A fatal central nervous system disorder caused by a copy number variation—more than 35 repetitions of a particular set of three base pairs—is Huntington's disease.
Huntington's disease is a central nervous system disorder that affects movement, cognition, and behavior. It is caused by a genetic mutation in the huntingtin gene, which leads to the production of an abnormal protein. A key characteristic of Huntington's disease is the expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG) in the huntingtin gene. Normally, this repeat sequence occurs 10 to 35 times in the gene, central nervous system disorder but in people with Huntington's disease, it occurs more than 35 times. This expanded repeat sequence interferes with the normal functioning of the huntingtin protein and triggers the death of nerve cells in the brain, causing the symptoms of Huntington's disease.
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which of the following best describes the light which is absorbed by photosynthetic pigments in autotrophs
The light energy absorbed by photosynthesis pigments in autotrophs is mainly in the visible light spectrum, particularly in the blue and red regions.
Photosynthesis pigments such as chlorophyll and carotenoids absorb light energy in the visible light spectrum and use it to drive the process of photosynthesis. Chlorophyll absorbs most strongly in the blue and red regions of the visible spectrum, while carotenoids light energy mainly in the blue region. The green portion of visible light is not absorbed by these pigments and is reflected, giving leaves and other photosynthesis tissues their green color. Absorption of light energy by photosynthesis pigments drives the production of ATP and NADPH, which are then used to fix carbon dioxide into organic compounds, providing the energy and carbon needed for the growth and survival of autotrophic organisms.
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true/false. identical twins have the same genes but may differ in their genetic expression due to differences in their respective group of answer choices chromosome number diploid and haploid numbers epigenes nucleotide sequences
True. Identical twins have the same genetic code, with identical copies of DNA sequence in each cell of their bodies.
However, identical twins may differ in their genetic expression, which refers to the way that their genes are activated or regulated. This can be due to differences in their respective epigenetic modifications, which control gene activity without changing the underlying DNA sequence. Additionally, environmental factors can also influence gene expression and lead to differences between identical twins. Therefore, while identical twins may share the same genes, differences in their genetic expression can result in differences in their physical appearance, susceptibility to disease, and other characteristics.
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Which of the following choices is a Boolean search?
There are three basic Boolean search commands: AND, OR and NOT. The correct option is D.
What is Boolean search?
A symbolic logic technique created by English mathematician George Boole in the 19th century serves as the foundation for boolean searching.
The words AND, OR, and NOT can be used to combine words and phrases in boolean searches.
The organised process of employing mathematical operators like AND, OR, and NOT to broaden or narrow your candidate search on databases is referred to as a boolean search in the context of hiring.
Boolean Operators are straightforward words that are used as conjunctions in searches to combine or exclude keywords, producing more targeted and useful results.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
AND
OR
NOT
All of the above
which of the following can diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a membrane? group of answer choices cl- ion n2 gas the amino acid proline the protein insulin
The N2 gas, Cl- ion and proline can diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a membrane.
The lipid bilayer is a semi-permeable membrane that separates the interior of a cell from the outside environment. The lipid bilayer is composed of phospholipid molecules with a hydrophobic tail and a hydrophilic head, which creates a barrier for the diffusion of polar or charged molecules. Only small, non-polar molecules, such as N2 gas, the Cl- ion and proline, can diffuse through the lipid bilayer. The larger protein insulin, however, cannot diffuse through the lipid bilayer and must be transported into and out of the cell by specialized transport mechanisms.
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the graph shows the progress of the same enzyme-controlled reaction at two different temperatures. which statement is clearly supported by the data?
Option C is correct. When the temperature of an enzyme-controlled reaction is altered, the rate increases until the enzyme's ideal temperature is reached.
The rate at which a substrate is consumed or at which a product is formed is used to determine the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. The rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction increases as the temperature rises, as it does with many other chemical reactions. High temperatures, however, cause the enzyme to become denatured and cease functioning, which causes the rate to decrease once more. The enzyme's optimum temperature results in maximum activity. As the temperature rises, the shape of the enzyme's active site changes, causing a sharp decrease in activity. It's been denatured now. The best results from enzymes occur when the substrate is plentiful. The rate of enzyme activity increases along with the substrate concentration.
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Correct question- the graph shows the progress of the same enzyme-controlled reaction at two different temperatures. which statement is clearly supported by the data?
A. The amount of product produced initially açcurs at a lower rate at 40 °C
B. The optimum temperature for the reaction is 40 °C
C. The lower the temperature, the slower the rate of the reaction
D. The enzvme is denatured at 40 °C
which of the following questions would be most useful to researchers trying to determine the role of meiosis in the f2 phenotypic frequencies?
The correct answer is D) How frequently do the pollen and petal shape-controlling genes recombine?
Recombination frequency is calculated by multiplying the amount of recombination children by the total number of offspring by 100%.
As a result, 50% is the highest rate of repetition that can be observed, which indicates that the problem is caused by loci that are either spread out widely on the same pollen or on other chromosomes.
The recombination frequency is always less than the mapping distance and can never be greater than 50%. - If the yellow body gene (a) and bobbed hair gene (b) are positioned at opposing ends of the 66 units that make up the Drosophila X-chromosome linkage map, the recombination frequency will be less than or equal to 50%.
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(Science) chemistry challenge WHATS THE ANSWERRRR
Brendan frequently comes home from soccer practice with muddy socks. Previous pretreatment techniques (such as presoaking in bleach) have not worked to remove the stains. Brendan had heard about a new product that was advertised to completely remove mud stains by pretreating with the product for 24 hours. Brendan was tired of wearing stained socks and hypothesized that the new product would get the mud stains out of his soccer socks. Which statement below describes the best experimental design to test the new product\'s effectiveness?
1. Test old socks stained previously by pretreating one sock for 24 hours while leaving the other sock untreated.
2. Test new socks worn to soccer by pretreating one sock for 2 hours while leaving the other sock untreated.
3. Test new socks worn once to soccer by pretreating one sock for 24 hours while leaving the other sock untreated.
4. Test new socks soiled with grape juice by pretreating one sock for 24 hours while leaving the other sock untreated.
Which of the following represents the control for Brendan\'s experiment?
1. pretreated old sock
2. untreated old sock
3. untreated new sock
4. pretreated new sock
Pretreating one pair of new soccer socks for 24 hours whilst also leaving the other pair untreated is a good way to test them.
A controlled experiment seems to be simply one in which all variables—aside from the independent variable—are kept constant.
This same hypothesis is an assumption of what will transpire in your experiment. The words "IF" as well as "THEN" are frequently used when writing the hypothesis. For instance, "I will fail spectacularly if I don't study." Your variables are reflected in the "if" and "then" statements. A controlled experiment is indeed a scientific test carried out under predetermined circumstances in which only one (or a small number of) variables are altered at a time while all other variables are maintained constant.
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Which one of the following biomolecules is synthesized in a smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
(a) Proteins
(b) Lipids
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Nucleotides
Option b , Lipids is the correct answer. Lipids are synthesized in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
This organelle is responsible for the production and processing of a variety of lipids, including fatty acids, phospholipids, and steroids.On the other hand , Proteins are synthesized in the ribosomes, which are located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum, while carbohydrates are synthesized in the Golgi apparatus. Nucleotides, which make up DNA and RNA, are synthesized in the nucleus and cytoplasm. It is important to note that the different biomolecules are produced in specific organelles to ensure that they are properly processed and folded into their functional structures.
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g operons are regulatory sequences lying adjacent to the dna being transcribed and are composed of a promoter located next to an operator. which of the following interacts with and controls the operator?
The repressor protein interacts with and controls the operator in operons.
The repressor protein binds to the operator and blocks the binding of RNA polymerase, preventing transcription of the adjacent DNA into RNA. When a specific molecule, called an effector, binds to the repressor protein, it causes a conformational change in the repressor, leading to the release of the operator and allowing RNA polymerase to bind and initiate transcription. This mechanism allows the cell to control the expression of genes in response to changes in the environment or cellular conditions.A repressor protein is a type of regulatory protein that acts to inhibit gene expression. It functions by binding to specific sequences of DNA, known as operator sequences, that are located near the genes they regulate. When a repressor protein binds to the operator, it prevents the binding of RNA polymerase, the enzyme responsible for transcribing DNA into RNA. This prevents the gene from being transcribed and, therefore, the corresponding protein from being produced.
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The full question was here:
Operons are regulatory sequences lying adjacent to the DNA being transcribed and are composed of a promoter located next to an operator. Which of the following interacts with and controls the operator? Enhancer protein Repression protein Regulatory protein Activator protein
Is evolution from simple origins impossible, considering how complex living things are?
Answer:
No, evolution from simple origins is not impossible. Evolution by natural selection, which is a well-established scientific theory, proposes that species can change over time through small genetic variations that confer a survival advantage. Over many generations, these variations can accumulate, leading to the development of new species with increasingly complex characteristics. This process can explain the diversity and complexity of life on Earth today.
complete the concept map to describe the process of protein synthesis. drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.
The concept map describes the process of protein synthesis is
protein synthesistranscriptiontranslationRNA polymerasenucleusmRNA moleculeribosomecytoplasmtRNA moleculepolypeptideProtein synthesis is the process by which cells mаke proteins. It occurs in two stаges: trаnscription аnd trаnslаtion. Trаnscription is the trаnsfer of genetic instructions in DNА to mRNА in the nucleus. It includes three steps: initiаtion, elongаtion, аnd terminаtion. Аfter the mRNА is processed, it cаrries the instructions to а ribosome in the cytoplаsm.
Trаnslаtion occurs аt the ribosome, which consists of rRNА аnd proteins. In trаnslаtion, the instructions in mRNА аre reаd, аnd tRNА brings the correct sequence of аmino аcids to the ribosome. Then, rRNА helps bonds form between the аmino аcids, producing а polypeptide chаin. Аfter а polypeptide chаin is synthesized, it mаy undergo аdditionаl processing to form the finished protein.
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which of the following describes the process of dissolution? select the correct answer below: a) endothermic only. b) exothermic only. c) either exothermic or endothermic. d) isothermic.
Either exothermic or endothermic, as the process of dissolution can be accompanied by either energy absorption or energy release, depending on the specific solute and solvent involved. Option C is correct.
The process of dissolution refers to the breaking apart or dissolving of a solute in a solvent to form a homogeneous mixture known as a solution. It involves the interaction between the solute particles and the solvent particles.
When a solute dissolves in a solvent, energy is involved. This energy change can be classified as either endothermic or exothermic, depending on whether energy is absorbed or released during the process.
In an endothermic dissolution, energy is absorbed from the surroundings, resulting in a decrease in temperature. This can be compared to the process of dissolving table salt in water, where the temperature of the solution decreases as the salt dissolves. The breaking of the bonds between solute particles requires energy input.
On the other hand, in an exothermic dissolution, energy is released to the surroundings, leading to an increase in temperature. A common example of this is the dissolution of calcium chloride in water. As the calcium chloride dissolves, the temperature of the solution increases. Energy is released as new bonds are formed between solute and solvent particles.
Therefore, the correct answer is c) either exothermic or endothermic, as the process of dissolution can be accompanied by either energy absorption or energy release, depending on the specific solute and solvent involved. It is important to note that the dissolution process itself does not involve an exchange of heat with the surroundings, so the term "isothermic" is not applicable in this context.
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PLEASE HURRY
Colorblindness is a recessive, X chromosome sex-linked disorder. A mother is homozygous dominant for color blindness (XCXC) and the father has color blindness (XcY). Cross these parents to figure out which percentage of their offspring will be colorblind.
25%
100%
0%
Colorblindness is a recessive affection coded by an X-linked gene. Option is C) 0% of the offspring is expected to be colorblind.
What is colorblindness?
Colorblindness is an X-linked recessive condition characterized by an alteration in color perception. This means that the affection is coded by the recessive allele of a gene that is located on the X chromosome.
Genotypes Phenotypes
XCXC, XCXc Not colorblind women
XcXc Colorblind women
XCY Not colorblind men
XcY Colorblind women
Now, we can answer the question.
Cross: normal mother with affected father
Parentals) XCXC x XcY
Gametes) XC XC Xc Y
Punnetts quare) XC XC
Xc XCXc XCXc
Y XCY XCY
F1) 100% of the progeny is expected to carry at least one dominant allele, meaning they will have normal vision.
100% of the girls are expected to be carriers, XCXc100% of the boys are not carriers, XCYThe correct option is C) 0% of the offspring is expected to be colorblind.
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Calcium has an atomic mass of 40. What will it be when it is ionized anion cation isotope isomer
Calcium is a chemical element of the periodic table which has the atomic mass of 40 and atomic number of 20. It is a cation when present in the ionized form. Thus, the correct option is B.
What is Cation?An ion can be defined as a chemical species which holds a charge that may be positive or negative of some magnitude. The term ion can be used to refer to the atoms or molecules which have non-zero net charges associated with them.
Cations are the ions which are positively charged. And, anions are the ions which are negatively charged. Ions are the charged atoms or molecules. If a balanced atom loses or gains one or more electrons, then it will become a positively charged cation and a negatively charged anion, respectively.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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while running, a jogger develops a cramp in his calf muscle. which of the following would explain the tightness in the muscle?A no calcium available to bind to troponinB reduced ATP to detach myosin from actinC reduced ATP leads to increased intracellular Ca2+ levels and increased myosin and actin interactionsD no energy for power strokeE reduced ATP to pump Ca2+ out of the sarcoplasm
The right response is (C), which states that decreased ATP causes higher intracellular Ca2+ levels and enhanced myosin and actin interactions.
Many different forms of cell motions are caused by actin filaments, which are often linked to myosin. Myosin is the model for a molecular motor, a protein that transforms chemical energy in the form of ATP into mechanical energy to produce force and movement. Muscle contraction, which has served as a model for studying actin-myosin interactions and the motor activity of myosin molecules, is the most conspicuous example of this type of movement. Actin and myosin, however, interact to cause a range of motions in non-muscle cells, including cell division, in addition to muscle contraction. Furthermore, actin-myosin interactions and actin polymerization appear to be the primary drivers of the crawling motions of cells across a surface, which are governed by the actin cytoskeleton.
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which of the following statements are true of cytokinesis in plant cells? select the two that apply.
Answer:
Vesicles from the Golgi apparatus move along microtubules, coalesce at the plane of cell division, and form a cell plate.
*The cell plate consists of the plasma membrane and cell wall that will eventually separate the two daughter cells.
Explanation:
what is induction motor
see attachment
Answer:
An induction motor can also be called asynchronous motor is an alternating current motor in which torque is produced by the reaction between a varying magnetic field generated in the stator and the current induced in the coils of tue rotor
Answer:
The motor that works on the electromagnetic induction principle is known as the induction motor. Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon in which the electromotive force is induced across the electrical conductor when placed in a rotating magnetic field.
Explanation:
I hope this helps
the researchers quoted in this study discovered gall midges in every home they examined, even though gall midges only live outside and cannot survive indoors. which of the following statements does this finding most imply? question 1 options: that gall midges, like many arthropods in homes, enter accidentally that gall midges are the most diverse group of flies that the researchers' methods must have been flawed that gall midges are evolving to survive in human residences
Gall midges, observation like many arthropods in homes, enter accidentally.
The researchers' findings imply that gall midges, which are typically only found outside arthropods and cannot survive indoors, arthropods are somehow ending up in homes. The most likely explanation for this observation is that the gall midges are entering homes accidentally, likely through open windows or doors, and are unable to survive for long periods arthropods of time in the indoor environment. While it is possible that gall midges are evolving to survive in human residences, it is more likely that the observation of gall midges in homes is due to accidental entry rather than evolution.
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Pedigrees are used to help geneticists understand how traits are inherited between generations. The Romanovs, a Russian royal family, had a history of hemophilia, a sex-linked disorder that is determined by a recessive allele on the X chromosome.
What is the best evidence to prove that Irene was heterozygous for hemophilia?
A) Elizabeth is not a carrier for the trait.
B) Tatiana carried the recessive allele.
C) Her brother has hemophilia and her sister is a carrier.
D) Two of her sons have hemophilia and one does not.
Answer:
D) Two of her sons have hemophilia and one does not.
the most commonly used microscope, which uses visible light to view cells, is called a . view available hint(s)for part a the most commonly used microscope, which uses visible light to view cells, is called a . transmission electron microscope phase contrast microscope light microscope confocal microscope
Microscope for light (To expand the image in a light microscope, visible light is projected through the specimen and through glass lenses. This is the most popular type of microscope.)
The optical microscope, often known as a light microscope, is a type of microscope that generally uses visible light and a lens system to magnify images of small objects.
The common light microscope used in laboratories is known as a compound microscope because it has two types of lenses that work together to magnify an object. The ocular lens is closest to the eye, while the objective lens is closest to the object.
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which of the following is true of prokaryotic flagella? group of answer choices all of the above/below rotate counterclockwise when running the basal body acts as the motor function to move bacteria in aqueous environments amphitrichous when one flagellum at each end of cell
The correct answer is that "Bacteria in aquatic settings are moved by the basal body acting as the motor." flagella of prokaryotic
Flagella, which are present in various eukaryotes as well as prokaryotes, are largely employed for cell motility. A filament in the prokaryotic flagellum rotates to propel the cell forward. A prokaryote may have one or more flagella, which may be confined to one pole or may be dispersed throughout the cell.
The flagella of prokaryotic organisms are formed of a globular protein called flagellin that forms a rigid, hollow cylinder and rotates anticlockwise and clockwise using the motion of hydrogen ions across the membrane along an electrochemical gradient.
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Mycoplasma pneumoniae is naturally resistant to penicillin because it lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis. True of False
Mycoplasma is bacteria that ordinarily do not contain peptidoglycan, and because mycoplasma is resistant to penicillin and other medicines that act on peptidoglycan, they are difficult to treat therefore, the statement (Mycoplasma pneumoniae is naturally resistant to penicillin because it lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall and penicillin interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis) is true.
The microorganisms known as Mycoplasma pneumoniae are frequently responsible for bringing on minor illnesses in the respiratory system (the parts of the body involved in breathing). These bacteria can occasionally induce more serious lung infections, the treatment for which must be received in a hospital setting. Maintaining a high level of personal hygiene is critical in preventing the further spread of M. pneumoniae.
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which of the following discoveries would most support the statement that p53 is the most important protein regulator of dna repair to have been discovered?
More human malignancies than any other protein can be linked to a mutation in the gene encoding the p53 protein. So, option B is correct.
Tumor protein, also known as p53 is frequently mutated in human malignancies. In vertebrates, where they prevent the development of cancer, the p53 proteins. It is originally believed to be one protein and frequently referred to as such they are essential. Because it helps maintain stability by preventing genome alteration, p53 has been referred to as "the custodian of the genome." TP53 is categorized as a tumor suppressor gene as a result.
The most often mutated gene (>50%) in human cancer is the TP53 gene, which suggests that the TP53 gene is essential for avoiding the development of cancer. The TP53 gene produces proteins that bind to DNA and control gene expression to stop genome mutations.
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The complete question is:
Which of the following discoveries would most support the statement that p53 is the most important protein regulator of DNA repair to have been discovered?
A. P53 still works to fix broken DNA even after being altered.
B. More human malignancies than any other protein can be linked to a mutation in the gene encoding the p53 protein.
C. The p53 protein is generally absent in malignant cells.
D. Cancer patients always have increased p53 levels.
indicate which syllable receives the emphasis when pronouncing the term dermopathy. question 1 options: 1st syllable: der 2nd syllable: maw 3rd syllable: pa 4th syllable: thee
The syllable that receives the emphasis when pronouncing the term dermopathy is option (b) 2nd syllable: maw
A word or portion of a word that only has one vowel sound is referred to as a syllable. It just has one speech unit. Each word has one or more syllables. A vowel sound in English can be created with more than one vowel letter. A word may have additional syllables. Examples of words containing two syllables include the following. The several syllables are displayed on the right and are separated by spaces. Not every syllable in a word with more than one syllable is uttered with the same amount of intensity. The syllable that is emphasised is the one that is uttered more forcefully. It can also be referred to as the emphasised syllable. In this context, "accent" refers to "emphasis."
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true/false. the formulation of a hypothesis is based on observations and refined by available information from past observations or research. place the following statements in the appropriate sequence showing the progression from an observation to a testable hypothesis.
The following statements in the appropriate sequence show the progression from an observation to a testable hypothesis are
2. You notice that bread you left on the counter has more mold on it than do the rolls that you left in the refrigerator.
1. Does temperature affect the growth of mold or is the difference in mold growth related to differences between the bread and the rolls?
4. Colder temperatures impede the growth of mold.
3. Bread placed in warmer temperatures should develop mold faster and more extensively than bread placed in colder temperatures.
Thus, the correct order is 2 - 1- 4 - 3
А hypothesis is used to explаin а phenomenon or predict а relаtionship in communicаtion reseаrch. There аre four evаluаtion criteriа, thаt а hypothesis must meet. First, it must stаte аn expected relаtionship between vаriаbles. Second, it must be testаble аnd fаlsifiаble; reseаrchers must be аble to test whether а hypothesis is true or fаlse. Third, it should be consistent with the existing body of knowledge. Finаlly, it should be stаted аs simply аnd concisely аs possible.
Formulаting а hypothesis requires а specific, testаble, аnd predictаble stаtement driven by theoreticаl guidаnce аnd/or prior evidence. А hypothesis cаn be formulаted in vаrious reseаrch designs. In experimentаl settings, reseаrchers compаre two or more groups of reseаrch pаrticipаnts to investigаte the differences in the reseаrch outcomes.
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In a prokaryotic cell, which 4 of the following events need to happen in order to recognize where the information for a gene is? [Choose all correct answers.] Core RNA polymerase enzyme must bind to sigma. The promoter region must include a -10 sequence and a -35 sequence. Sigma protein must recognize the promoter sequence in the DNA. Template DNA must be present.
The correct option is g ; The promoter region must include a -10 sequence and a -35sequence.
Ten sequences have the consensus because they interact with the alpha factor of RNA polymerase, and 35 sequences have the consensus TTGACA, which is critical in unwinding DNA during transcriptional initiation. They are found in all prokaryotes and bacteria.
In prokaryotes, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm. It happens in three stages in prokaryotes: initiation, elongation, and termination.
In the initial phase of transcription, the RNA pol attaches to the DNA upstream (5′) of the gene at a specific region known as a promoter (Figure 2a). In bacteria, promoters are typically made up of three sequence elements, however in eukaryotes, there may be up to seven.
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Full Question
In a PROKARYOTIC cell, which FOUR of the following events are necessary to occur to recognize where the gene information is?
a. Core RNA polymerase enzyme must bind to sigma.
b. Template DNA must be present.
c. The operator must be bound to the DNA.
d. The promoter region must include a TATA box.
e. The promoter region must include a -45 sequence.
f. The gene must include information for multiple genes.
g. The promoter region must include a -10 sequence and a -35sequence.
question 13 tries leftthe is the level an impulse must exceed to cause a neuron to fire.threshold of potentialgraded potentialaction potentialthreshold of excitation
The level an impulse must exceed to cause a neuron to fire is called the "threshold of excitation."
The threshold of excitation is the minimum level of electrical stimulation that a neuron must receive in order to fire an action potential. When a stimulus, such as a neurotransmitter from another neuron, reaches the cell membrane of a neuron, it can create a small change in the voltage across the membrane, called a graded potential. This graded potential can either be positive or negative and can either increase or decrease in magnitude. When the graded potential reaches a certain level, the threshold of excitation, it causes a rapid and brief change in the membrane potential, called an action potential. The action potential is an all-or-nothing event, meaning that either the neuron fires or it does not, based on whether or not the stimulus reaches the threshold of excitation. The action potential is an important mechanism for transmitting signals along a neuron and between neurons in the nervous system.
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The level an impulse must exceed to cause a neuron to fire.
(A)Threshold of potential
(B)graded potential
(C)action potential
(D)threshold of excitation.
which of the following best describes the cerebrum? a) executive suite. b) decussation center. c) visceral command center. d) motor command center.
Executive suite is the best to describe the cerebrum.
Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain, the cerebrum initiates and coordinates movement and regulates temperature.
Cerebrum is divided into two halves. Left half and right half. Other areas of the cerebrum enable speech, judgment, thinking and reasoning, problem-solving, emotions and learning.
The cerebrum is often referred to as the brain's "executive suite" because it serves as the control center for the majority of our conscious activities.
The term "decussation center" refers to the area of the body where nerve fibers cross from one side to the other.
The term "visceral command center" refers to the part of the brain that regulates the body's internal organs via the autonomic nervous system.
The term "motor command center" refers to the part of the brain that controls movement, such as the primary motor cortex.
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Which of these BEST describes the structural difference between the DNA of bacteria and the DNA of humans?
Group of answer choices
1.Bacteria do not have DNA so there is nothing to compare.
2.All DNA is made of the same components so there would be no difference.
3.Bacteria DNA contains 3 nitrogenous bases, while the human DNA contains 4.
4.Human DNA is much more complex in structure.