After teaching a woman how to perform kegel exercises, the woman states the steps. which steps would the nurse determine as reflecting the correct components of kegel exercises? select all that apply.
Squeeze the rectal muscles as though you're attempting to stop the flatus from passing. To find the pubococcygeus muscle, stop and start the flow of urine, are the steps involved in kegel exercises.
What are Kegel exercises?
You may strengthen the muscles in your pelvic floor by performing kegel exercises, commonly known as pelvic floor exercises. Kegel exercises can not only help you stop pee leakage, but they can also help you stop unintentionally releasing gas or stool, and they might even aid your orgasms.
Maintaining the "fitness" of these muscles prevents your uterus, bladder, and intestines from drooping into the vagina. Pelvic organ prolapse is the disorder that results from this.
Therefore, squeezing the rectal muscles like attempting to stop the flatus from passing and finding the pubococcygeus muscle, stop and starting the flow of urine are the steps in kegel exercises.
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A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (dka) has had a large volume of fluid infused for rehydration. what potential complication from rehydration should the nurse monitor for?
A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has had a large volume of fluid infused for rehydration and the potential complication from rehydration should the nurse monitor for is hypokalemia.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes which will be grievous. DKA is commonest among folks with type 1 diabetes. Folks with type 2 diabetes may develop DKA. DKA develops once your body does not have enough insulin to permit blood sugar into your cells to be used as energy.
Rehydration therapy is a treatment for dehydration. It involves drinking a beverage from water, sugar, and electrolytes, specifically potassium and sodium. The beverage is termed as oral rehydration solution (ORS). The goal of oral rehydration is to fill again the body's fluid levels,
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All foods sold in the united states must have a nutrition facts panel.
a. true
b. false
All foods sold in the united states must have a nutrition facts panel is referred to as a true statement and is denoted as option A.
What is Nutrition facts panel?
These are labels which are put on packaged food and it contains the ingredients and nutrients which are present in the food substance.
It contains information which enables the consumers to make informed decisions about the choice of foods to be eaten based on different types of factors.
An example is a substance like groundnut which causes skin allergy in some people which means them knowing the ingredient it contains will make them not to purchase it.
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The elderly client has been noncompliant with taking a prescribed medication. the nurse asks the client?
the question the nurse should ask the patient in such situation is what is the reason you have not taken the medication?"
What is noncompliant with taking a prescribed medication?Noncompliant with taking a prescribed medication refers both to the failure to follow a drug regimen and to the failure to adopt other measures that contribute to improvement in health such as changes in lifestyle or diet.
Thus, the question the nurse should ask the patient in such situation is what is the reason you have not taken the medication?"
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Select the correct answer.
Which of the following is NOT type of swimming stroke?
A.
Butterfly Stroke
B.
Backstroke
C.
Freestyle Stroke
D.
Doggy Stroke
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Doggy stroke isn't a swimming stroke.
Butterfly, backstroke, and freestyle are commonly used swimming strokes
While caring for an infant, the nurse places the infant on his or her back. this intervention reduces the risk of which condition?
A baby is placed on his or her back by the nurse when giving care to the child. The risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome is decreased by this technique (SIDS)
What is Sudden Infant Death Syndrome?Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is a condition where a newborn passes away suddenly and for an unknown reason. The risk of sudden infant death syndrome can be decreased by letting the baby sleep on his or her back, according to the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP). An apneic episode can be managed by massaging the heels. Because it raises the chance of choking, pacifiers shouldn't be fastened to the neck with a string. Newborns' breathing can be stimulated by rubbing their backs.
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The nurse is teaching a new nurse about preparing a sterile field. which action made by the new nurse would indicate further teaching is required?
The new nurse comes within 1.5 in (4 cm) of the outer margins. The sterile package's exterior 1 in (2.5 cm) is safe to touch. If supplies are required, seek for assistance before leaving the sterile field unaccompanied; never turn away from a prepared field.
The sterile packaging's top flap should always be opened away from the body. The sterile field is a specified region that is "free of bugs that can infect people." It can encompass surfaces, instruments, and even people. When a surgeon, tech, or nurse is "scrubbed in" (hands cleansed, sterile clothing donned), he or she enters the sterile field.
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no idea whats going on pls help
Answer:
just write the answer as per direction
Which nursing theory is based on the assumption that beavior is based on the current dynamics confronting an individual versus prior experience?
Health Belief Model (HBM) is the nursing theory which is based on the assumption that behavior is based on the current dynamics confronting an individual versus prior experience.
The Health Belief Model (HBM) proposes that an individual's health-related behavior depends on the person's perception of 4 crucial areas: the severity of a possible unwellness, the person's status to it unwellness, the advantages of taking a preventive action, and. the barriers to taking that action.
The HBM could be a great tool for nurses, providing them a theoretical framework for serving to their patients stop chronic sickness or, if sickness is present, improve quality of life.
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Approximately ________ percent of children with a learning disability have a reading problem.
Answer:
Approximately 80 percent of children with a learning disability have a reading problem
Even under extreme circumstances of brain dysfunction, leisure continues to be important in maintaining health. true false
It is true that even under extreme circumstances of brain dysfunction, leisure continues to be important in maintaining health.
Brain dysfunction is characterized by an inability to concentrate, disorientation, an inability to assume clearly, to impairment of 1 or many of the various specific functions that contribute to acutely aware expertise. The type and severity of brain dysfunction rely on how intensive the brain injury is.
Extreme circumstances of brain dysfunction could be caused by disorders that cause metabolic abnormalities, like low levels of sugar within the blood.
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When too little carbohydrate is consumed in a person’s diet, ______ are used to make glucose.
Answer:
amino acids
Explanation:
Which finding is most important for the nurse to confirm prior to hanging an intravenous (iv) bag containing potassium?
Check for urine output of at least 30 mL/hr is the finding that is most important for the nurse to confirm prior to hanging an intravenous (iv) bag containing potassium.
One of the most often used medical devices is the IV. They can be used to provide patients with medicine or nutrition if they are unable to eat, avoid dehydration, and maintain blood pressure. Urine production of less than 30 ml/hr (or around 0.5 ml/kg/hr for a patient weighing 70 kg) should be taken seriously.
Even though data has shown that saline can damage kidneys, especially when used often, it has remained the most commonly used fluid in the U.S. for more than a century.
Saline is one of the other IV solutions referred to as balanced fluids, but they also contain potassium and other ingredients that make them more resemblant to plasma, the transparent portion of blood. They are commonly utilized in Australia and Europe.
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A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record. which order does the nurse question?
Answer:
what is the person allergies
A client is receiving insulin lispro at 7:30 am. the nurse ensures that the client has breakfast by which time?
Answer:
Insulin lispro has an onset of 5 to 15 minutes. Therefore, the nurse would need to ensure that the client has his breakfast by 7:45 AM at the latest.
Explanation:
hope this helps u
The nurse is planning to assess new memory with a patient. the best way for the nurse to do this would be to:________
The nurse is planning to assess new memory with a patient and the best way for the nurse to do this would be to administer the FACT Test.
Memory is that the method of taking in data from the world around us, process it, storing it and later recalling that data, typically a few years later. Human memory is commonly likened thereto of a store system or a file cabinet.
New memory are often assess by asking patient regarding his appetite and so regarding what that they had for his or her breakfast or for dinner the previous evening. Within the finish remote memory are often tested by asking patient for the knowledge regarding their childhood that may be later verified.
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When evaluating teaching a client how to administer insulin, which action indicates that additional teaching is necessary?
Evaluating teaching a client how to administer insulin is to wait 30 minutes to eat breakfast after injecting rapid-acting insulin.
After administering rapid-acting insulin, the client is told by the nurse to eat within 5 to 15 minutes.
After injecting speedy-appearing insulin, which has an onset effect of five mins and a period of one hour, the nurse advises the patron to consume within five to 15 minutes. The customer is mixing the insulins effectively, rotating the injection sites, and utilising the U-100 syringe.
In general, you must take ordinary insulin or a longer-performing insulin 15 to 30 minutes earlier than a meal. In preferred, you have to take insulin lispro (Humalog brand name), which acts swiftly, less than 15 mins earlier than consuming.
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Which urinary elimination change is often observed as the period of immobility continues for a patient?
The following urinary elimination change is often observed as the period of immobility continues for a patient:
Increased risk of renal calculi.Increased urinary concentration.Increased risk for urinary tract infections.What is urinary tract infections?An infection of the urinary system is known as a urinary tract infection (UTI).It is known as a kidney infection when it affects the upper urinary tract and as a bladder infection (cystitis) when it affects the lower urinary tract (pyelonephritis).Lower urinary tract infections can cause painful urination, frequent urination, and the need to pee even when one's bladder is empty.Fever and flank discomfort are typically additional signs of a kidney infection to those of a lower UTI.Escherichia coli is the most frequent cause of illness, while other bacteria or fungi can also play a role.Female anatomy, sexual activity, diabetes, obesity, and family history are all risk factors.To learn more about urinary tract infections, refer to the following link:
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Prompt
Americans often lead stressful lives.
The stresses come from work, school, family and social pressures. The long term effects
f stress contribute to different illnesses. Consequently, healthcare professionals recommend that we reduce our stress
levels
as much as possible. From your own experiences, what seem to be the most effective ways of dealing
reducing stress?
with and
Answer:
You could just take deep breathes. Take a break from the stressful situation. But this question is also about your experiences, what do you do when you're stressed, how do you handle it?
14. How does nonverbal communication work with verbal communication?
A.) They don't work together.
B.) Nonverbal gives the message its full meaning.
C.) Verbal gives the message its full meaning.
D.) They both bring additional meaning to the message.
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
Verbal explanation gives informational meaning, while nonverbal gives emotional meaning, and visual meaning.
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Shock victim with breathing difficulties, chest injuries, or who's had a heart attack, should _____.
Shock victim with breathing difficulties, chest injuries, or who's had a heart attack, should get CPR.
Lay the person flat (without any pillows below his/her head), and elevate the feet 8–12 inches. If this causes discomfort (eg. pain, problem breathing), have the person lay in an exceedingly manner that produces him/her most comfortable.
Medications to treat shock are given to extend your heart's pumping ability and cut back the chance of blood clots. Vasopressors are accustomed treat low pressure level. They embody monoamine neurotransmitter, adrenaline, catecholamine, etc,
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Why should someone seek professional help for issues related to mental health?
to get out of class
to develop dependence on others
to prevent thoughts of hopelessness
to become friends with a professional
Answer: C
Explanation: To Prevent Thoughts Of Hopelessness.
A patient is receiving a beta-1 selective blocker after a myocardial infarction to prevent reinfarction. the nurse understands that the rationale for using the drug would be to:_________
A patient is receiving a beta-1 selective blocker after a myocardial infarction to prevent reinfarction. the nurse understands that the rationale for using the drug would be to: decrease cardiac workload.
What is myocardial infarction?
Myocardial infarction, the technical term for a heart attack, is a life-threatening medical emergency in which your heart muscle starts to deteriorate due to inadequate blood flow. A blockage in the arteries that feed blood to your heart is typically the cause of this.
What is beta-1 selective blocker ?
A subclass of beta blockers called beta-1 selective blockers is frequently prescribed to treat high blood pressure. Atenolol (Tenormin), metoprolol (Lopressor), nebivolol (Bystolic), and bisoprolol are medications in this class (Zebeta, Monocor).
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The nurse is preparing a blood transfusion for a client with renal failure. why does anemia often complicate renal failure?
Anemia complicate renal failure because Anemia develops in the early stages of kidney disease which gets worse when the kidney disease progresses.
Why does anemia often complicate renal failure?Anemia in chronic renal disease which decreased renal production of erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is the hormone that is responsible for the quicken the production of red blood cells in our body. Anemia develops in the early stages of kidney disease which gets worse when the kidney disease move forward. Hemoglobin is a type of protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to all cells of the body.
So we can conclude that Anemia complicate renal failure because Anemia develops in the early stages of kidney disease which gets worse when the kidney disease progresses.
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The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions to a client with breast cancer who is receiving cyclophosphamide. which instruction would the nurse provide to the client?
The nurse is reinforcing medication instructions to a client with breast cancer who is receiving cyclophosphamide. Instruction the nurse would provide to the client: Increase fluid intake to 2000 to 3000 mL daily
The main application of the strong medication cyclophosphamide is to treat cancer. It is a member of the group of cytotoxic medications known as alkylating agents, which prevent the growth and division of cancerous cells.
It has been discovered that cyclophosphamide is effective in treating some skin conditions, particularly those that are autoimmune or linked to an immunological illness.
Cyclophosphamide belongs to the class of drugs known as alkylating agents. When used to treat cancer, cyclophosphamide slows or stops the growth of cancer cells in your body. When used to treat nephrotic syndrome, cyclophosphamide suppresses your immune system.
Cyclophosphamide is used to treat cancers of the ovaries, breast, blood and lymphatic systems, and nerves (mainly in children). Furthermore, cyclophosphamide is used to treat retinoblastoma, a bone marrow cancer that primarily affects children, multiple myeloma, and mycosis fungoides (tumours on the skin).
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The alternation between soloist and chorus heard in this alleluia is best described as ________ singing.
a. direct
b. antiphonal
c. responsorial
d. syncopated
The alternation between soloist and chorus heard in this alleluia is best described as responsorial singing.
What is an alleluia?Alleluia also known as hallelujah refers to a liturgical chant in which that word is combined with verses of scripture.
From the question above, the alternation between soloist and chorus heard in this alleluia is best described as responsorial singing.
Alleluia is mostly known and used by the Christian religion, and is found to be used around 24 times in the Hebrew scriptures.
In conclusion, responsorial singing can be described as a style of singing in which a leader alternates with a chorus and it is mostly used in liturgical chants.
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A nurse is conducting a parenting class on infant skin care. what information should the nurse include when preparing materials on the characteristics of the skin of infants?
The backs, arms, and ears of newborns frequently have a lot of downy fuzz. This will quickly wear off and vanish.
Dark red or purple skin with bluish limbs. Before a newborn takes its first breath, its skin darkens (when it makes its first powerful cry). Vernix, a thick waxy substance that covers the skin. This substance protects the fetal skin from amniotic fluid in the womb. Vernix should be removed from the newborn during the first bath. Lanugo is thin straight hair that can cover the back, shoulders, cheeks, forehead and scalp.This happens more often if the baby is born earlier than expected. A baby's hair falls out within the first few weeks of life. Depending on the length of pregnancy, a newborn's skin will be different. A premature baby's skin is delicate and translucent. A fully developed newborn has thicker skin.Therefore, extra care is required for infant's skin.
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A __________ is a metal or plastic strip used to replace the missing interproximal wall of a tooth during the placement of the restorative dental material.
A matrix is a metal or plastic strip used to replace the missing interproximal wall of a tooth during the placement of the restorative dental material.
But now, scientists are trying out sealing interproximal incipient caries.False or True.At first, they were worried that sealants would keep germs in the pit and cause caries to spread. Dental sealants are typically applied on the chewing (occlusal) surface of the posterior permanent teeth, such as the molars and premolars, to help protect them against caries. However, researchers are also experimenting with sealing interproximal incipient caries. This is due to the molars' and premolars' chewing surfaces' grooves, which make them susceptible to tooth decay. Cleaning in these locations can be challenging due to the depth of these depressions.
In these grooves, bacterial plaque accumulates, and the acid produced by the bacteria from this enamel demineralization plaque causes caries. Fluoride helps to protect dental decay surfaces and sealants, fill the grooves, and prevent tooth decay by preventing food from getting stuck there.
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Which type of modifier indicates the patient's condition at the time anesthesia was administered?
The type of modifier indicates the patient's condition at the time anesthesia was administered is referred to as the physical status modifier.
What is Anesthesia?This is defined as a temporary loss of sensation or awareness of the body and is usually carried out during medical procedures and surgeries.
The drugs administered is referred to as anesthetics and it helps to prevent pain which is encountered when parts of the body are cut. It is administered by the doctor before the procedure and also employs the use of the physical status modifier.
The physical status modifiers is used as it helps to support medical necessity for it to be administered to the individual.
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A client's primary care provider has recommended biofeedback in an effort to address chronic stress and reduce the potential for complications. what will be the goal of this intervention?
A client's primary care provider has recommended biofeedback in an effort to address chronic stress and reduce the potential for complications and the goal of this intervention is teaching the client to consciously control her own body functioning.
Chronic stress, or a continuing stress for long time, will contribute to problems for heart and blood vessels. The consistent and increase in heart beat and therefore the elevated levels of stress hormones and of blood pressure, will take a toll on the body.
Biofeedback is a technique you'll be able to use to be told to regulate some of your body's functions, like your pulse.
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