The nurse's best answer is that the AMDR is a wide range for any energy nutrient.
The AMDR is defined as the range of intake for a particular energy source that is associated with a reduced risk of chronic disease while providing adequate intake of essential nutrients. AMDR is expressed as a percentage of total energy intake.
The acceptable macronutrient distribution range for adults (as a percentage of calories) is as follows:
Protein: 10-35% Fat: 20-35% Carbs: 45-65%This question is multiple choice:
A) AMDRs are specific ranges for essential nutrients.
B) AMDRs are specific ranges for trace minerals.
C) AMDRs are nonspecific broad ranges for major nutrients.
D) AMDRs are broad ranges for each energy nutrient.
The correct answer is D
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a nurse-manager in the office of a group of surgeons has received complaints from discharged clients about inadequate instructions for performing home care. knowing the importance of good, timely client education, the nurse-manager should take which steps?
When a nurse-manager received complaints from discharged clients about inadequate instructions for performing home care, the steps that the nurse-manager should take is to work with the surgeons' staff, nursing staff, and outpatient surgical center to evaluate their current client education practice and make revisions as necessary.
In general, all nurses who provide client care should also provide client education, including for clients that are receiving home care. Nurses and outpatient centers must work together to establish and apply the best methods of educating clients.
In the case above, the client is complaining about inadequate instructions for performing home care. It is a crucial complaint since home care clients needed good and timely education for their care, or else their health and wellness might end up in jeopardy.
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a nurse evaluates a client's labratory results. what is a factor that may be affecting an increase in serum osmolality
An increase in serum osmolality can be caused by several factors, including dehydration, high salt intake, high glucose levels, and certain medications such as antidiuretic hormone. Other potential causes include liver failure, kidney disease, and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.
Serum osmolality refers to the concentration of particles in the blood, and an increase in serum osmolality indicates that the body is retaining more fluid than it is eliminating. This can occur due to various reasons.
Dehydration: One of the most common causes of increased serum osmolality is dehydration, which occurs when the body loses more fluid than it takes in. This can result from not drinking enough water, excessive sweating, or increased urine output due to conditions like diabetes insipidus.High salt intake: A high salt diet can lead to increased serum osmolality, as the excess salt in the body draws water from the cells into the bloodstream, leading to dehydration.High glucose levels: Elevated glucose levels, such as in uncontrolled diabetes, can increase serum osmolality as glucose attracts water molecules from the body's cells.Medications: Certain medications, such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), can increase serum osmolality by reducing urine output and retaining fluid in the body.Liver failure: In cases of liver failure, the liver is unable to effectively metabolize and eliminate waste products, leading to an increase in serum osmolality.Kidney disease: The kidneys play a key role in regulating fluid balance in the body, and kidney disease can lead to an increase in serum osmolality by reducing urine output and retaining fluid.Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH): SIADH is a condition in which the body produces too much ADH, leading to increased fluid retention and increased serum osmolality.It is important to consult a healthcare provider for proper evaluation and diagnosis of elevated serum osmolality, as it can be indicative of underlying health issues that need to be addressed.
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a nurse administers filgrastim to a client who is also prescribed chemotherapy. the nurse monitors the client's absolute neutrophil count (anc) and anticipates stopping the drug when the anc reaches which level?
The nurse monitors the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) and continue treatment until ANC count is at least 10,000/mm3.
What is Filgrastim Injection Used For?
Filgrastim is a drug that has been successfully used in cancer patients to stimulate the proliferation of white blood cells, making them less susceptible to infections. In a similar way, it is expected to help patients with bone marrow damage from very high doses of radiation.
Filgrastim CSF injections will not begin until at least 24 hours after the course of chemotherapy has been completed. Monitor absolute neutrophil count (ANC) and continue treatment until ANC count is at least 10,000/mm3. It is used to reduce the incidence of fever and infections in patients with certain types of cancer who are receiving chemotherapy that affects the bone marrow.
Therefore, the nurse monitors the absolute neutrophil count (ANC) and continue treatment until ANC count is at least 10,000/mm3.
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the nurse is educating a patient at risk for atherosclerosis. what nonmodifiable risk factor does the nurse identify for the patient?
Saturated fat consumption, high cholesterol, and triglyceride levels, high blood pressure, smoking, diabetes, obesity, and high blood pressure are all potential risk factors for atherosclerosis.
The hardening or thickening of the arteries due to atherosclerosis. Plaque buildup in an artery's inner lining is what causes it. As the plaque builds up in the artery, symptoms of atherosclerosis may appear gradually or not at all. The affected artery may also have different effects on symptoms. However, the signs and symptoms of a major artery blockage can be severe, similar to those of a heart attack, stroke, or blood clot.
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if a dose with an activity of 2.00 mci of 123i is given to a patient for a thyroid test, how much of the 123i will still be active 24 hours later?
If a dose with the activity of 2.00 mCi of 123i is given to a patient for thyroid testing, 0.5 mCi of 123i is still active 24 hours later.
Radioactive iodine or nuclear thyroid therapy is done by injecting radioactive iodine into the body. This iodine will be absorbed by the thyroid gland and then destroyed by abnormal thyroid tissue.
The initial 123I = 2.00 mCi (given)
We know that the radioactive half-life of I-123 = approximately 12 hours.
So, we can say that in 24 hours there will be two half-lives of 123I,
Therefore after two half-lives or 24 hours, the last 123I will be:
= 2.00 x (1/2²)
= 2.00 x (1/4)
= 0.5 mCi
So, the correct answer is 0.5 mCi.
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a client has an order for two units of packed red blood cells (prbcs) to be administered. the current iv prescribed is d5lr with 20 meq kcl at 125 ml/hr infusing through a 22 gauge needle to the left hand. what action should the nurse take?
The nurse should check the IV line for compatibility before administering 2 units of PRBCs. If compatible, the transfusion can proceed. The nurse must closely monitor the client for adverse reactions and report any concerns to the provider immediately.
What are PRCBs?
PRBCs stand for packed red blood cells, which are a concentrated form of red blood cells that are used to treat conditions related to anemia, such as iron deficiency anemia or blood loss. Packed red blood cells are obtained from whole blood donation, then separated and stored for transfusion purposes. The transfusion of packed red blood cells helps to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, which is crucial for maintaining normal bodily functions.
Hence the answer is, the nurse should check the IV line for compatibility before administering 2 units of PRBCs. If compatible, the transfusion can proceed. The nurse must closely monitor the client for adverse reactions and report any concerns to the provider immediately.
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alicia sees her pcp with multiple symptoms, including headaches, joint pain, inability to sleep, and near panic. after much testing, her pcp says that there is no illness or disease causing her issues. what kind of practitioner might help alicia in getting to the cause of her symptoms?
Practitioner who specializes in mind-body issues might help Alicia in getting to the cause of her symptoms.
The mind-body dilemma is a philosophical argument about the link between cognition and awareness in the human mind and the brain as a physical bodily component. The dispute extends beyond the subject of how the mind and body work chemically and biologically. Interactionism develops when the mind and body are regarded separate entities, based on the notion that the mind and body are essentially different in nature.
The lack of an empirically identifiable meeting point between the non-physical mind (if such a thing exists) and its physical extension (if such a thing exists) has been raised as a criticism of dualism, and many contemporary philosophers of mind maintain that the mind is not something separate from the body.
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a teacher refers a student to the school nurse because the student is frequently falling asleep during class. after talking with the student, the nurse is most concerned by which statement by the student?
The student's statement that is the most concerning for the nurse is "I get 7 hours of sleep every night so I don't know why I am so tired."
On average, teens require 8.5 to 9.5 hours of sleep each night. It's because of the rapid growth that occurs during the teen years. In the case of the question above, the student stated that they only get to sleep for 7 hours per night, which is lower than the average amount of sleep needed. That's most likely the reason why the student is frequently falling asleep during class.
To give the student adequate hours of sleep, one can limit their distractions at bedtime and tell them to follow a curfew.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
A teacher refers a student to the school nurse because the student is frequently falling asleep during class. After talking with the student, the nurse is most concerned by which statement by the student?
"I get 7 hours of sleep every night so I don't know why I am so tired.""I just can't seem to stay awake during that class because it's boring.""My mom keeps telling me to turn off my television when I go to bed.""I guess I need to be more careful about my curfew on school nights."Learn more about sleep at https://brainly.com/question/4119396
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The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with HIV. The patient asks what would determine the actual development of AIDS. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS?
a. Presence of HIV antibodies
b. CD4+ T cell count <200/µl
c. White blood cell count <5000/µl
d. Presence of oral hairy leukoplakia
b. CD4+ T cell count <200/µl is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS.
What does a 200 CD4 count indicate?
A CD4 count of 200 or fewer cells per cubic millimeter means that you have AIDS. With AIDS you have a high risk of developing life-threatening infections or cancers.
What are the diagnostic criteria for AIDS?
People with AIDS have such badly damaged immune systems that they get an increasing number of severe illnesses, called opportunistic infections. People receive an AIDS diagnosis when their CD4 cell count drops below 200 cells/mm, or if they develop certain opportunistic infections.
What are CD4 cells?
CD4 cells (also known as CD4+ T cells) are white blood cells that fight infection. CD4 cell count is an indicator of immune function in patients living with HIV and one of the key determinants of the need for opportunistic infection (OI) prophylaxis.
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the nurse cares for the client after right cataract surgery. the nurse intervenes if which observation is made?
The nurse caring for the client after right cataract surgery. Nurse intervention for clients after undergoing cataract surgery if the observation about vision will be blurred after surgery.
What are cataracts?Cataracts are a disease when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy and cloudy. In general, cataracts develop slowly and are not bothersome at first. The most common cause of cataracts is the result of aging or trauma which causes changes in the eye tissue.
After cataract surgery, patients are usually allowed to go home the same day but are not allowed to drive themselves. The patient's vision is still blurry after surgery and will improve in a few days, indicated by a clearer color.
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absorbed dose to the whole body from this exposure is 250 millirad. what would be the dose equivalent
250 millirad of the 50mSv dosage absorbed by the body comes from this exposure.
Why Dose Matters?The word "dose" can have a different meaning in medical language and some general English usage than it does in radiation protection. In the same way that we talk about taking a "dose" of whisky, getting our daily "dose" of news, or anything else we like, we also take "doses" of drugs in medical settings. "Dose" in the context of radiation protection refers to the amount of ionising radiation that is absorbed per unit mass of any substance.
The equivalent dose is what?A measurement of the biological harm caused by radiation exposure to living tissue. The dosage equivalent, also referred to as the "biological dose," is computed by adding the absorbed dose in tissue to a quality factor, and occasionally to additional essential modifying factors at the region of interest.
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you are examining a split-brain patient. after flashing a picture of a bird in the patient's left visual field, which response are you likely to get? group of answer choices
Split-brain is a condition where the corpus callosum, the structure connecting the two hemispheres of the brain, is surgically divided to treat certain types of epilepsy.
In a split-brain patient, information from each visual field is processed mainly by the opposite hemisphere of the brain. So, if a picture of a bird is flashed in the patient's left visual field, the information would be processed by the right hemisphere, which is known to be dominant for spatial processing and nonverbal information.
The patient would not be able to verbally describe the picture, but might respond with a pointing gesture towards an object representing the bird (e.g., a picture of a cage). This demonstrates that each hemisphere of the brain in a split-brain patient can operate independently and have their own unique perceptions and responses.
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which action of the nurse leader demonstrates a hands-off approach in practice? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
A) Delegating responsibilities to staff
B) Allowing staff to independently make decisions
C) Establishing clear policies and expectations
D) Monitoring staff performance regularly
the nurse assesses the wellness beliefs and values of a client from another culture best when asking which question?
The nurse assesses the wellness beliefs and values of a client from another culture best when asking "What do you think is making you ill?"
In nursing, one of the important parts when treating a client is to be aware of their belief and values regarding their wellness. A nurse must know that each culture may have a different perspective on wellness.
To know what is the patient's beliefs and values, the nurse may ask "What do you think is making you ill?" This question will lead the nurse to know what is in the thought of the patient regarding their illness based on their culture and knowledge.
Your question seems incomplete. The completed version is most likely as follows:
The nurse assesses the wellness beliefs and values of a client from another culture best when asking which question?
"What do you think is making you ill?""When did you first feel ill?""How can I help you get better?""Did you do something to cause the illness?"Learn more about beliefs and values at https://brainly.com/question/30436388
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during a routine surgical intubation, a patient accidentally had their vagus nerve stimulated. what results should the surgical team expect?
The surgical team should expect the patient to experience bradycardia (slowed heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) due to vagal stimulation. The patient may also experience nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and sweating.
The surgical team should be prepared to treat these symptoms with appropriate medications and interventions to stabilize the patient.
What is hypotension?
Hypotension is a medical condition characterized by abnormally low blood pressure. It is most often defined as a systolic blood pressure of less than 90 mmHg (millimeters of mercury) or a diastolic blood pressure of less than 60 mmHg. Low blood pressure can cause a variety of symptoms, including dizziness, lightheadedness, fatigue, and even fainting in extreme cases.
Therefore, The surgical team should expect the patient to experience bradycardia (slowed heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) due to vagal stimulation. The patient may also experience nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and sweating.
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when you are taking a medical history, you ask if the client has any allergies. the client replies that yes, he is allergic to penicillin. it causes him to break out into hives. what should your next response be?
Recommendation of Antihistamines.
What is the importance of knowing patient allergies?
Allergy reporting can help health care providers optimize medication therapy, decrease the incidence of adverse drug reactions, reduce drug cost, decrease inpatient length of stay, and ultimately improve overall patient care.
Your doctor may prescribe or recommend an over-the-counter antihistamine, such as diphenhydramine (Benadryl). It can block immune system chemicals that are activated during an allergic reaction. Everyone's body chemistry is different, and everyone has a different allergic reaction to penicillin. But even with treatment, the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to penicillin can last from two to he four weeks.
Therefore, Recommendation of Antihistamines is required.
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a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation. which equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at this client's bedside? select all that apply.
A COPD patient on mechanical ventilation requires critical equipment such as a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen levels, a ventilator to provide mechanical breathing, suction equipment, and a catheter to clear the airway.
Essential Equipment for a Client with COPD on Mechanical VentilationA client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation requires a range of equipment to ensure their safety and comfort. The most important equipment for the nurse to keep at the client's bedside includes an oxygen saturation monitor (pulse oximeter) to monitor the client's oxygen levels, the ventilator or mechanical ventilator itself to provide mechanical ventilation, suction equipment, and airway suction catheter to maintain airway patency, and a BVM (Bag-Valve-Mask) or Ambu bag as a backup ventilation device. The client will also require a steady source of oxygen, and a nebulizer may be necessary to deliver medication to the client. Additionally, sterile water for inhalation, sterile normal saline solution for irrigation, sterile gloves, and lubricating jelly are important to have on hand. Maintaining an adequate supply of these essential items is crucial for the well-being of the client with COPD mechanical ventilation.
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the student nurse is preparing to care for a recently placed gastrostomy tube. which action would prompt further instruction from the overseeing nurse?
Flushing the gastrostomy tube with a high-pressure flush, Attempting to remove the gastrostomy tube without proper training, Administering medication through the gastrostomy tube without verifying the medication and dose with the healthcare provider.
Who is nurse?According to Merriam-Webster, nurses are certified healthcare professionals who practice independently or under the supervision of a physician, surgeon, or dentist and are experienced in promoting and preserving health. Nurses are present in every community, large and small, providing competent care from birth to death. Nurses' responsibilities span from direct patient care and case management to implementing quality assurance processes and overseeing complicated nursing care systems. Nurses treat injuries, dispense prescriptions, do regular medical exams, document complete medical histories, monitor heart rate and blood pressure, run diagnostic tests, handle medical equipment, draw blood, and admit/discharge patients as directed by physicians.
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a patient with myasthenia gravis comes to the emergency department in respiratory distress. he has been diagnosed with myasthenic crisis. the nurse anticipates administration of which drug?
The right option is C. Myasthenic crisis can be treated with neostigmine, a short-acting acetylcholinesterase (cholinesterase) inhibitor. The drug edrophonium (Tensilon) is most frequently used to distinguish between myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis; baclofen and diazepam are muscle relaxants and anxiolytics, respectively.
A readily reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is edrophonium. It works by competitively inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, primarily at the neuromuscular junction, to stop the breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Tensilon and Enlon are the brand names used to market it.
Myasthenia gravis, which causes extreme muscle weakness, can be diagnosed by edrophonium injection, which may also be used to determine the best course of treatment. Additionally, it is used to undo the effects of some muscle relaxants (such as gallamine and tubocurarine) after an overdose or during surgery. An anticholinesterase agent is edrophonium.
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Q) A patient with myasthenia gravis comes to the emergency department in respiratory distress. To determine if the patient is in myasthenic crisis or cholinergic crisis, the nurse anticipates administration of which drug?
a) Diazepam (Valium)
b) Baclofen (Lioresal)
c) Edrophonium (Tensilon)
d) Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
a nurse is caring for a client who has experienced an acute exacerbation of crohn's disease. which statement best indicates that the disease process is under control?
The statement that best describes is "The client exhibits signs of adequate GI perfusion".
Only when Crohn's disease is under control can adequate GI perfusion be maintained. If the client has acute, uncontrolled Crohn's disease, decreased GI perfusion may result in a bowel infarction. Positive self-image, a controllable degree of pain, and preserved skin integrity are all desired client outcomes, although they are unrelated to disease management.
Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that can affect any part of the digestive system. Stomach discomfort, diarrhoea (which may be bloody if the inflammation is severe), fever, abdominal distension, and weight loss are common symptoms. Anemia, skin rashes, arthritis, eye irritation, and weariness are some of the complications that can occur outside of the gastrointestinal tract.
Infections, as well as pyoderma gangrenosum or erythema nodosum, can cause skin rashes. Bowel blockage can arise as a result of chronic inflammation, and people who have the condition are more likely to develop colon cancer and small bowel cancer.
The complete question is:
A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced an acute exacerbation of Crohn's disease. Which statement best indicates that the disease process is under control?
a) The client maintains skin integrity.b) The client expresses positive feelings about himself.c) The client verbalizes a manageable level of discomfort.d) The client exhibits signs of adequate GI perfusion.To learn more about Crohn's disease, here
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the nurse is caring for a client with atelectasis. place in order the instructions the nurse will provide the client to use an incentive spirometer. use all options.
The instructions to be provided by nurse when using an incentive spirometer are: (1) Insert the mouthpiece, sealing it between the lips; (2) Inhale slowly and deeply until the predetermined volume has been reached; (3) Hold the breath for 3-6 seconds; (4) Remove the mouthpiece and exhale normally; (5) Relax and breathe normally before the next breath with the spirometer; (6) Repeat the exercise 10-20 times per hour while awake or as prescribed by the physician.
Incentive spirometer is a medical device used to expand the lungs. It measures the volume of air inhaled. IT helps in keeping the lungs strong and ventilated.
Breathing is the process of taking air in and out from the lungs. It therefore is comprised of inhalation and exhalation. The inhalation is performed to take oxygen in and exhalation is done to remove carbon dioxide.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is caring for a client with atelectasis. place in order the instructions the nurse will provide the client to use an incentive spirometer. Use all options.
Inhale slowly and deeply until the predetermined volume has been reachedInsert the mouthpiece, sealing it between the lipsRemove the mouthpiece and exhale normallyHold the breath for 3-6 secondsRepeat the exercise 10-20 times per hour while awake or as prescribed by the physician.Relax and breathe normally before the next breath with the spirometerTo know more about breathing, ere
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the parents of a preschool-aged child want to begin preparing the child to attend school. what would the nurse suggest the parents discuss with the child to help with this preparation?
Talking about school as a fun experience prepares children best for school
Preschoolers have active imaginations and would be an appropriate play activity to encourage nurses to dress up for the playhouse. Assume imaginative thinking. At this stage, children ride tricycles, use safety scissors, notice the difference between boys and girls, help get dressed, play with other children, and part of the story. The Montessori Plus teaching method is one of the proven approaches to the early childhood education. Young learners will grow as they understand more about themselves and the world around the children. This will allow students to transition seamlessly into their formal schooling and prepare them for long-term success.
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what task can the nurse assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) while caring for a client diagnosed with a stroke?
Routine chores, such as taking vital signs, supervising ambulation, bed making, aiding with hygiene, and activities of daily living, might be transferred to an experienced UAP.
Which role would the unlicensed assistive personnel UAP?
UAP are trained to aid nurses in patient care settings. They operate under nursing experts, who delegate and monitor this level of service. UAP primarily works in assisted living institutions, nursing homes, schools, and rehabilitation facilities.
It is within the job of a UAP to empty the indwelling catheter bag, help with position change and apply anti-embolism stockings. The nurse should confirm that these responsibilities have been done, but they are safe to delegate to the UAP.
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a dilution was made by mixing 124 mg of drug a with 659 mg of lactose. how many mg of this dilution would contain 20 mg of drug a? (round your answer to one decimal place)
"788.2 mg of dilution contains 20 mg of drug A."a dilution was made by mixing 124 mg of drug a with 659 mg of lactose.
To calculate the amount of dilution that contains 20 mg of drug A, we need to find the proportion of drug A to the total amount of the dilution. In this case, 124 mg of drug A was mixed with 659 mg of lactose, so the total amount of the dilution is 124 + 659 = 783 mg. Therefore, the proportion of drug A to the total amount of the dilution is 124 / 783 = 0.158. To find the amount of dilution that contains 20 mg of drug A, we multiply the total amount of the dilution by the proportion of drug A, so 20 / 0.158 = 126.58 mg. Rounding this answer to one decimal place, we find that 788.2 mg of dilution contains 20 mg of drug A.
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Which of the following would be considered an acceptable Route of Administration for a coumpound created in the pharmacy? (select all that apply)
A. Inhalation
B. Topical
C. Bladder
D. Otic
E. Oral
Topical administration and oral administration would be acceptable routes of administration for a compound made in the pharmacy.
One of the most popular oral administration techniques in medicine is thought to be the most efficient and economical method.
We are unable to produce or prepare oral/nasal inhalation, ophthalmic, opthalmic, bladder, or any injectables at this time. The oral and topical administration are therefore the most acceptable ways to get to the pharmacy.
For localised skin treatment, the management of external and internal parasites, and the transdermal delivery of therapeutic agents, the topical route of administration is utilised. Antiseptics, antifungals, anti-inflammatory medications, and skin emollients are examples of drugs used topically for local effects.
Absorption of medications taken orally may start in the mouth and stomach. However, the small intestine is typically where most medications are absorbed. The medication travels from the liver to the target site via the bloodstream after passing through the intestinal wall and liver.
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which question will the nurse ask the patient with a renal disorder while selecting nursing diagnoses relevant to the patient's culture
The following question will the nurse ask the patient with a renal disorder while selecting nursing diagnoses relevant to the patient's culture "How does this health problem affect you and your family?"
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a brief disorder in which the kidneys do not operate as effectively as they need to. It is a prevalent disorder that is frequently related with aging. It can affect anybody, however it is more frequent in individuals of color or of South Asian descent.
Some kinds of kidney disease can be treated, depending on the underlying reason. Kidney illnesses are frequently incurable. Treatment often includes of strategies to regulate signs and symptoms, limit complications, and decrease disease progression.
Renal or kidney disorders are also inherited. If you have a close family who has kidney disease, you are more likely to have it yourself. Genes and lifestyle decisions have an impact on your health: Your genes are passed down from your parents.
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a child is receiving intravenous fluids for dehydration. the nurse notes coarse breath sounds and increased pulse and blood pressure. what does the nurse do first?
The nurse should discontinue the IV infusion.
Fluid overload symptoms include harsh breath sounds, increased pulse rate, and elevated blood pressure, and are similar to those of congestive heart failure. These are not extravasation symptoms because this would be swelling of fluid near the IV site. The nurse would have to halt the IV infusion and then check the patient's weight, intake, and output. After that, the nurse would contact the health care practitioner.
Hypervolemia, often known as fluid overload, is a medical disorder characterised by an excess of fluid in the blood. Hypovolemia, or a lack of fluid volume in the blood, is the inverse condition. Excess fluid volume in the intravascular compartment arises as a result of an increase in total body sodium content and, as a result, an increase in extracellular body water. The mechanism is generally caused by faulty sodium-handling regulatory processes, as observed in congestive heart failure (CHF), kidney failure, and liver failure.
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a nurse has administered a scheduled dose of naproxen to a hospital client who has been taking the drug for several weeks. what assessment finding should cause the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing adverse effects of long-term therapy?
The correct option is B, that is the patient's stool tests positive for occult blood and the nurse suspects that the patient is experiencing adverse effects of naproxen drug treatment.
A prominent side effect of naproxen is gastrointestinal bleeding. Leukocytosis, dry skin, or fluid imbalances are not usual side effects of this medication. NSAIDs are among the most often prescribed medications in the world, and it is well acknowledged that they have good therapeutic effects. They are connected to gastrointestinal side effects, though. NSAIDs can cause a variety of lesions across the whole GI system. A significant GI problem during therapy was experienced by 1 to 2 percent of NSAID users. The existence of many risk factors, such as advanced age, a history of a severe peptic ulcer, concurrent aspirin or anticoagulant use, as well as the kind and dose of NSAID, affects the relative risk of upper GI problems among NSAID users.
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The complete question is:
A nurse has administered a scheduled dose of naproxen to a hospital patient who has been taking the drug for several weeks. What assessment finding should cause the nurse to suspect that the patient is experiencing adverse effects of this drug treatment?
A. The patient complains of itchy, dry skin.
B. The patient's stool tests positive for occult blood.
C. There is an increase in the patient's neutrophils but no increase in temperature.
D. The patient has peripheral edema and there is a steady increase in the patient's weight.
the nurse is assessing a young adult patient with schizophrenia who recently began taking fluphenazine (prolixin). the patient is exhibiting spasms of facial muscles along with grimacing, and the nurse notes upward eye movements. the nurse suspects which side effect?
In the given situation, the nurse suspects Acute dystonia side effect. Hence, the correct option is A.
What do we mean by Acute dystonia?During an acute dystonic reaction, muscles in the extremities, face, neck, abdomen, pelvis, or larynx contract involuntarily, either continuously or intermittently, resulting in abnormal movements or postures. According to research, the basal ganglia or other movement-controlling brain regions are abnormal or damaged in dystonia. The brain's ability to process a class of chemicals known as neurotransmitters, which allow brain cells to communicate with one another, may be abnormal. Eyelids are affected by vision difficulties. Having trouble moving the jaw, swallowing, or speaking. Constant muscle contraction causes pain and exhaustion. Anxiety, social withdrawal, and depression are all symptoms.
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fill in the blank. natural killer (nk) cells___.group of answer choicesare a type of phagocycan kill cancer cells before the immune system is activatedare also called cytotoxic t cellsare cells of the adaptive immune syste
Natural killer (nk) cells lymphocytes is type of phagocycan kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated are also called cytotoxic t cellsare cells of the adaptive immune system.
What is white blood cells ?
The body's immune system includes white blood cells. They aid the body in the battle against illness and infection. The three different types of white blood cells are lymphocytes, monocytes, and granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils) (T cells and B cells).
What is cancer cells ?
The uncontrolled division of cancer cells can result in solid tumours or an overabundance of aberrant cells in the blood and lymph. The body uses cell division, a regular process, for growth and repair. A parent cell divides to create two daughter cells, and these daughter cells are employed to create new tissue or to replace cells that have died due to ageing or disease.
Therefore, Natural killer (nk) cells is a type of white blood cells.
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Complete question:
fill in the blank. Natural killer (nk) cells___. Group of answer choicesare a type of phagocy can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated are also called cytotoxic t cellsare cells of the adaptive immune system.
lymphocytesbasophilsBladder Cancer ·Acute Leukemia