They compared survival after fire ant stings of crazy ants with plugged and unplugged venom glands. The terminal portion of each branch is made up of the more common or secretory epithelium.
As growth continues, the column of cells may divide or release offspring, in which case a complex gland is produced. While some glands, like the pancreas and salivary glands, constantly develop and divide to eventually become a very huge structure, many glands have a finite number of branches. The liver is an exception to the rule since there forms a reticulated compound gland; normally, the branches do not connect together. In compound glands, the connecting segments, which form ducts, are lined with a less changed type of epithelial cell.
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how are the nucleotides in a single polynucleotide chain linked together?
Nucleotides join together by means of a phosphodiester bond .
In general ,the phosphodiester bond are made from the linkage of the phosphate group of one base linked with the OH group present on 3-carbon from another base. The nucleotides that are present on the adjacent strands of the single strand of DNA are connected with covalent bonds known as phosphodiester bonds.
Also , Nucleotides are attached with each other as A to T, and G to C to form chemical bonds also known as the base pairs, which holds two DNA strands. On these strands their present the Genes which are the short pieces of DNA that carry specific genetic information.
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scientists have found that dna methylation suppresses crossing-over in the fungus ascobolus immersus. which of the following questions is most appropriately raised by this specific observation? responses is the level of genetic variation in the gametes related to the amount of dna methylation observed? is the level of genetic variation in the gametes related to the amount of d n a methylation observed? without crossing-over, will gametes be viable and be able to produce zygotes? without crossing-over, will gametes be viable and be able to produce zygotes? does dna methylation result in shorter chromosomes? does d n a methylation result in shorter chromosomes? is this species of fungus a diploid organism?
The question is the level of genetic variation in the gametes related to the amount of DNA methylation observed? is the most appropriate question raised by this observation. So, the correct option is B.
What is Epigenetics?Epigenetics is defined as all changes in gene expression that are not linked to DNA (nucleotide) sequence. Epigenetic modifications include DNA methylation, histone modifications such as acetylation methylation, etc., and regulatory non-coding RNA pathways.
Variation in DNA methylation patterns may be associated with repression (or activation) of gene expression.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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What things are created from osteoblasts into compact or spongy forms of long, short, flat or irregular shapes which meet at joints or articulationsWhat
Bones are created from osteoblasts into compact or spongy forms of long, short, flat, or irregular shapes which meet at joints or articulations.
A solid body tissue known as bone, bone is made up of cells that are encased in an abundant amount of hard intercellular substance. Collagen and calcium phosphate are the two primary constituents of this material, and they are what set bone apart from other types of hard tissues, such as chitin, enamel, and shell.
The structure and support of the body, as well as protection for certain organs, are all provided by bone. Additionally, bone acts as a repository for minerals and supplies the medium (the marrow) that is necessary for the formation of blood cells as well as their storage.
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which base sequence identifies the region where a transcription factor will bind, allowing rna polymerase to attach to the molecule?
Promoter sequences are bound by bacterial RNA polymerases. The promoter is the name given to the segment that RNA polymerase attaches to in bacteria.
The role of a locus just upstream of the three genes in the lactose operon was initially described by geneticists in 1964 using this nomenclature. The primary enzyme responsible for transcription is RNA polymerase, which creates a complementary strand of RNA using a template made of single-stranded DNA. RNA polymerase constructs an RNA strand specifically by adding each new nucleotide to the 3' end of the strand as it moves along in the 5' to 3' direction.
Promoter sequences are DNA sequences that specify the starting point of an RNA polymerase-mediated transcription of a gene. The 5' end of the transcription initiation site or immediately upstream are the traditional locations for promoter sequences.
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blood capillaries that supply the epidermis are located in the
Blood capillaries found in the upper layer of the dermis instead provide nutrients to cells in the deeper layers of the epidermis, which lacks blood vessels.
What does the skin's epidermis mean?The topmost layer of skin in your body is called the epidermis. It defends your body from damage, keeps you hydrated, regenerates skin cells, and includes melanin, which gives your skin its color.
What does a cell's epidermis look like?The epidermis is the top layer and varies in thickness from 0.05 to 1 mm depending on the body part. The epidermis is mostly made up of keratinocytes, keratinocytes, and Langerhans cells.
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true or false: although it was once thought that bacteria were the causative agent of most peptic ulcers, new evidence suggests that ulcers are usually caused by irritation to the gastrointestinal tract and that bacteria are only rarely involved.
It is false that "bacteria were the causative agent of most peptic ulcers, new evidence suggests that ulcers are usually caused by irritation to the gastrointestinal tract and that bacteria are only rarely involved." because bacteria have been found to be as causative agent of ulcers,
Peptic ulcers are basically open sores which happen to develop on the inside of the lining of our stomach and even the upper portion of your small intestine. Ulcers occur basically when the stomach acid damages the lining of the human digestive tract. Another common cause of ulcers are anti-inflammatory pain relievers including aspirin.
Bacteria have only very relatively recently been described as a causative agent of peptic ulcers, and new evidence also suggests that the bacterium Helicobacter pylori is somewhat involved in the majority of these cases.
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Arthropods are the most numerous animals on Earth. Which of the following traits probably made the smallest contribution to their success?A. A rigid exoskeletonB. Color of the exoskeletonC. Waterproofing by chitinD. Jointed appendagesE. Specialization of different appendages
Arthropods are the most numerous animals on Earth and the traits which probably made the smallest contribution to their success is option E. Specialization of different appendages
Invertebrate creatures known as arthropods have a striated appearance, an exoskeleton, and paired jointed legs. The phylum Arthropoda is made up of arthropods. They can be identified by their joined limbs and chitin-based cuticle, which is frequently mineralized with calcium carbonate.
The arthropods' extraordinary adaptability and success is the reason for their great diversity. Arthropods may be found in almost every environment and niche on earth because to the evolution of a wide variety of appendages, including antennae, claws, wings, and mouthparts.
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a appendage which forms a channel for the exchange of genetic material during bacterial conjugation is called a
Pili, which are thin, hair-like appendages found on the surface of many bacteria, are essential for bacterial conjugation.
This process involves the formation of a channel, known as a conjugation tube, between two bacterial cells. During this process, a pilus helps to form the tube, which is made up of protein subunits and is usually retractable.
The pilus extends outward from the bacterial cell surface, until it makes contact with another bacterial cell, at which point the pilus is retracted, forming the tube. This allows for the transfer of genetic material in the form of a DNA plasmid from the donor cell to the recipient cell, where it is incorporated into the recipient’s genome.
This is how genetic traits are transferred between bacterial cells, and it is also responsible for the spread of antibiotic resistance among bacterial species.
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Where do all tertiary somatic sensory neurons terminate?
All the tertiary somatic sensory neurons terminate at the somatosensory cortex.
Somatosensory cortex is located at the parietal lobe of the brain. There are two forms the complex: primary and secondary. The role of primary somatosensory cortex is integration of sensory and motor signals necessary for skilled movement. The secondary complex stores, processes, and retains the information.
Neurons are the nerve cells that function to relay signals into the whole body. The structure of neurons is composed of a cell body surrounded by dendrites and a long axon which ends at the axon terminal. The neuron is recognized as the longest cell in the body.
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if glucose and lactose are both abundant, would it be beneficial for e. coli cells to express the genes that metabolize glucose? why or why not?
If glucose and lactose are both abundant, it would not be beneficial for E. coli cells to express the genes that metabolize glucose therefore option d (No, lactose is broken down into glucose) is the right choice.
If glucose and lactose are both present, lactose will attach to the repressor and prevent it from binding to the operator region. This only happens if glucose is also present. As a result, the restriction placed on the transcription of the lac gene is removed, and a little amount of mRNA is generated.
In bacteria such as E. coli, it would appear that the products of carbohydrate metabolism itself are what activate the switch that determines which sugar is utilized (glucose or lactose). To be more specific, the catabolites that are formed as a byproduct of glucose metabolism inhibit the formation of a signal molecule known as cyclic AMP (cAMP).
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j. w. tutt proposed that ..... colored peppered moths were more visible to predators on trees without lichens. in contrast, the forms were camouflaged on sooty trees without lichens.
J. W. Tutt proposed that light colored peppered moths were more visible to predators on trees without lichens. in contrast, the forms were camouflaged on sooty trees without lichens.
This is also referred to as cryptic coloration and it is known as a defense or tactic that organisms use to disguise their appearance, usually to blend in with their surroundings.
Light colored organisms usually appear more visible to predators on trees without lichens while the forms were camouflaged which means hardly seen on sooty trees without lichens thereby making it the correct choice.
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which of the statements can be concluded from gregor mendel's experiments with pea plants? offspring inherit two alleles per gene from each parent. when a homozygous dominant parent is crossed with a homozygous recessive parent, 50% of the offspring have a dominant phenotype. two recessive alleles are necessary for a recessive phenotype. alleles of different genes are inherited independently of each other.
All of the statements can be concluded from Gregor Mendel's experiments with pea plants.
what are Gregor Mendel's experiments?
Gregor Mendel studied the inheritance patterns in pea plants through a series of experiments. He decided to study pea plants because of their rapid reproduction and distinctive differences in traits including blossom color, seed color, and form.
Mendel created hybrid pea plants by breeding pea plants with various features, such as tall and short, smooth and wrinkled, or purple and white blooms.
F1 and F2 generations, as well as inheritance laws: Mendel developed the Law of Segregation and the Law of Dominance, two inheritance laws, based on the findings of his research.
The contemporary understanding of genetics and the generational transmission of hereditary features was developed in large part as a result of Mendel's experiments.
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What receives the signal at a synapse in the nervous system?
Answer:
Dendrites
Explanation:
Synapse contains two main parts:
Axons: they bring information and are at the end of a neuron
Dendrites: they are at the beginning of a neuron and receive nerve signals.
T/F the base of the heart is located at the bottom of the heart.
False, the base of the heart is not located at the bottom of the heart.
What is the structure of the heart?The human heart is a four-chambered organ in the body that is roughly the size and form of a man's closed fist, with two-thirds of its bulk to the left of the midline.
The heart is surrounded by a pericardial sac lined with the parietal layers of a serous membrane. The epicardium is formed by the visceral layer of the serous membrane.
The heart's interior cavity is divided into four chambers:
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what color do you expect an e. coli colony to be if the bacterium contained a recombinant plasmid of pgem plus and chdna insert?
If an E. coli colony had a recombinant plasmid of pgem plus and chdna insert, we would anticipate it to be white in color.
Because DNA molecules are introduced into cells with a high degree of efficiency in E. coli, this organism is a favorite host for gene cloning. Due to its quick growth and capacity for extremely high protein expression, E. coli is a favoured host for the manufacture of proteins.
Sanger sequencing is the most precise method of verifying your recombinant colonies. The first step is to separate the plasmid DNA from an overnight bacterial growth. When everything is finished, the insert can be located using sequencing primers designed for the chosen vector.
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is studying the effects of selective breeding in animals. makes a list of possible results which items on the list provide logical arguments in favor of selective breeding?
Option 3 or 4 is correct - selective breeding increases the muscle mass of offspring and ups their disease resistance.
Selective breeding is the practice of mating two organisms in order to create offspring with specified desirable traits. In order to produce crops and animals with desirable qualities like size, yield, and disease resistance, this is frequently done in agricultural and animal husbandry.
Selective breeding has improved the quality of crops and animals for thousands of years, greatly influencing agriculture and food supply. The goal of selective breeding is to produce cattle with desirable features that are strongly heritable and can thus be passed down from generation to generation.
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Complete Question -
evan is studying the effects of selective breeding in animals. he makes a list of possible results:
1) can increase the risk of birth defects in animals
2) can produce large amounts of offspring
3) can increase the muscle mass in offspring
4) can develop offspring with greater resistance to disease
which items on the list provide logical arguments in favor of selective breeding?
Sort the following Into whether they occur In metaphase l/anaphase Sort the following into whether they occur in metaphase l/anaphase I of meiosis, in metaphase/anaphase of mitosis, or both. anaphase I bivalents are formed a cell division follows homologous chromosomes separate from one another the number of chromosomes will be reduced overall centromeres will divide in two a telophase will follovwthe number of chromosomes stays the same overal crossing over occurred just before Metaphase/anaphase of mitosis Metaphase/anaphase of meiosis Mitosis and meiosis
The events of Metaphase I/Anaphase I of Meiosis are: bivalents are formed; the number of chromosomes will be reduced overall; crossing over occurred just before. The events of Metaphase/Anaphase of Mitosis are: centromeres will divide in two; the number of chromosomes stays the same overall; homologous chromosomes separate from one another. Events of both mitosis and meiosis are: a cell division follows; a telophase will follow.
Meiosis is the type of cell division that forms four daughter cells from one parent cell which are haploid in the ploidy. The process occurs in two parts: meiosis I and meiosis II.
Mitosis is the cell division that occurs is somatic cells where the ploidy of cells remains the same. This results in 2 daughter cells from a parent cell.
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Plants grow in two very different ways. each type of growth is accomplished by specific types of cells, in specific areas of the plant, and for specific purposes. Place the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. terms may be used once, more than once, or not at all.1. Primary growth is the method by which roots and shoots are elongated in all vascular plants.2. Secondary growth is the method by which woody plants grow in thickness.3. Secondary growth is accomplished by two cylinders of dividing cells called lateral meristems.4. Primary growth is accomplished by groups of undifferentiated cells at the tips of the roots and shoots called apical meristems.5. The majority of growth in width is due to increases in the number of cells added by the vascular cambium.
.1. Primary growth is the method by which roots and shoots are elongated in all vascular plants.2. Secondary growth is the method by which woody plants grow in thickness.3. Secondary growth is accomplished by two cylinders of dividing cells called lateral meristems.4. Primary growth is accomplished by groups of undifferentiated cells at the tips of the roots and shoots called apical meristems.5. The majority of growth in width is due to increases in the number of cells added by the vascular cambium.
The phases of growth in plants, or the two separate stages of plant growth, are recognised. The definition of plant growth claims that it is the expansion of a plant's mass or volume. This occurs during the growth and/or reproduction of cells, organs, and tissues. Primary and secondary growth phases are the two stages of a plant's life cycle. Each stage is a sort of growth that takes place at various times throughout the plant's life, whether it be vertical or horizontal. In these stages, a plant doesn't cease growing; instead, it keeps expanding until it dies. The term "indeterminate growth" refers to this process.
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complete question
image attached
the peppered moth lands on the bark of a tree trunk and opens its wings to rest. a hungry flycatcher bird that was close behind swoops down for a meal but loses sight of its prey. the moth blended in with the tree trunk. blending in let it avoid the pesky flycatcher, so the moth lives to see another day. this is an example of ultimate causation. true or false?
Answer it’s going to be B:
Explanation:
What is the hormone that plays a vital role in the male reproductive system?
The male reproductive system depends heavily on the testosterone hormone.
When it comes to the male reproductive system, hormones are crucial. They control men's sex desires and have an impact on their reproductive capacities. Men's hormones tend to remain relatively stable from the onset of adolescence until well into their reproductive years, in contrast to women who experience cyclical hormonal release and changes according to their menstrual cycle.
Testosterone is arguably the most well-known hormone in the male reproductive system. The testicular Leydig (interstitial) cells create around 95% of the testosterone, with the remaining 5% coming from the adrenal glands. Testosterone is the most significant hormone among FSH, LH, and others. It is crucial for normal growth and development, including the growth of the body, facial hair, laryngeal functions that affect voice changes during puberty, the enlargement of the genitalia, and secondary sex traits in males.
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hematocrit is a measurement of the percentage of blood volume composed of which formed element?
The hematocrit is a measurement of the percentage of blood volume composed of red blood cells (also known as erythrocytes).
What are hematocrit ?The hematocrit is a measure of the volume occupied by red blood cells in a sample of blood and is expressed as a percentage of the total blood volume. A normal hematocrit for an adult male is about 40-54%, while for an adult female it is about 34-44%.
An increased hematocrit can indicate conditions such as dehydration or polycythemia (an abnormal increase in red blood cell count), while a decreased hematocrit can indicate anemia (a decrease in red blood cell count) or other conditions that cause an increased plasma volume.
The hematocrit is an important component of a complete blood count (CBC) and is used to help diagnose and monitor a variety of medical conditions.
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which part of the fluorescence microscope will you adjust to direct the appropriate excitation wavelengths at your specimen?
The dichromatic beam-splitters of the fluorescence microscope will be adjusted so that your specimen receives the proper excitation wavelengths.
As reflected light from the fluorescence illuminator enters the cube through the fluorescence illuminator, it is split into two directions by two dichromatic beam-splitters that are positioned 45 degrees apart. The chosen excitation light, which has shorter wavelengths, is guided by them through the objective and onto the specimen. To be observed under a fluorescence microscope, the sample must first be labelled with fluorescent dyes or other substances referred to as fluorophores.
Dichroic mirrors are a particular kind of filter that are designed to efficiently reflect excitation wavelengths while permitting passage of emission wavelengths. They are employed in reflected light fluorescence illuminators and placed in the light path after the exciter filter but before the barrier filter.
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what is covered with ribosomes and surrounding the nucleus?
The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a membranous organelle which is covered with ribosomes and surrounding the nucleus.
In particular, the synthesis, folding, alteration, and transport of proteins are all processes carried out by the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). RER's ribosomes, which are responsible for the ribosomal structure that gives the RER its rough look, are experts in the synthesis of proteins with signal sequences that route them precisely to the ER for processing.
The cytoplasm of the cell contains ribosomes "freely," and they are also affixed to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. The cell nucleus provides information to ribosomes, and the cytoplasm provides building blocks. Information stored in messenger ribonucleic acid is translated by ribosomes.
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louis pasteur used a swan-necked flask to demonstrate that choose one: a. microorganisms cause disease. b. microorganisms can arise from cellular fission. c. microbial fermentation can be used to make beer and wine. d. microorganisms can arise from nonliving matter. e. dust in the air is a source of living microbes.
The correct option is (E) . louis pasteur used a swan-necked flask to demonstrate that dust in the air is a source of living microbes.
Louis Pasteur was a French scientist, biologist, and microbiologist who lived from 1822 to 1895. In the 1860s, Pasteur made the renowned connection between sickness and germs and made the first scientific discovery of germs. Pasteur's germ hypothesis has played a significant role in how we comprehend disease. It was somewhat possible to stop these microorganisms (germs) from causing disease once it was known that they existed, carried, and transmitted disease. Finally, Pasteur had determined how and why infectious diseases spread. In a now-famous experiment, Pasteur employed a glass flask with an S-shaped neck. The "swan neck flask" was the name given to this S-shaped flask. The flask's design had a key role in Pasteur's discovery. He partially filled the flask's body with a broth-like "infusion" that was packed with nutrients. He next pasteurised the infusion by boiling it, which destroyed any germs that were already present in the liquid. The infusion was allowed to rest by Pasteur. He noticed that the physical characteristics, in particular the colour of the broth, did not alter over time. This, he said, was the result of airborne germ particles becoming caught in the s-shaped bend as they tried to enter the flask. Consequently, they hadn't tainted the fluids.
Pasteur next placed the particles within the flask's body and watched as the microbes proliferated and spoiled the infusion after emerging from the particles.
This disproved spontaneous generation, a once-dominant view of disease that said the air itself was to blame for the disease and showed that specific germ particles in the air were what caused the broth to spoil.
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In general, a signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins requires thatOA) the ligand be passed along a series of proteins.OB) ATP is inactivated at each step.OC) the series of proteins are all activated at the same time.OD) the proteins are sequentially activated and inactivated.OE) All of the above are true.
In sequential phosporylation, also renowned as the excitation cascade, proteins are first orderedly activated before ever being deactivated to make room for the ensuing reaction.
What function does protein serve?Protein is inherent in human cell. An amino acid chain make up the fundamental block of proteins. In order for your body to fix broken cells and create new ones, you need high - quality protein. Children, teenagers, and expecting women all need protein for growth and development.
What fruit contains the most protein?Guava. One of the fruits with the largest protein content is the guava. Every cup contains a staggering 4.2 grains of the substance. The tropical mango is also a good source of fiber and vitamin C.
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in a culture tube, at what phase of the bacterial growth curve do available nutrients become scarce and waste products begin to accumulate?
The phase of the bacterial growth curve where available nutrients become scarce and waste products begin to accumulate is called the stationary phase.
The bacterial growth curve is a graphical representation of the population growth of bacteria over time in a controlled environment, such as a culture tube.
The curve typically has four phases:
1. Lag phase: A period of low or no growth in which the bacteria are adapting to their new environment and preparing for replication.
2. Log phase: A period of exponential growth in which the bacterial population is increasing rapidly, doubling at regular intervals.
3. Stationary phase: A period of no growth or a slowdown in growth in which available nutrients become scarce and waste products begin to accumulate. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including a lack of nutrients, increased competition for resources, and the accumulation of toxic waste products.
4. Decline phase: A period of declining population growth and eventual death of bacteria due to limited resources and accumulation of waste products.
In the stationary phase, bacteria may become more resistant to antibiotics and other treatments, making it a critical period to monitor in medical and industrial applications.
Understanding the bacterial growth curve can help researchers and practitioners monitor and control bacterial populations in various settings.
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which of the following organisms were most likely the direct ancestors of plants? which of the following organisms were most likely the direct ancestors of plants? photosynthesizing prokaryotes (cyanobacteria) green algae kelp (brown alga) that formed large beds near the shorelines liverworts and mosses
Answer: green algae kelp
Explanation:
A nonscientific synonym for disease-producing organisms is known as ______.A. AntisepticB. InfectionC. GermD. Fungicide
Answer:germs
Explanation:
Consider two populations of fish that live in separate ponds and differ in the frequency of alleles at a locus. After a flood, the two ponds become connected by a stream and some fish are able to move between the ponds. What will happen to allele frequencies at this locus in the two populations?
a. As long as there is no new selection at this locus, the allele frequencies will not change.
b. One allele will become fixed in one of the ponds and the other allele will become fixed in the other pond.
c. The allele frequencies in the two ponds will become more similar to each other.
d. The number of heterozygotes will increase in both ponds.
Following a flood, a creek connects the two ponds, allowing some fish to travel between them. As a result, the allele frequencies in the two ponds become more similar to one another.
The allele frequency depicts the prevalence of a gene variant in a population. Different gene variations known as alleles share a genetic locus on a chromosome. A population's allele frequency is calculated by dividing the total number of copies of all the alleles present at that particular genetic locus by the number of observations of the allele of interest.
The expression of allele frequencies in decimal, percentage, or fractional form is appropriate. The allele frequencies reveal a population's genetic diversity. Variations in allele frequency over time may indicate genetic drift or the introduction of new mutations.
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how can crispr-cas9 be tailored to target different genes?
By changing the guide RNA sequence that is part of the CRISPR-Cas9 complex, CRISPR-Cas9 may be tuned to target certain genes. The Cas9 enzyme slices the DNA.
at the site where the guide RNA sequence matches a specific portion of the target gene. Scientists can target different genes by modifying the sequence of the guide RNA. By changing the guide RNA sequence that is part of the CRISPR-Cas9 complex, CRISPR-Cas9 may be tuned to target certain genes. The Cas9 enzyme slices the DNA. CRISPR-specificity Cas9's enables it to be employed for a wide range of applications, including gene editing and gene control, as well as fundamental research into the function of individual genes.
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