The theory or model to be used when the health problem in a given population resulted from lack of skill would be: (B) Intrapersonal
Intrapersonal theory focuses on the factors within an individual that influence one's behavior. The intrapersonal theory includes self-directed thoughts and emotions like planful-ness, self-discipline, delay of gratification, the ability to deal with and overcome distractions, etc.
Health is the state of well being of an individual at physical, mental and social level. A person is said to be healthy if he/she can perform daily activities without difficulty and is able to overcome stressful situations without being heavily affected by them.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
If you found that the health problem in a given population resulted from a lack of skill, which type of theory or model would be most appropriate to use?
A. Interpersonal
B. Intrapersonal
C. Community
D. Societal
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the nurse is providing care for several clients who have diabetes. which client should the nurse monitor most closely for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia?
To swiftly elevate your blood sugar level, consume food that is primarily made of sugar or carbohydrates. The ideal treatment is pure glucose, which is available in pills, gels, and various forms.
What distinguishes RNs from other types of nurses?An "RN" is a nurse who has already met all academic and licensing requirements and has been granted a license to practice nursing in the state. In addition to "registered nurse," there will be a title or job indicated.
How would I know whether pursuing a career in nursing is the best choice for me?If you have the mental stability to cope with people and just a want to help others, it can be a sign that you were destined to be a nurse.
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an elderly client is contemplating a move to a continuing care retirement community (ccrc). the nurse assesses that the client requires assistance with food preparation and recommends placement in
The nurse assesses that the client requires assistance with food preparation and recommends placement in Assisted-living apartment.
Seniors who live in assisted-living facilities receive individualized care in a residential setting. These programs are for senior citizens whose health or well-being necessitates a greater level of support, as assessed by a community health assessment conducted in accordance with state rules. Additionally, assisted living promotes social interaction and a healthy lifestyle.
Medication administration, aid with using the restroom, dressing and grooming, and maintaining general health are among the most frequently provided assisted living services. Typically included are social interaction and activities, as well as housekeeping, meals, laundry, and transportation services. Staff is on hand around-the-clock to assist with safety, care, and support. In order to make their new home feel more like a home, residents are invited to bring furniture and personal things.
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The above question is incomplete. Check the complete question below -
An elderly client is contemplating a move to a continuing care retirement community (CCRC). The nurse assesses that the client requires assistance with food preparation and recommends placement in...
A) Acute care facilty
B) Assisted-living apartment
C) Independent dwelling
D) Skilled nursing facility
47.Which granulocyte is aggressively antibacterial, and has a band-shaped nucleus when young?MonocyteEosinophilBasophilLymphocyte
The granulocyte which is aggressively anti-bacterial is young neutrophils have nuclei which is band-like structure and are actively antimicrobial.
What one of the following describes lymphocytes?
A lymphocyte is known to be a leukocyte that is frequently present in the blood and lymph. It consists of features of a sizable nucleus, a cytoplasm that is neutrally stained. It also contains prominent heterochromatin. The immune system of the body contains leukocytes. Body's defenses against illness and infection is supported by them. Different types of leukocytes (T cells and B cells) are Granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils), monocytes, and lymphocytes.
What qualities do neutrophils possess?
The distinctive multilobed nucleus of neutrophils consists of 3 to 5 lobes. It is connected by thin strands of genetic material. Azurophilic or primary granules, are abundant in number and purple in color. It contain microbicidal chemicals. They are often seen in the cytoplasm of neutrophils.
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the nurse is preparing to care for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. the nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting which body system in this patient?
Myasthenia gravis causes fatigue and muscular weakness of the respiratory system, facial muscles, and extremities.
It does not directly affect the cardiovascular system, CNS, or GI systems.
What is myasthenia gravis?
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (AChR) at the junction of the nerve and muscle are blocked or destroyed by antibodies in myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune illness of the neuro-muscular junction.As a result, neural impulses cannot cause muscular contractions.Immunoglobulin G1 (IgG1) and IgG3 antibodies, which assault AChR in the postsynaptic membrane and result in complement-mediated damage and muscular weakening, are to blame for the majority of cases.To know more about myasthenia gravis, click the link given below:
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the nurse reviews the care needs for assigned clients. which client is a priority for the nurse to assess for adequate protein intake?
The client who is at risk for malnutrition or protein-calorie undernutrition. Adequate protein intake is important for maintaining good health and preventing malnutrition.
The nurse should prioritize assessment of clients who are at risk for malnutrition or protein-calorie malnutrition . This may protein include clients who have recently undergone surgery, clients with chronic illnesses, clients with limited food intake, and clients who have a history of malnutrition. The nurse should also assess for other factors that may contribute to inadequate protein intake, such as poor appetite, poor oral intake, and impaired digestion or absorption. By prioritizing assessment of clients who are at risk for malnutrition or protein-calorie undernutrition, the nurse can identify those who may need additional support and interventions to ensure adequate protein intake.
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The complete Question is:
The nurse reviews the care needs for assigned clients. Which client is a priority for the nurse to assess for adequate protein intake?
question 1. the kefauver-harris (k-h) amendment was passed in 1962 after thousands of infants were born deformed when their mothers took a sedative during pregnancy. which effect did this amendment have?
The Kefauver-Harris Amendment was passed in 1962 as a response to widespread concerns about the safety and efficacy of drugs. The amendment required drug manufacturers to demonstrate the safety and efficacy of their products and established new regulations for informed consent and product labeling. The amendment also gave the FDA the power to regulate the safety and efficacy of drugs and enforce penalties for those who violated the regulations.
The Kefauver-Harris Amendment, also known as the Drug Efficacy Amendment, was passed in 1962 in response to widespread concern about the safety and efficacy of drugs in the United States. This amendment was enacted after thousands of infants were born with birth defects because their mothers took a sedative during pregnancy. The Kefauver-Harris amendment required drug manufacturers to demonstrate the safety and efficacy of their products before they could be marketed to the public. This was a major change from the previous system, which allowed drugs to be sold if they were not found to be harmful. The amendment also established the requirement for informed consent and made it mandatory for drug companies to include information about the potential side effects of their products on the product label. The Kefauver-Harris Amendment also gave the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) the power to regulate the safety and efficacy of drugs and to enforce penalties for those who violated the regulations. This amendment had a significant impact on the pharmaceutical industry, making it much more difficult for companies to market drugs without thorough testing and regulatory approval.
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a client who is being discharged has been instructed to continue with sulfonamide therapy for a week. which point should the nurse include in the teaching plan to educate the client about the therapy?
The nurse should include the following points to educate the client about the Sulfonamides therapy:
What is sulfonamides therapy?Sulfonamides or sulfa-drugs are a group of medicines used to treat bacterial infections. They can be in various formulations and can be administered through various routes like oral, vaginal, topical or ophthalmic (eye).
Following points should be included to educate the clients:
1.) Explain the purpose of sulfonamides therapy—Explain to the client why they have been prescribed this medication and what kind of infection it is used to treat.
2.) Discuss the dosage and administration- Explain to the client how much medication they should take and when.
3.) Review of potential side effects-Explain to the client that sulfonamides therapy may cause side effects such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
4.) Emphasize the importance of completing the full course of medication-Explain to the client that not completing the full course of the medication can lead to antibiotic resistance and the infection will return.
5.) Discuss any drug interactions- Explain to the client if there are any drugs that they are taking that may interact with sulphonamide therapy and what they should do to avoid these interactions.
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the health care provider has determined that a client diagnosed with cardiogenic shock will now require treatment with the intra-aortic balloon pump. the expected effect of the treatment is:
c) decreased after load the health care provider has determined that a client diagnosed with cardiogenic shock will now require treatment with the intra-aortic balloon pump.
Cardiogenic shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's demands. It is a result of a primary cardiac event, such as a heart attack or heart failure, which damages the heart and impairs its ability to pump effectively. This can lead to a lack of oxygen and vital nutrients to the organs, resulting in organ failure and, if left untreated, death. The signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock include low blood pressure, rapid and weak pulse, shortness of breath, cold and clammy skin, and confusion or loss of consciousness. Treatment for cardiogenic shock typically involves stabilizing the patient, treating the underlying cause of the cardiac event, and supporting the circulation with medications and mechanical devices, such as an intra-aortic balloon pump or a ventricular assist device. Early recognition and intervention are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with cardiogenic shock.
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The full question was here:
The health care provider has determined that a client diagnosed with cariogenic shock will now require treatment with the intra-aortic balloon pump. The expected effect of the treatment is?
a) decreased cardiac output
b) increased after load
c) decreased afterload
d) increased preload
why is the role of teaching clients and families and ensuring their proper education important in health care? select all that apply.
The role of teaching clients and families and ensuring their proper education important in health care 1. Empowers autonomy. 2. Allows client/family to perform self-care. 3. Allows for informed decisions regarding health care.
Participating in patient education with family members increases the likelihood that your instructions will be followed. In many instances, family members will receive the majority of your instruction. Health care administration relies heavily on families.
One of the most challenging but also rewarding aspects of nursing care is teaching patients and their families. The outcomes for patients are dramatically improved by top-notch instruction.
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(Complete question)
Why is the role of teaching clients and families and ensuring their proper education important in health care? Select all that apply.
1. Empowers autonomy
2. Allows client/family to perform self-care
3. Allows for informed decisions regarding health care
4. Empowers family to make decisions for clients
5. Allows for evaluation of client's cognition and readiness to be discharged.
How is treatment for atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance?
Colposcopy, repeated cytology, and HPV typing are all part of the treatment for ASCUS. The outcome of the repeated PAP test determined the protocol for monitoring.
Can cancerous squamous cells exist?It indicates that the tissue lining the outside of the cervix contains aberrant squamous cells. Atypical squamous cells cannot rule out a high-grade lesion and may indicate an HSIL, which if left untreated can progress to cervical cancer.
Do atypical cells cause me to worry?Atypical cells do not always indicate cancer. Nevertheless, it's crucial to confirm that no cancer is present or that one isn't just beginning to form. Close monitoring is necessary if your doctor finds unusual cells.
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the parents of a 6-year-old client are interested in promoting learning through reading to their child. which suggestion by the nurse will best promote this goal?
A 6-year-old should play with soft, loud squeeze toys since they are enjoyable for the baby to squeeze and hear squeak.
What is a baby?
Having or existing like a kid. a young child, particularly one who is still learning to walk. intended for infants or young children. From birth until they are between the ages of six months and two, a very young kid need care and/or attention virtually nonstop.
Both phrases imply a human kid, therefore the only difference is the child's age. A toddler is often seen as being between one and three years old, whereas an infant is typically regarded as being younger than one year old.
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dietary supplements such as vitamin d and calcium can replace a healthy diet if someone finds it difficult to follow the dietary guidelines for americans.
Yes, Dietary supplements such as vitamin D and calcium can replace a healthy diet if someone finds it difficult to follow the Dietary Guidelines for Americans.
What Do Dietary Supplements Do?
Different from regular food, dietary supplements are meant to enhance or complement the diet. Even though a product is marketed as a dietary supplement, it is still considered a medicine to the extent that it is meant to treat, diagnose, cure, or prevent diseases.
Adults with severe vitamin D deficiency, which causes loss of bone mineral content, bone discomfort, muscle weakness, and soft bones, are treated with vitamin D tablets. Calcium is required by your body to create and maintain strong bones. Calcium is also necessary for the healthy operation of your heart, muscles, and nerves. According to several research, calcium and vitamin D may also help prevent cancer, diabetes, and high blood pressure in addition to supporting bone health.
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a particular flu strain spreads easily from person to person and also has high mortality. this flu strain has
A high virulence and high mortality rate. This means that the particular flu strain is highly contagious and easily spreads from person to person, and it also has a high death rate, with many people dying from the illness.
This is a serious situation, as it can lead to rapid and widespread outbreaks, causing significant harm to public health and communities. In these cases, it is crucial to take effective preventative measures, such as getting vaccinated, practicing good hygiene, and avoiding close contact with infected individuals. Additionally, healthcare systems must be prepared to respond to the outbreak and provide appropriate medical care for those who are sick. It is important to stay informed about the latest developments and guidance from health authorities to reduce the spread of this highly virulent flu strain.
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your elderly patient who was prescribed an antispasmotic drug for gi hyperactivity is complaining of increased sensitivity to light and notices that she has difficulty urinating. what do you think is happening to this patient? what class of drugs do you think she was most likely prescribed? what drug class would be indicated if her condition worsened and treatment was required?
An antispasmodic drug is a medication that is used to treat gastrointestinal (GI) hyperactivity, spasms and cramps.
What do you mean by drug?
Drugs are substances that can alter the way the body and mind work. They can be used for medical purposes, such as to treat diseases or relieve symptoms, or for non-medical purposes, such as to induce a feeling of euphoria or to improve performance.
1) It is possible that the patient is experiencing side effects from the antispasmodic drug, such as photophobia (increased sensitivity to light) and urinary retention (difficulty urinating). It is important to speak to the patient's doctor as soon as possible to investigate further and ensure that the patient is receiving the best care.
2) She was most likely prescribed a drug from the anticholinergic class. Anticholinergics are commonly prescribed to treat GI hyperactivity, and they can cause side effects such as increased sensitivity to light and difficulty urinating.
3) If the elderly patient's condition worsened and treatment was required, a different class of drug such as a muscarinic antagonist or anticholinergic drug may be indicated. These drugs work by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, which can help reduce muscle spasms and improve bladder control.
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Complete question:
Your elderly patient who was prescribed an antispasmodic drug for GI hyperactivity is complaining of increased sensitivity to light and notices that she has difficulty urinating.
What do you think is happening to this patient?
What class of drugs do you think she was most likely prescribed?
What drug class would be indicated if her condition worsened, and treatment was required?
the home health nurse is caring for a client with a neurological urinary tract dysfunction. what information should be included when teaching the client how to perform intermittent self catheterization?
The home health nurse should go through the following information while instructing a client with neurological urinary tract dysfunction how to undertake intermittent self-catheterization:
1) The right way to clean the genital area in preparation for catheterization.
2) Detailed directions on how to put the catheter correctly.
3) Information about the appropriate catheter size and type.
4) Importance of keeping a clean and sanitary atmosphere and washing your hands.
5) Techniques to minimize discomfort and bladder spasms while the treatment is being done.
6) Information on how to keep used catheters safely stored and disposed of.
7) Instructions on how to correctly keep an eye out for issues including bladder spasms or a urinary tract infection.
8) Voiding is important both before and after the surgery.
9) Importance of keeping a regular catheterization schedule to avoid urine retention.
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The given question is incomplete, the complete question is given as:
The home health nurse is caring for a client with a neurological urinary tract dysfunction. What information should be included when teaching the client how to perform intermittent self-catheterization?
1. Performed in an emergency department (ED).
2. Prevents urinary catheter infections.
3. Perform as a clean procedure.
4. Requires using sterile gloves.
a client is complaing of chest pain, the client is on terbutaline and propranolol. what contraindications can lead to chest pain in a client on these medications
Given that they have opposite physiological effects, propranolol and terbutaline combined may diminish the therapeutic benefits of both drugs.
Additionally, propranolol has the potential to occasionally restrict the airways, which could exacerbate breathing issues or lead to severe asthmatic attacks. When used in conjunction with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants, or within two weeks of stopping these medications, terbutaline should be used extremely cautiously because it may increase their effects on the vascular system. Additionally, propranolol is contraindicated in those with bradycardia because its primary side effect is to lower the heart rate (less than 60 beats per minute).
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select the true statement(s) about diabetes: (select all that apply.) a. the symptoms of type ii diabetes can be eliminated by insulin injections. b. diabetes can cause dehydration due to loss of glucose and water in the urine. c. destruction of the beta cells of the pancreas can cause type i diabetes. d. the brains of diabetics often catabolize ketones derived from fatty acids.
Your body's cells need glucose to function. Dehydration brought on by hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar, might make you lose consciousness. All the given options are correct regarding diabetes.
When your body loses too much water through urine due to elevated blood sugar, diabetes thirst increases. You could still feel thirsty or dehydrated even if you drink often. Although you might be able to manage type 2 diabetes at first with oral medicine and lifestyle modifications like exercise and weight loss, the majority of patients eventually require insulin injections. T lymphocytes of the immune system kill pancreatic beta cells, causing type 1 diabetes (T1D). When blood sugar levels are either too low or too high, a diabetic coma can happen.
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The complete question is:
Select the true statement(s) about diabetes: (Select all that apply.)
a. The symptoms of type II diabetes can be eliminated by insulin injections.
b. Diabetes can cause dehydration due to loss of glucose and water in the urine.
c. Destruction of the beta cells of the pancreas can cause Type I diabetes.
d. Diabetic coma (loss of consciousness) usually occurs due to excess glucose in the blood.
a 4-year-old child is having a vision screening performed. which screening chart would be best for determining the child's visual acuity?
A 4-year-old child is having a vision screening performed. Allen figures, screening chart would be best for determining the child's visual acuity.
What is vision screening?
A quick exam called a vision screening mostly determines how well you can see things up close and far away. An eye test is another name for it. Usually, the eye test involves reading letters on a chart. A vision test can quickly determine whether you require a thorough (full) eye examination. Your vision and eye health are both examined during a thorough exam. It searches for indicators of significant eye conditions like glaucoma that may not have symptoms.
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the nurse has prepared an im injection to give a 13-year-old child. after some searching, the nurse locates the child in the playroom in front of a video game. which action is best for the nurse to take?
The action that should be taken by the nurse when they find the child that they gonna give an injection to in front of a video game is to inform the child that it's time for an injection. The nurse also should explain why the injection is needed while also moving them to the procedure room
When someone already reaches school age (at least 6 years old), they are already able to do reasoning. They tend to be interested in the theory and reasoning behind a lot of things as well, especially things that are happening to them. Because of that, when a nurse has to give a child an injection, it would be best if they teach the basic things regarding the procedure to the child.
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8. a nurse should associate which factors with the pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease? (select all that apply.)
A nurse should associate following factors with the pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease,
Poor submucosal gastric blood flowPresence of Zollinger-Ellison syndromeReduced stomach production of bicarbonate.What are peptic ulcers' main causes?
Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications(NSAIDs) are the two leading causes of peptic ulcers . Other peptic ulcer causes are uncommon or infrequent. People are more prone to get ulcers if they have specific risk factors.
Epigastric gnawing or searing pain that comes and goes, pain that occurs two to five hours after meals or on an empty stomach, and discomfort that is alleviated at night by eating, using antacids, or using antisecretory medications are all common indications of peptic ulcer disease. Due to pepsin or gastric acid secretion, peptic ulcer disease is characterized by discontinuity in the GI tract's inner lining. It penetrates the stomach epithelium's muscularis propria layer. Usually, the stomach and proximal duodenum are affected.
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Complete question:
A nurse should associate which factors with the pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease? (Select all that apply.)
Poor submucosal gastric blood flow CorrectPresence of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome CorrectReduced stomach production of bicarbonate CorrectIncreased synthesis of prostaglandinsGastrointestinal (GI) tract colonized with Haemophilus influenzae2. when preparing to enter the room of a patient who has a clostridium difficile infection, the health care team member should follow contact precautions. these precautions would include the use of which item(s)? a. a negative-airflow room b. gloves only c. a mask or respirator
The precautions would include 'gloves' and 'a mask or respirator' to enter the room of a patient who has a clostridium difficile infection.
What do you mean by infection?
Infection is the invasion of the body by microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, which can cause disease. Infections can range from mild to severe, and can be spread through contact with an infected person or object.
Clostridium difficile is a potentially deadly bacterium that can cause severe diarrhoea and other gastrointestinal problems. Wearing gloves and a mask or respirator when entering the room of a patient with C. difficile is important in order to prevent the spread of the infection. The gloves provide a barrier between the patient and the caregiver, while the mask or respirator minimizes the risk of the caregiver becoming infected with the bacteria. Additionally, it is important to practice good hand hygiene and dispose of gloves and other protective equipment properly after leaving the patient's room.
Hence, options B and C are correct.
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The nurse is working with a student in the care of a patient with AD. Which statement by the student demonstrates an understanding of the cholinesterase inhibitor medications used for AD?
A "There are four cholinesterase inhibitor medications available to treat AD. They are galantamine, rivastigmine, donepezil, and memantine."
B "Cholinesterase inhibitors are very effective in treating AD."
C "Cholinesterase inhibitors do not cure AD or slow the progression of the disease."
D "All of the cholinesterase inhibitors cause reversible inhibition of AChE."
"Cholinesterase inhibitors do not cure AD or slow the progression of the disease." is the statement used by the student demonstrate.
What are Cholinesterase inhibitors?
Cholinesterase inhibitors are drugs that are used to treat Alzheimer's disease and other forms of dementia. They work by preventing the breakdown of a chemical in the brain called acetylcholine, which helps maintain memory and thinking. By preventing the breakdown of acetylcholine, these drugs can help improve symptoms of Alzheimer's disease, such as memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with thinking and reasoning.
Cholinesterase inhibitors do not cure AD or slow the progression of the disease. This statement demonstrates an understanding of the medications as these medications can only improve the symptoms of AD, and not cure or slow down the progression of the disease.
Therefore, Option C is the correct answer.
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the staff educator is teaching a class in arrhythmias. what statement is correct for defibrillation?
Answer:It is used to eliminate ventricular dysrhythmias
Explanation:
a 53-year-old man who has been smoking two packs of cigarettes a day since he was 14 and has poorly controlled hypertension and aortic stenosis develops orthopnea. what is the most likely cause for this symptom?
A buildup of fluid in your lungs is known as pulmonary edema. Congestive heart failure is a significant contributor to pulmonary edema.
What is pulmonary edema?It can also be brought on by diseases unrelated to the heart. Breathing issues and shortness of breath are symptoms.
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is frequently brought on by heart failure, a chronic condition that is treatable. One individual who has experienced heart failure and been hospitalized out of every three survives for five years or more.
Congestive heart failure frequently contributes to pulmonary edema. Blood can back up into the veins that carry blood into the lungs when the heart is unable to pump effectively. Fluid is forced into the air gaps when the pressure in these blood vessels rises.
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Complete question: A 53 year old man who has been smoking two packs of cigarettes a day since he was 14, and has poorly controlled hypertension and aortic stenosis, develops orthopnea. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Systemic hypertension
D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
E. Asthma
a client reports constant redness and itching of the palms early in the pregnancy. the client fears that they are suffering an allergic reaction. which instruction will the nurse provide?
Rest as frequently as you can with the feet placed to or above your heart level. Early on in her pregnancy, a woman says that her palms are constantly red and itchy. She thinks that she is developing an allergic response and inquires with the nurse about the regularity of this.
Along with other symptoms, itchy hands and feet might frequently be linked to cholestasis, a hazardous pregnancy complication. Consult your doctor or dermatologist about the best course of action if the scratching on your palms or your foot soles becomes unbearable or when it (or the larger, reddish flesh patches) extends to other areas of your body. When a consumer with an inflammatory disorder approaches the nurse, their question about treatment options.
Be aware that even some burning and itching with in nose is conceivable. When a client with only an inflammatory disorder approaches the nurse, they inquire concerning potential treatments. The client is informed by the nurse that there are various effective treatments.
When a consumer with an inflammatory condition phones the pharmacist, they inquire about potential treatments. There really are numerous treatment options, the nurse tells the client.
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the nurse is reviewing documentation forms in the facility where she was recently hired. what are some commonly used forms? select all that apply.
When a nurse is reviewing documentation forms in the facility where she was recently hired, then some commonly used forms are:
A. Checklists
B. Medication administration records
C. Intake and output records
D. Care plans
E. Kardex
What is documentation ?
Any communicable material that is used to describe, explain, or provide instructions regarding certain characteristics of a thing, a system, or a procedure, such as its components, assembly, installation, maintenance, and use, is considered documentation. Documentation can be distributed on paper, online, or on digital or analogue media, like CDs or audio tapes, as a form of knowledge management and organisation.
What is nurse is reviewing documentation forms in the facility ?
Documentation should be timely, accurate, chronological, and consistently performed. When a nurse is caring for multiple clients, details may be easily forgotten or confused, so documenting after each observation and throughout the shift is important. A nurse cannot document ahead because that would record what he or she thinks will happen and not the facts of what actually happened. Block charting is the use of time ranges and should be avoided. Specific details are most accurate. Late entries are acceptable when a nurse has forgotten to document something, but should be noted as a "late entry."
Therefore, All of them are forms that are usually reviewed.
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Complete question:
The nurse is reviewing documentation forms in the facility where she was recently hired. What are some commonly used forms? Select all that apply.
A. Checklists
B. Medication administration records
C. Intake and output records
D. Care plans
E. Kardex
when assessing a newborn identified genetically as 47xy21 , what can the nurse expect to note on the assessment findings? select all that apply.
When assessing a newborn identified genetically as 47, XY,21, nurse should notes physical feature,heart defect,growth and development.
When assessing a newborn identified genetically as 47, XY,21,this process is called as Down syndrome.
The nurse can expect to note the following assessment findings:
Physical features: such as a flat facial profile, upward slanting eyes, small nose and mouth, and a single crease across the palm of the hand.Growth and Development: such as decreased muscle tone and slower development milestones.Heart defects: such as Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD), Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), and Ventricular septal defect (VSD) are common in infants with Down syndrome.Congenital Hypothyroidism: This is a common endocrine disorder in infants with Down syndrome and may present as constipation, jaundice, and lethargy.It is important to note that not all individuals with Down syndrome will present with all of these findings, and a thorough evaluation by a qualified healthcare provider is necessary for an accurate assessment and diagnosis.
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a 4-year-old tells the nurse he has an imaginary friend. his parents are concerned because he refuses to do anything without his friend's help. which nursing diagnosis is most applicable for his family?
In this case, the nursing diagnosis most applicable for the 4-year-old's family may be "Impaired Social Interaction." Impaired social interaction is defined as a difficulty with establishing and maintaining relationships with others, which can be a result of a variety of factors, including emotional, cognitive, or social limitations.
The 4-year-old's reliance on his imaginary friend and refusal to do anything without their help may be a sign of an underlying social or emotional issue, such as anxiety or a lack of confidence. It's important for the nurse to assess the child's overall functioning and emotional well-being, and to gather information from the parents and other relevant sources.
The nurse can work with the family to provide education and support, and can help the child develop social skills and confidence through play and other activities. Encouraging the child to interact with peers and participate in group activities can also be beneficial, as can helping the family establish a routine and providing them with resources for additional support, such as counseling services.
In some cases, the use of an imaginary friend may be a normal developmental stage, and the child may outgrow it over time. However, if the child's reliance on their imaginary friend is causing significant impairment in their daily functioning or is causing distress for the family, a referral to a mental health professional may be necessary.
In conclusion, by recognizing the child's impaired social interaction and providing appropriate interventions, the nurse can help the child and their family improve their quality of life and promote positive outcomes. It's important for the nurse to work collaboratively with other healthcare providers and to advocate for the child's needs and well-being.
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the nurse is trying to bring about a change in the wellness behavior of an obese client. the nurse provides a chart depicting a proper diet and enumerates the benefits of good eating habits. which response might the nurse expect from the client if the client is in the preparation stage?
The response that the nurse expect from the client if the client is in the preparation stage is "Please help me come up with a realistic strategy for sticking to this diet plan."
A client in the planning stage of a health behaviour change feels that the advantages of the change should be considered. The client may require assistance in planning to achieve the desired adjustment in health behaviour. A client in the precontemplation stage will be uninterested in the information supplied by the nurse and may even become defensive.
When a client is in the action stage, previous habits may become a barrier to engaging in new behaviours. A client who has reached the maintenance stage may seek the aid of a nurse in incorporating modifications into their lifestyle. Health behaviours are behaviours that people engage in that have an impact on their health.
They include acts that promote health, such as eating healthily and exercising, as well as actions that raise one's risk of disease, such as smoking, excessive alcohol use, and dangerous sexual conduct.
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A nurse is trying to bring about a change in the wellness behavior of an obese client. The nurse provides a chart depicting a proper diet and enumerates the benefits of good eating habits. What response might the nurse expect from the client if the client is in the preparation stage?
"I'm perfectly happy and confident about my body and my health.""I can't quit eating junk food twice a week, even with this diet plan.""Please tell me how to stay successful with this diet with my hectic career.""Please help me come up with a realistic strategy for sticking to this diet plan."To learn more about health behavior, here
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a client with venous insufficiency asks the nurse what they can do to decrease their risk of complications. what advice should the nurse provide to clients with venous insufficiency?
For at least 15 to 20 minutes, elevate the legs at random intervals. Enhancing blood flow in the veins of your legs. Maintaining your legs up can lessen edoema and promote blood flow.
Family History: The main risk factor for venous illness is heredity. For instance, you have an 89% probability of getting varicose veins if either of your parents did.
Gender: Venous illness affects women three times more frequently than it does males. Claudication, a pain in the lower extremity muscles brought on by walking and eased with rest, is the most typical symptom of PAD. Although cramping pain has typically been used to describe claudication, some individuals also experience weakness, pressure, or discomfort in their legs.
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