Jackson is a patient with a 2 year history of tonic clonic seizures. He hasn't seen a neuro Dr. for the past 15 months, and he takes oral phenobarbital to control the seizures episodes. The patient denies any pain, during the neuro assessment everything was normal and within defined limits.
What is seizures?
A seizure is an abrupt, uncontrolled spike in brain activity. It can alter consciousness levels, as well as behaviour, movement, and feelings. Epilepsy is defined as two or more unprovoked seizures that occur at least 24 hours apart.
Seizures come in a variety of forms with varying degrees of intensity and symptoms. Seizure kinds differ depending on where in the brain they start and how far they spread.
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the nurse connects a client to the electrocardiogram (ekg) monitor. the nurse would plan the need for transcutaneous pacing with observation of which heart rhythm?
The need for transcutaneous pacing would be planned upon the observation of: (3) third-degree atrioventricular block.
Transcutaneous pacing is the temporary pacing of the heart of an individual for the time some strong pacer cannot be arranged. It involves the passage of pulses of electric current through the patient's chest, which stimulates the heart to contract.
Atrioventricular block is the interruption in the electrical conduction from the atria to the ventricles. This is due to conduction system abnormalities in the AV node or the His-Purkinje system of the heart. The abnormalities are due to miscommunication of the conduction system of the heart.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse connects a client to the electrocardiogram (EKG) monitor. The nurse would plan the need for transcutaneous pacing with observation of which heart rhythm?
sinus bradycardianormal sinus rhythm with premature junctional contractions (PJCs) third-degree atrioventricular blockventricular asystoleTo know more about atrioventricular block, here
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Which of the following children 18 years of age or younger are eligible to receive VFC vaccine? Select all answers that apply.
a) Those who are American Indian or Alaska Native
b) Those with high-deductible insurance and/or co-pays
c) Those with health insurance coverage for vaccines
d) Those who are eligible for Medicaid
According to the Indian Health Services Act, those who are Medicaid-eligible, uninsured, American Indian, or Alaska Native are
Therefore, choice a is right.
VFC is available to kids up to age 18 who satisfy at least one of the major requirements listed.
For eligible children, the VFC programme makes federally purchased vaccines available at no cost to enrolled public and private health care providers. Children whose parents or guardians might not be able to pay vaccinations can receive assistance from VFC. This increases the likelihood that all kids will receive the recommended immunisations on time.
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a pregnant client arrives for her first prenatal appointment. she reports her previous pregnancy ended at 19 weeks, and she has 3-year-old twins born at 30 weeks' gestation. how will the nurse document this in her records?
The nurse document this in her records as G3 T0 P1 A1 L2.
What are the Nursing Management During Pregnancy?
1. Monitor the patient's vital signs (blood pressure, pulse, temperature, and respiration) regularly throughout the pregnancy.
2. Monitor the patient's weight and nutrition status throughout the pregnancy.
3. Provide education to the patient and family regarding prenatal care, nutrition, exercise, and lifestyle modifications.
4. Assess and monitor fetal growth and development.
5. Monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of psychological distress.
6. Refer the patient to appropriate health care providers as needed.
7. Work with the patient and her family to develop a birth plan.
8. Prepare the patient for the postpartum period.
The nurse would document this as G3 (Gravida 3: the client has had three pregnancies), T0 (Term 0: none of the pregnancies reached full-term), P1 (Para 1: the client has given birth to one baby), A1 (Abortus 1: indicating one pregnancy that ended in miscarriage), and L2 (Living 2: indicating the client has two living children).
Therefore,G3 T0 P1 A1 L2 is the answer.
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the nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who requires a venipuncture. to prepare the child for the procedure, which explanation is most appropriate?
To get the youngster ready for the surgery. The doctor will examine your blood to determine the cause of your illness. Option A is correct.
In age-appropriate terminology, the nurse should describe and justify the process. The nurse should avoid using terminology like culture and strep throat since they are inappropriate for a four-year-old. The nurse should also avoid using ambiguous language like "taking your blood," which might be read literally.
A process in which blood is drawn from a vein using a needle, generally for laboratory testing. Venipuncture can also be used to treat blood problems by removing excess red blood cells from the blood. Also known as a blood pull and phlebotomy. Blood is usually extracted from a vein on the inside of the elbow or the back of the hand.
The complete question is
The nurse is caring for a 4-year old who requires a venipuncture. To prepare the child for the procedure, which explanation is most appropriate?
a. "The doctor will look at your blood to see why you are sick."
b. "The doctor wants to see if you have strep throat."
c. "The doctor needs to take your blood to see why you are sick."
d. "The doctor needs to culture your blood to see if you have strep."
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the nurse is listening to the precordium, and identifies a heart murmur so loud it can be heard with the stethoscope not in full contact with the chest. what rating would this murmur merit?
Based on when they occur in the cardiac cycle, there are three different types of cardiac murmurs.
Grade 1 only heard in a silent room with a good stethoscope.
Grade 2 is quite quiet but stethoscope-audible.
With a stethoscope, grade 3 can be plainly heard.
Grade 4 a loud, noticeable murmur with a tangible excitement
Grade 5 is extremely loud, only audible above the pericardium, however Grade 6 is audible throughout the body.
1) The murmur can only be heard after paying close attention for a while.
2) A mild murmur is immediately noticeable when the stethoscope is placed on the chest.
3) A loud murmur that is easy to hear but lacks excitement.
4) A thrilling murmur that is loud.
5) A thrilling whisper that is loud. Even with only the rim of the stethoscope touching the chest, the murmur is loud enough to be heard.
6) A thrilling murmur that is loud. The stethoscope must be elevated just enough off the chest so that the murmur may be heard.
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which patient information is usually included in the biographical information that may be collected by the admitting office staff
The key biographical details of the patient collected by the admitting office staff are birth date, occupation, marital status and healthcare insurance taken by the patient.
The biographical details refers to the minute details of the patient which helps in unique identification and also provides information about their personal life and some previous history related to their health, work status and medical facilities enjoyed by them. These details are important because in case of accidents, people get easy access to information about someone so that necessary benefits can be transferred to them or their family. The sources of getting some information regarding someone can be surveys, administrative and medical records, claims data, etc.
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the nurse is administering an oral liquid medication to a 5-year-old child. what would be the most appropriate for the nurse to do when administering this medication?
It would be appropriate for the nurse to allow the child to hold the medication cup.
Why is this suitable?Because it makes the child more relaxed.Because it allows the child to participate in the medication.Because it can make the experience more fun for the child.Taking medication can be stressful and even frightening for the child, but when the nurse allows the child to participate in the process, everything becomes less terrifying and the child can be happier and more relaxed during the medication.
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a new client on the medical-surgical unit has not bathed in several days although she is fully capable of engaging in personal hygiene practices and adls. upon investigation, the nurse learns she is homeless and typically utilizes the services of the homeless shelter once a week for her bathing and other hygiene needs. what is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client?
An appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client is 'self-care deficit'.
What do you mean by diagnosis?
Diagnosis is the process of identifying a disease or condition by its symptoms. It involves analyzing a patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and other diagnostic tests to determine the cause of the symptoms. Diagnosis also involves ruling out other possible causes and illnesses to ensure an accurate diagnosis is made.
Self-care deficit is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client because her lack of personal hygiene practices is due to her lack of access to resources that would normally enable her to engage in these activities. The nurse's assessment has determined that the client is capable of performing the activities, but lacks the resources to do so. This diagnosis implies that the client requires assistance in order to meet her basic self-care needs.
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on a health history, a client reports no visual disturbances, last eye exam being 2 years ago, and not wearing glasses. the nurse notices that the client squints when signing the consent for treatment form and holds the paper close to the face. what should the nurse do next?
The next thing the nurse should do is run the visual acuity tests for both distance and up close.
What situations call for caution regarding visual disturbances?If you experience rapid changes in your eyesight or an eye injury, get emergency medical attention. Urgent medical issues connected to vision that may accompany certain causes include rapid onset of: severe eye discomfort or suffering. loss of vision or double vision
What triggers sudden onset of blurred vision?While vision blurring typically becomes worse over time, there are several diseases that might cause it to start suddenly. These diseases, which include stroke and transient ischemia attack, can be life-threatening (TIA).
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what is the odds ratio of being overweight for those who exercise compared to those who do not? exercise is the exposure and overweight is the disease.
0.37 is the odds ratio of being overweight for those who exercise compared to those who do not.
Obesity or being overweight refers to having more body fat than is optimally healthy. Obesity is more common in locations where food is readily available and lifestyles are sedentary. By 2003, excess weight had reached epidemic proportions globally, with over 1 billion people classed as overweight or obese.
Exercise is a physical activity that enhances or maintains physical fitness as well as overall health and wellness. It is done for a number of reasons, including promoting development and strength, building muscles and the cardiovascular system, sharpening athletic ability, weight loss or maintenance, enhancing health, or simply for enjoyment. Many individuals prefer to exercise outside, where they may socialise and improve their physical and mental health.
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which method would the nurse teach a client on a rehabilitation unit after a cerebrovascular accident (cva) with residual hemiparesis to help achieve the goal of safe walking with a cane? shorten the stride of the unaffected extremity. advance the cane and the affected extremity simultaneously. lean the body toward the side with the cane when ambulating. hold the cane on the same side as the affected extremity and increase the base of support.
The nurse would use D)Advance the cane and the affected extremity simultaneously.
Advancing the cane and the affected extremity simultaneously supports stability. The body is supported partially on the affected limb and partially on the cane as the unaffected limb moves forward. Shortening the stride of the unaffected extremity will produce an awkward gait and instability; normal ambulation should be approximated. Leaning the body toward the cane when ambulating will change the center of gravity and cause instability. The cane is held on the unaffected, not the affected, side and advanced at the same time as the affected extremity to increase the base of support and provide stability.
Do you use a cane on the affected or unaffected side?
If you are using a cane because one leg is weak or painful, hold the cane on the opposite side of the weak or painful leg. For example, if your right hip is sore, hold the cane in your left hand. If you are using the cane for a little help with balance and stability, hold it in the hand you use less.
What is the order of cane good leg affected leg while walking with using a cane?
Put your cane on the step first. Then, put your injured leg on the step. Finally, put your good leg, which carries your body weight, on the step.
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the nurse is providing care for a patient receiving curative care who is experiencing chronic pain as a result of cancer. which type of care should the nurse plan for on discharge for this patient?
The goal of palliative care is to improve quality of life and lessen suffering in patients with serious, complex, and frequently terminal illnesses. Palliative care is defined in a variety of ways in the published literature.
Home health care gives patients who are confined to their homes specialized care. This is not the patient's best option.
2 Palliative care is a specialized type of medical attention that emphasizes the reduction of pain and other symptoms, as well as the stress, brought on by serious illness.
3 Hospice care concentrates on providing care for patients who have less than six months to live.
4 Patients who need strengthening after being hospitalized can receive rehab services from rehabilitation care.
The goal of palliative care is to enhance the quality of life for patients (both adults and children) and their families who are dealing with a terminal illness.
The targets are: relieve other symptoms and pain. Address your own and your caregivers' emotional and spiritual worries.
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the nurse is caring for a 7-year-old child who has difficulty concentrating and completing tasks and who cannot seem to sit still. which diagnostic test may be ordered to assist with a diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adhd) in this child?
The inability to concentrate on little details and constant squirming are both signs of ADHD and show how inattentive, hyperactive, and impulsive the youngster is.
How is ADHD managed in 7-year-olds?The recommendations for children aged 6 and older include medication in conjunction with behaviour treatment, parent training in behaviour management for kids up to age 12, and additional forms of behaviour therapy and training for teenagers. Schools may also be included in the treatment.
What are three ADHD treatments?Effective treatments for managing ADHD include medication treatment, parent-delivered behaviour therapy, and teacher-delivered behaviour therapy.
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the nurse correlates which findings to the pathophysiology of chronic malignant pain? a. recent trauma b. rapidly dividing cells c. direct damage to nerve fibers d. persistent pain with no known etiology
The correct option is "d. persistent pain with no known etiology." Chronic malignant pain is a type of chronic pain that is resistant to standard medical treatments.
It is often associated with significant physical and emotional distress. The pathophysiology of chronic malignant pain is not well understood, but it is thought to involve changes in the way the nervous system processes pain signals.
One key factor in the development of chronic malignant pain is the presence of persistent pain with no known etiology. This type of pain can persist for weeks, months, or even years, despite the absence of any apparent injury or underlying medical condition. This type of pain is often described as burning, aching, or shooting, and it can be accompanied by a range of physical and psychological symptoms, such as fatigue, depression, and anxiety.
The mechanism by which chronic pain persists in the absence of an underlying injury or disease is not well understood, but it is thought to involve changes in the way the nervous system processes pain signals. This can include changes in the sensitivity of pain receptors, changes in the way the brain processes pain signals, and changes in the way the body responds to pain.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to have a thoracotomy. when planning preoperative teaching, what information should the nurse communicate to the client?
The nurse should communicate information about the procedure, anesthesia, breathing exercises, pain management, and thoracotomy deep breathing and coughing.
A thoracotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making anesthesia an incision in the chest wall to access the organs inside the thorax. When planning preoperative teaching for a client who is scheduled to have a thoracotomy, the nurse should communicate several key pieces of information. The nurse should explain the purpose thoracotomy and details of the procedure, including the type of incision that will be made and the expected length of the procedure. The nurse should also discuss the type of anesthesia that will be used, such as general or regional anesthesia, and any associated risks and side effects.
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the majority of beneficiaries receiving health care through medicare are group of answer choices disabled elderly those suffering from end-stage renal disease financially poor
The majority of beneficiaries receiving health care through medicare are groups of elderly. Therefore, the correct answer is the second option.
Medicare is the government's national health insurance program in the United States of America. This program began in 1965 under the SSA and now is administered by the CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services).
Nowadays, medicare primarily provides health insurance for elder people, aged 65 and older. However, some of the people from the younger generation can also receive medicare; most people who have disability status as determined by the SSA. As of 2022, 48% of eligible Medicare beneficiaries are enrolled in Medicare plans.
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a school nurse is addressing dental health issues. which activity would be most appropriate at the community level
One of the most appropriate activities would be conducting oral health education programs for parents, teachers, and community members.
This would involve educating individuals about the importance of good oral hygiene, such as brushing teeth twice a day and flossing, as well as the impact of diet on dental health. The nurse could also discuss the importance of regular dental check-ups and the dangers of tobacco and excessive alcohol consumption.
In addition, the nurse could collaborate with local dentists and community organizations to provide free or low-cost dental screenings and cleanings for children and families in need. This would help to identify and treat dental problems early on and promote overall oral health in the community.
Another effective activity would be advocating for increased access to dental care, such as advocating for the inclusion of dental coverage in health insurance plans or working with local government and community organizations to establish mobile dental clinics in underserved areas.
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a dental office in a busy metropolitan area would like to improve its patient scheduling process. what is the team's next step?
The next step of the team can be to analyze the changes they made and the possible improvement which was seen so that it can be extended to every patient.
The people in metropolitan cities are always in rush and they do not like wasting their time sitting for their appointment call for long. In such cases, scheduling of the patients as per their availability is very important. It can be taken from the PDSA cycle in which the plan of action is given due priority. PDSA stands for plan do study act. The different approaches used by the team can be applied to the patients which comes in plan approach. Later its consequences can be analyzed for better actions.
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Refer to complete question below:
An orthopedic clinic in a busy metropolitan area would like to improve its patient scheduling process. More specifically, the clinic wants to improve its efficiency and the satisfaction of its patients. The orthopedic clinic plans the change to improve scheduling, and then it carries out a small test of change with three patients on Tuesday morning.
What's the next thing the clinic's improvement team should do?
the patient is inquiring about how this medication therapy will affect her oral contraceptives. the nurse would explain that?
If the patient is inquiring about how this medication therapy will affect her oral contraceptives. The nurse would explain that OCP effectiveness is more likely to be reduced by antibiotics.
Azithromycin (Zithromax), erythromycin, ketoconazole, penicillin (and its derivatives), rifampin, rifabutin (Mycobutin), and tetracycline antibiotics are among the antibiotics that are more likely to decrease OCP's effectiveness. OCPs' efficacy is reduced by rifampin, an inducer of estrogen metabolism enzymes. Ovulation outcomes and pharmacokinetics support a clinically relevant drug interaction between OCPs and rifampin and, to a lesser extent, rifabutin, according to a systematic review; however, data on other rifamycins are limited.
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which position would the nurse use for placement of the effect extremity of a client who is recovering
A client who is recovering after a realizes as well as intermaxillary fixation (ORIF) of something like a fractured hip would be placed in a moderate abduction position by the nursing.
Can someone with a hip fracture still move?Most people who have musculoskeletal injuries are unable to walk or stand. Walking is occasionally possible, although any strain on the limb causes terrible pain. bodily modifications You might have a bruise along your hip.
How bad is just a fractured hip really?A broken hip is a serious injury that can make it impossible for you to sit down and is excruciatingly painful. A broken hip can increase a person's risk for a number of conditions, including deeper vein thrombosis, sinusitis, and joint pain. Some problems may put your life into jeopardy.
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the nurse is caring for a child who has tinea corporis. the child weighs 18 lb 11 oz. the medication order reads: administer griseofulvin 85 mg po every day. griseofulvin is supplied as 125 mg/5 ml. how many milliliters of medication will the nurse administer with each dose? round to the nearest tenth. group of answer choices
0.7 mL of medication the nurse will administer with each dose.
What do you mean by medication?
Medication is any form of treatment using drugs, such as prescription medicines, over-the-counter medicines, vitamins, and herbal supplements, to treat a health problem or improve a person’s health.
Now,
125 mg / 5 ml = 25 mg/mL
85 mg / 25 mg/mL = 3.4 mL
3.4 mL x 18 lb 11 oz = 62.7 mL
62.7 mL / 85 mg = 0.7 mL (rounded to the nearest tenth)
The nurse will need to calculate the correct dosage of medication for the child based on their weight.
Therefore, 0.7 ml of medication the nurse will administer with each dose.
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which of the following periodontal diagnoses can receive total dental and periodontal maintenance in a general dental practice? group of answer choices a) mild chronic periodontitis b) moderate chronic periodontitis c) severe chronic periodontitis d) aggressive periodontitis
a)Mild chronic periodontitis can receive total dental and periodontal maintenance in general dental practice. The treatment of moderate, severe, and aggressive periodontitis usually requires special care in a periodontal practice.
Total Dental and Periodontal Maintenance in General Dental PracticeTotal dental and periodontal maintenance is an essential aspect of oral health care that involves cleaning, polishing, and scaling teeth to remove plaque and tartar buildup. It is a routine procedure that helps prevent gum disease, cavities, and other oral health problems. In general dental practices, total dental and periodontal maintenance can be performed for patients with mild chronic periodontitis, which is a condition characterized by inflammation and progressive loss of gum attachment to the teeth. The treatment plan for mild chronic periodontitis may include non-surgical procedures such as scaling and root planing, as well as regular cleaning appointments to maintain oral health. On the other hand, moderate, severe, and aggressive periodontitis are more severe forms of gum disease that usually require special care in a periodontal practice. These forms of periodontitis are typically treated with a combination of non-surgical and surgical procedures, along with ongoing maintenance to manage the condition.
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a 9-year-old child with rheumatoid arthritis has difficulty moving the hands as well as other joints due to pain. the child refuses to participate in the prescribed physical therapy. what would be the best way for the nurse to make sure the child continues to exercise the joints?
A nurse will support children with rheumatoid arthritis in their physical therapy by taking a comprehensive approach that includes: motivational Interviewing, fun activities and play into therapy, and tailoring exercises.
Engaging Children with Rheumatoid Arthritis in Physical Therapy: A Comprehensive ApproachPhysical therapy is an essential component of treatment for children with rheumatoid arthritis, but some children may resist participation due to pain or other reasons. To ensure that children with rheumatoid arthritis continue to exercise their affected joints, a comprehensive approach is needed that incorporates motivational interviewing, fun activities, tailoring exercises to the child's interests, offering positive reinforcement and rewards, and involving family and caregivers. The nurse can play a key role in implementing this approach and working closely with the child's healthcare provider to develop a plan that is safe, effective, and supportive. By taking a comprehensive approach to engaging children with rheumatoid arthritis in physical therapy, they can receive the full benefits of treatment and maintain their joint health and function.
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the nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition to a pediatric client. how often should the nurse monitor the child's blood glucose level during the initial phase of the infusion?
The nurse should monitor the child's blood glucose level during the initial phase of the infusion of parenteral nutrition every 4 to 6 hours.
Parenteral nutrition is the act of feeding nutritional products to a person intravenously. This procedure allows the patient to gain nutrients without having to eat and digest food. It is usually done for people whose digestive systems are either unable to absorb or cannot tolerate adequate food eaten by mouth.
Some people that need parenteral nutrition are people who are suffering from disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease, and even cancer or people in comatose.
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a nurse is preparing to administer a cough syrup containing codeine to a client. the nurse understands that this drug would be classified as which schedule of a controlled substance?
Before beginning codeine therapy, professionals must conduct a history check, physical exam, and necessary tests, including determining the likelihood of substance addiction, abuse, or misuse.
Why is cough syrup with codeine used?
It is usually blended with other medications in cough and cold medications that are available both on a prescription and over-the-counter (OTC). In order to function, codeine modifies the way the brain responds to pain and reduces activity in the region of the brain that regulates coughing.
Why should a pharmacist exercise caution while dispensing cough medications that contain codeine?
In particular, during the first 24 to 72 hours of treatment and any time your dose is raised, codeine can result in serious or even fatal breathing issues.
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Complete ques is here:
a nurse is preparing to administer a cough syrup containing codeine to a client. the nurse understands that this drug would be classified as which schedule of a controlled substance?
A)C-V
B)speeding up chemical reactions
C)first-pass effect.
D)Maintain homeostasis
Which of the following statements about disease is not true?A. Disease is a state of health in which people cannot function normally.B. Disease describes an overall optimal state of health. C. Disease can affect the body and the mind.D. Disease describes an overall poor state of health.
Of the given statements about disease not true is option B that is disease describes an overall optimal state of health.
Disease is any adverse variation from an organism's normal structural or functional condition that is often accompanied by a set of symptoms and is different from physical damage in origin. Symptoms or signals that point to an organism's aberrant status are frequently displayed by ill organisms. In order to identify the symptoms of sickness, it is necessary to comprehend an organism's normal state. But there isn't usually a clear line separating sickness from wellness. When it comes to chemical, physical, and functional activities, an organism's normal state is characterized by a delicate physiological balance, or homeostasis, which is maintained by a complex of poorly understood systems.
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which three statements are supported by the data in the graph? which three statements are supported by the data in the graph? 1.77% of the total fat in heart attack patients is trans fats. non-heart attack patient would have nearly 3g of trans fats in 200 g of adipose tissue, on average. people who have lower trans fats levels are more likely to have a heart attack. non-heart attack patients have trans fats levels that are just under half of the levels in heart attack patients. heart attack patients have higher levels of trans fats in their adipose tissue than non-heart attack patients.
On average, 200 grams of adipose tissue from non-heart attack patients would include over 3 grams of trans fat.Patients who have had a heart attack have more trans fats on their adipose tissue compared to those who have not.Trans fats make about 1.77% of the fat .
What distinguishes trans fat mostly from saturated fat?Red dairy and meat items naturally contain saturated fat.Additionally, it can be found in fried and baked items.Red dairy and meat products naturally contain trace quantities of trans fat.Hydrogen can also be added to vegetable oil to create trans fat.
Does total fat include saturated and trans fat?The many forms of fat that make up a product's total fat are also listed on the nutrition facts label.This includes the grams (g) of saturated and trans fats and the percentage of the daily value (%DV) for saturated fat per serving.
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a nurse is teaching a group of primigravida women who are in their first trimester. one of the women asks the nurse about sexual activity during pregnancy. which information would the nurse most likely incorporate into the response?
The nurse most likely incorporate into the response Because of pelvic congestion.
Which of the following is one of the critical events of the first trimester?
The digestive system, heart, and circulatory system start to take shape, as well as the neural tube (which develops into the brain and spinal cord). The first stages of the eyes and ears are growing. Little limb buds start to form, eventually growing into arms and legs. Heartbeat is audible.
What is something that occurs to the woman during the 1st trimester of a pregnancy?
The placenta, your breasts, your uterus, and additional blood make up the majority of this weight. Your breathing and heartbeat are moving more quickly. Your breasts get swollen, heavier, and more painful. You experience frequent urination because your expanding uterus puts pressure on your bladder.
Hence above given is a correct answer.
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the home care nurse is monitoring a client discharged home after resolution of a pulmonary embolus. for what potential complication should the home care nurse be most closely monitoring this client?.
The potential complication should the home care nurse be most closely monitoring this client is Residual effects of compromised oxygenation. The correct option to this question is D.
What is monitoring parameters of pulmonary embolism?The patient should be checked by the home care nurse for any after effects of the PE, which caused a major interruption in breathing and oxygenation. Pneumonia is a less likely sequela to PE because of its noninfectious etiology. Swallowing ability won't likely be impacted; activity level is significant, but deoxygenation's consequences take priority.A blood clot, which is most frequently what causes a pulmonary embolism, gets lodged in a lung artery and prevents blood flow.Patients with pulmonary embolism should have a quick follow-up appointment within two to three weeks of their PE, or sooner if symptoms or the complexity of the patient indicate that this is necessary. It is advised that experts follow up with the PERT team.For more information on pulmonary embolism kindly visit to
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Complete question :: The home care nurse is monitoring a patient discharged home after resolution of a pulmonary embolus. For what potential complication would the home care nurse be most closely monitoring this patient?
A) Signs and symptoms of pulmonary infection
B) Swallowing ability and signs of aspiration
C) Activity level and role performance
D) Residual effects of compromised oxygenation
a client with a history of cardiac disease has safely delivered a full-term infant. when discussing discharge instructions, the nurse knows the teaching was successful when the client makes what statement?
The nurse knows the teaching was successful when client makes following statement :
2."I must include lots of fiber to prevent constipation"
When a client with a history of cardiac disease has safely delivered a full-term infant, the nurse should provide discharge instructions and assess the client's understanding of the instructions. The nurse will know that the teaching was successful when the client makes the following statement:
"I understand the importance of monitoring my symptoms and seeking medical attention if I experience any chest pain or shortness of breath."
This statement indicates that the client has a clear understanding of the potential complications related to their cardiac disease and the need to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms develop.
Other important discharge instructions for a client with a history of cardiac disease may include:
Taking prescribed medications as directed.
Maintaining a healthy diet and engaging in physical activity as advised by their healthcare provider.
Scheduling and keeping all follow-up appointments with their healthcare provider.
It is important for the nurse to assess the client's understanding of these instructions and provide additional teaching as needed to ensure the client is able to manage their condition and promote their health and well-being after discharge.
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A client with a history of cardiac disease has safely delivered a full term infant. When discussing discharge instructions, the nurse knows the teaching was successful when client makes what statement?
1. Now that the baby is born, I can eat more salt.
2. I must include lots of fiber to prevent constipation
3. I should return my previous dose of cardiac medication
4. I will need extra fluids to help with breast feeding needs