport in mitochondria.
facilitate diffusion of substances into the mitochondria.
decrease the surface area for chemical reactions.
supply enzymes for reactions.
increase the surface area for chemical reactions.
fill in the blank question. based on cell structure, all life forms can be placed into two categories called and .
Macrophages sometimes produce a chemical called TNF (Tumor Necrosis Factor) in order to alert other cells of the immune system. TNF would be an example of a cytokine.
Cytokines are a broad and loose category of small proteins that are made by certain immune and non-immune cells and have an effect on the immune system. Cytokines are peptides and these cannot cross the lipid bilayer of cells to enter the cytoplasm. Cytokines help on inflammatory reactions as they signal via type1 cytokine receptors(CCR1) which is structurally divergent from other cytokine receptors types. They help in coordinating cell mediated immune response and also modulates the immune response.
Cytokines help in tissue damage repair in the development and progression of cancer. Different types of cytokines are chemokines, interferons, interleukins, lymphokines, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)[1,2,3,4].
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true or false: physiology focuses on the molecular or cellular level to gain an understanding of how organ systems work.
The given statement that, "physiology focuses at the cellular or molecular level to gain an understanding of how the organ systems work" is true because its focuses on body's working mechanisms that can be studies at the molecular/ cellular level
Physiology is the branch of biological science that deals with the functioning and mechanisms of the living body. These functions can be of a single cell, a tissue, an organ or the whole organ system. The various branches of physiology include: plant physiology, animal physiology, cell physiology, medical physiology, etc.
Organ system is the part of the living body that constitutes of various organs working together to accomplish a function inside the body. The organ system can be found in large multicellular organisms. The examples include digestive system, respiratory system, etc.
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In which phase of cell cycle, the cell spends the least amount of time? A. G1 phaseB. G2 phaseC. M phaseD. S phase
The cell spends the least amount of time during the M phase. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
In general, during the human cell cycle or cell-division cycle, cells spend the most time in interphase as it undergoes preparations in order to divide themselves. Around 95% of the cell cycle is spent in interphase.
There are three stages in interphase: G1, S phase, and G2. During these stages, the DNA is replicated. Since all three of them belong to the interphase, that means they take a long time. The M phase (mitosis) is the time when cell division occurs. This phase happens relatively fast compared to the interphase.
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if you were a house, a contractor who patches up holes in your walls and fixes termite damage partly by breaking down the old, damaged walls would be most like which type of bone cell?
If you were a house, a contractor who expanded on the house by adding a new wing would be most similar to osteoblast bone cell, thus the correct option is (B)
Cells called osteoblasts build bone tissue. To control the equilibrium of calcium and phosphate ions in growing bone, osteoblasts can synthesize and secrete bone matrix and take part in the mineralization of bone. Osteoprogenitor cells give rise to osteoblasts. Numerous elements, including different hormones and locally produced bioactive chemicals following fracture, have an impact on the conversion of osteoprogenitors. These conditions allow osteoprogenitors to proliferate in high numbers and start differentiating into osteoblasts, which carry out osteogenic tasks. Because osteoblasts are functional cells, they seldom divide and proliferate.
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The complete question is:
If you were a house, a contractor who expanded on the house by adding a new wing would be most similar to which type of bone cell?
Select one:
a. osteogenic
b. osteoblast
c. osteocyte
d. osteoclast
what would be the fate of r7 differentiation in a fly with an inactive sevenless receptor and a constitutively active ras in the progenitor r7 cell?
When a fly's progenitor R7 cell has a constitutively active Ras gene and an inactive R7 receptor, the progenitor R7 cell will eventually differentiate into a R7 neuron.
How do R7 cells work?In the fly's compound eye, R7 is the eighth and last photoreceptor cell to develop. One of the differentiation mechanisms in Drosophila or any embryonic system that has been most thoroughly explored is the regulation of R7 destiny determination. This is because it offers the researcher a variety of benefits.
What occurs when RTK is turned on?When STAT proteins are activated, they enter the nucleus directly and alter transcription. Ras, a protein bound to the plasma membrane, can be activated by RTKs by making it bind GTP.
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
What would be the fate of R7 differentiation in a fly within an inactive seven less receptor and a constitutively active Ras in the progenitor R7 cell?
A. R7 progenitor will differentiate into the R7 neuron
B. R7 progenitor will not differentiate into R7 neuron
C. you will need another GOF mutation in the same fly for the R7 cell to differentiate into a neuron
D. both A and C are correct
E. none of the above
All formed elements are derived from cells in bone marrow called ________
Red bone marrow contains stem cells known as hemocytoblasts. They manufacture all of the substances that are synthesised in the blood.
Which cell kinds are created in the bone marrow?Blood stem cells that can develop into red blood cells, white blood cells, or platelets are found in red bone marrow. Stem cells that can develop into cartilage, fat, or bone cells are found in the yellow bone marrow, which is primarily constituted of fat.
Do bone marrow cells produce all formed elements?The red bone marrow's stem cells are the source of all created components. Recall that stem cells divide through both mitosis and cytokinesis to produce new daughter cells: Only one of these is still a stem cell.
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during fertilization which two cells come together
Secondary sperm and secondary oocyte are the two cells that combine during fertilization.
What transpires during fertilization between two haploid cells?The genetic material is integrated in the ensuing zygote cell after a sperm fertilizes an egg. In other words, two independent haploid cells that each contained one pair of chromosomes combine to form a single diploid cell that contained two sets of chromosomes. A new human eventually develops from that zygote cell.
The two cells required for reproduction are what?The two different sex cells, or gametes, are involved in human reproductive process. Female reproductive system is meeting place for the male gamete, or sperm, and the female gamete, or ovum. A fertilized egg is referred to as a zygote when sperm fertilizes it.
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