Statements the bond between oxygen and hydrogen in water (H2O), electrons are not equally shared by the atoms in a covalent bond, and one atom has a partial negative charge, and the other atom has a partial positive charge make reference to polar bonds, while electrons are equally shared between atoms in a covalent bond and The bond between hydrogen atoms in diatomic hydrogen (H2) make reference to non polar bonds.
What are polar bonds?In chemistry, the term polar bond makes reference to the sharing of elections between atoms in a molecule that form regions with differential positive and negative charges.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that polar bonds depend on electrical charges in different areas of the molecule.
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A ____ epithelium is found in areas likely to be subjected to abrasive activities and mechanical stress
Stratified squamous epithelium is located in areas likely to experience mechanical stress and friction.
This type of epithelium is composed of multiple cell layers, with the outermost layer being composed of flattened, dead cells. This layer of dead cells is able to act as a protective barrier against abrasion, providing a tough surface that is impermeable to most substances.
Furthermore, the multiple layers of cells provides greater structural integrity and the ability to withstand greater mechanical stress. This type of epithelium is found in areas such as the skin, the oral cavity, and the esophagus.
The skin is subjected to a variety of abrasive activities throughout the day, such as rubbing against clothing, and the oral cavity and esophagus are subjected to mechanical stress from swallowing and digestion. These areas are therefore well-suited to the protective qualities of stratified squamous epithelium.
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explain the role of the three energy systems during exercise and provide an example using track running events. which muscle fiber types are the major source of energy production during these track events?
'The three energy systems during exercise are the phosphagen system, glycolytic system, and oxidative system.
Phosphagen System: This system provides energy for short, intense bursts of activity, such as a 100-meter sprint, lasting 10-15 seconds.
Glycolytic System: This system provides energy for moderate intensity, longer duration activities, such as a 400-meter run, lasting about 45-60 seconds.
Oxidative System: This system provides energy for low to moderate intensity activities, such as a marathon, lasting several hours.
How are the energy systems used?During a 100-meter sprint, the phosphagen system is the primary source of energy, as the runner needs to generate a large amount of power and speed over a short duration.
As the duration increases, the glycolytic system becomes increasingly important, providing energy for the runner to maintain their pace over a longer distance
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what is energy dense?
Answer:
lt is the amount of energy in a paticular weight of food and depending on food's mix of nutrients , ranges from 0 to 9 kcal/g
why are transport proteins needed in the cell membrane?
Transport proteins are needed in the cell membrane for entering the cell with ions and other tiny substances.
Transport proteins are channels that allow materials to move in and out of the cell. They are routes that cross the cell membrane to connect the interior and outside of the cell. Many transport proteins are specialized, which means that only a particular kind of molecule may pass through them. For instance, aquaporins only permit water to flow through.
The cell needs transport proteins to function. They facilitate the entry of elements into the cell that would not otherwise be possible. For instance, the primary energy source of the cell is glucose. It cannot, however, diffuse across the cell membrane because of its size. rescuing transport proteins A protein allows glucose to enter a cell, giving the cell energy.
To readily enter and exit, essential substances including proteins, lipids, ions, and even water need transport proteins. the cell's. Even waste materials typically need some sort of assistance to exit the cell. Without transport proteins, cells would be unable to take in nutrients and materials as well as dispose of potentially harmful waste.
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what structural characteristic ensures a slow flow of lymph through a lymph node? why is this desirable?
The anatomical structural characteristic that allows the slow flow of lymph through a lymph node is Lymphatic vessels.
What is the role of lymph node and the types of lymphatic vessels?
The lymph nodes are to filter the lymph before it is reintroduced to the bloodstream.
Types:
Afferent lymphatic vessels carry unfiltered lymph into the node.Efferent lymphatic vessels carry the filtered lymph.Each lymph node has fewer efferent than afferent vessels, which causes a slight stagnation in lymph flow inside the node. It is desirable because it provides time for the node's macrophages to clear out antigens and other debris and for the activation of immune cells.
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what cellular structure do antibiotics typically target? what cellular structure do antibiotics typically target? cell membranes cell walls mitochondria vacuoles
In general, bacteria have three primary antibiotic targets: the membranes or cell wall that encloses the bacterial cell. the equipment used to create DNA and RNA, two types of nucleic acids. The equipment that makes proteins (the ribosome and associated proteins)
The peptidoglycan molecule's synthesis is hampered by penicillin. The peptididoglycan molecules connect tightly, giving the bacterial cell its strength and avoiding cytoplasmic leakage. The cell wall of almost every bacterium is made of peptidoglycan.
Therefore, protein synthesis, nucleic acid synthesis, and the synthesis of biological metabolic compounds are among the targets of antibacterial medications, according to their mechanism of action.
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suppose that on a small island off the coast of scotland, 32 percent of the population has blue eyes, which means that these individuals must be homozygous for the blue eye color gene (bb). the only other eye color found on the island is brown, and individuals that are homozygous for the brown eye color gene (bb) or heterozygous (bb) will have brown eyes because brown is the dominant gene. assume this population is in hardy-weinberg equilibrium. if 100 babies are born next year, how many of these would you expect to have brown eyes and be heterozygous?
[tex]p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1[/tex]The number of babies to have brown eyes and heterozygous is 49.
What is hardy-weinberg equilibrium?The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is a principle stating that the genetic variation in a population will remain constant from one generation to the next in the absence of disturbing factors.
[tex]p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1[/tex]
Blue eyes (bb) = 32% = 0.32
Out of 100, 32 will have blue eyes.
So, bb = 0.32
[tex]\sqrt[2]{q2}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{0.32}[/tex]
[tex]q[/tex] = [tex]0.566[/tex]
[tex]p+q = 1[/tex]
[tex]p + 0.566 = 1[/tex]
[tex]p = 1 - 0.566[/tex]
[tex]p = 0.434[/tex]
[tex]p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1[/tex]
So, heterozygous Bb = [tex]2pq[/tex]
= [tex]2 * 0.434 * 0.566 = 0.4913[/tex]
The number of babies = [tex]100 * 0.4913 = 49%[/tex]
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Which one of the following statements about RNA processing is true?
a. RNA splicing can be catalyzed by tRNA
b. Introns are cut out before mRNA leaves from the nucleus
c. RNA polymerase removes exons from the pre-mRNA
d. A pre-mRNA is often much shorter than the final mRNA molecule that leaves from the nucleus
During RNA processing, the introns are cut out before the mRNA leaves the nucleus.
The option b is the correct option.
RNA processing is the term which is used collectively in order to describe the sequence of events due to which the primary transcript from a particular gene acquires its mature form. Soon after the synthesis by RNA polymerase II begins, the transcripts from the nuclear protein-coding genes happen to acquire a 5′ cap structure.
The introns get removed from primary transcripts by a process of cleavage which occurs at conserved sequences called splice sites. These introns must be removed before the given mRNA is sent out of the nucleus of the cell so it can be used to direct protein synthesis. This process of removing the introns from the transcript and then rejoining the coding sections or the exons, of the mRNA, is known as splicing.
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Which statement true regrading the formation of ionic bonds
Answer: I need more clarification to give a proper answer. I have nothing to base on..
Explanation: Edit this question, and add more info.
Action potentials are important in muscle contraction because?
Action potentials are important in muscle contraction because they travels down the t-tubules and excites the sarcoplasmic reticulum which releases calcium. Calcium when bound to troponin causes conformational changes in the sarcomere. Consequently, the interaction of thick and thin filaments of the sarcomere leads to muscle contraction.
The neurological system sends a signal, which triggers the onset of muscle contraction. A type of nerve cell called a motor neuron conducts the signal, an impulse known as an action potential. The motor neuron connects with a muscle cell at a location known as the neuromuscular junction. Muscular fibers are the cells that make up skeletal muscle tissue. The motor neuron releases a chemical message when the nervous system signal reaches the neuromuscular junction. Acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, which carries the chemical signal, attaches to receptors outside the muscle fiber. A chemical process begins inside the muscle as a result.
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recall the definition of a microbe. 1.1.b. list examples of microbes. 1.1.c. state some problems with the definition of a microbe. 1.1.d. explain the implications o
a. The definition of a microbe are microscopic organisms b. examples of microbes namely bacteria c. some problems with the definition of a microbe is bacteria cause disease d. The implications both detrimental and beneficial.
Microbes are very small organisms that can only be seen with a microscope. Microbes are everywhere, in the air, in the water, on the ground, and in the environment. Examples of microbes are bacteria, fungi, and viruses.
Some bacteria can cause disease because they become parasites or pathogens by taking nutrients from the host cells they inhabit. They infect the human body through various ways such as entering through the mouth or through food. One of the implications of harmful microbes, namely Salmonella typhosa, can cause typhoid. A person who gets sick from this bacteria will experience diarrhea, fever, bleeding in the intestine and even die. However, some microbes can also provide benefits, such as Lactobacillus sp. which is used for the process of making yogurt milk and cheese milk.
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a type of mutation in which a region of one chromosome is moved to a different chromosome is called __________.
A type of mutation in which a region of one chromosome moves to another chromosome is called a translocation .
In genetics, chromosomal translocation are phenomena that result in abnormal rearrangements of chromosomes. These include balanced and unbalanced translocations, of which there are two main types: Reciprocal translocation and Robertsonian translocation. In a translocation, a segment moves from one of her chromosomes to a new location on a non-homologous chromosome or the same chromosome. Translocations lead genes into new linkage relationships, creating chromosomes without a normal mating partner. Some human diseases caused by translocations are: cancer. Some forms of cancer are caused by acquired translocations (as opposed to those present from conception). It is mainly reported in leukemia (acute myelogenous leukemia, chronic myelogenous leukemia).
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why does genetic drift have more of an impact on the evolution of small populations than large ones? small populations are affected more by stabilizing selection. small populations have greater rates of mutation.
Genetic drift have more impact of evolution of small populations than larger ones because Small population are more effected by random events.
Genetic drift is the arbitrary change in the population's frequency of a gene variant that already exists. Gene variations may totally vanish due to genetic drift, which would limit genetic diversity. Additionally, it can make previously uncommon alleles far more common and even fixed. The severity of drift and the incidence of inbreeding in the population are related to population size, or more precisely, the effective population size. Due to stochastic sampling error, small populations typically lose genetic diversity more quickly than large populations (i.e., genetic drift). This is because small populations make it more likely for some gene variants to be lost as a result of random chance. Additionally, people are more inclined to breed with close relatives when the population is smaller. Individuals in closed populations will have closer ties to one another than those in the generation before.
Although inbreeding and drift have different mechanisms for the loss of genetic diversity, both have the same effects on populations. Both inbreeding and drift decrease genetic diversity, which has been linked to a higher risk of population extinction, a slower rate of population growth, a decreased capacity to adapt to environmental change, and a decreased capacity for disease resistance. These effects have an effect on the capacity of released individuals to survive and procreate in the wild.
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Complete question is:
why does genetic drift have more of an impact on the evolution of small populations than large ones?
A. small populations have greater mutation rates.
B. Small populations are more affected by stabilizing selection.
C. Small populations are more prone to migration.
D. Small populations are less affected by mutation.
E. small populations are more affected by random events.
What bacteria only have the ability to ferment to obtain energy?
Anaerobic bacteria only have the ability to ferment to obtain energy.
To gain energy for development, anaerobic bacteria digest amino acids and carbohydrates. Low free energy relative to aerobic oxidations are the result of the substrate of a fermentation having to act as both an electron donor and acceptor in the absence of oxygen and other inorganic electron acceptors. Up until around ten years ago, it was believed that anaerobes solely utilised substrate level phosphorylation (SLP), a process that could only conserve a portion of the available energy. Anaerobes were therefore considered to be ineffective and inefficient energy savers. This viewpoint was altered by the identification of electrochemical gradients produced by ferredoxin- or biotin-dependent decarboxylations of . Oxidative decarboxylation of 2-oxoacids and the recently discovered flavin-based electron bifurcation produce reduced ferredoxin (FBEB).
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based on what you observed in this lab exercise, compare the use of and the general growth seen in broths and agar plates. why might you choose one over the other type of medium in future lab exercises
By using the broth, we can identify the type of bacteria present. But using agar plates can help us learn more about certain bacteria.
Media is a material consisting of a mixture of nutrients used to grow microorganisms in culturing bacteria, fungi, and other microorganisms.
Media type:
Broth is used to grow microbes when fresh cultures or large numbers of cells are required for microbial identification.Differential media broths are used in microbial identification.Slant agar is used to grow stock cultures which can be refrigerated after incubation and maintained for several weeks.Many differential media are so skewed.Layered media are used to obtain species isolation, differential testing, and calculate bacterial densities.Learn more about media of bacteria at https://brainly.com/question/12904839
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how do we know that chromosomes exist in homologous pairs? select the two correct statements. how do we know that chromosomes exist in homologous pairs?select the two correct statements. the arm ratio for all chromosomes in homologous pairs is different for each individual. the length of nearly all chromosomes from somatic cells of the same species makes it possible to match the chromosomes in pairs. centromere placements of all chromosomes from somatic cells of the same species differ from each other. centromere placements of nearly all chromosomes from somatic cells of the same species allow matching the chromosomes in pairs. gametes from the same species contain the same number of pairs of chromosomes.
The length of nearly all chromosomes from somatic cells of the same species makes it possible to match the chromosomes in pairs.
Centromere placements of nearly all chromosomes from somatic cells of the same species allow the matching of the chromosomes in pairs.
What are Chromosomes?
DNA-containing structures called chromosomes are in charge of transmitting genetic information from one generation to the next. They are found in pairs in the nucleus of a cell. Each human cell contains 46 chromosomes that are divided into 23 pairs. Genes, which are DNA sequences that code for certain features like eye color, hair color, height, and other inherited traits, are found on chromosomes. Chromosomes are necessary for the healthy development and operation of an organism as well as for cell division and optimal cellular function.
A few essential components make up the chromosomes' distinct structure. There are two long arms called q arms and two short arms called p arms on each chromosome.
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What produces and secretes releasing and inhibiting hormones?
Answer:
Hypothalamus
Explanation:
It is a form of homeostasis
which body system pulls on the bones of the skeletal system to allow movement?
Answer: The muscular system
Explanation:
which position of the avidian genome is the first to be executed? use the back and forth buttons to find the first gene that a curved line appears from.
The first position of the Avidian genome to be executed is position 50. In the specific ancestor organism, position 1 is identified as the instruction "w" and the execution path starts on the right of the genome.
The Avidian genome is a set of genetic instructions that dictate the behavior of a particular organism. It is exactly 50 instructions in length, and the execution path starts on the right side of the Avidian genome at position 1. In the specific ancestor organism, position 1 is identified as the instruction "w". This means that the first instruction to be executed is the last instruction in the genome, which is located at position 50. It is important to note that this information is specific to the ancestor organism, and other Avidian genome organisms may have different starting points for their execution paths.
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one end of a trna contains the _____________ while the other contains ________________.
One end of a tRNA contains the anticodon while the other contains the amino acid attachment site.
A tRNA, also known as transfer RNA, is a small RNA molecule that functions as an adapter between the mRNA sequence and the amino acid sequence that is assembled during protein synthesis. One end of a tRNA molecule contains a specific sequence of three nucleotides, called the anticodon, which recognizes and base pairs with a codon on the mRNA molecule. The other end of the tRNA contains a site where the amino acid specified by the codon on the mRNA is covalently attached. The ribosome then reads the mRNA sequence, recognizes the codon, and adds the appropriate amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain through the tRNA molecule.
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When a semipermeable membrane is placed between two solutions?
Osmosis takes place between two solutions separated by a semipermeable membrane. Osmotic pressure is the required amount of external pressure must be applied in order to stop any net solvent movement across the membrane.
Osmosis is the naturally occurring net movement or diffusion of solvent molecules through a membrane that is selectively permeable, in a direction that tends to balance the solute concentrations on the two sides, from a region of high water potential (region of lower solute concentration) to a region of low water potential (region of higher solute concentration). It can also refer to a physical process that uses a membrane that is selectively permeable to separate two solutions with different concentrations (permeable to the solvent but not the solute). Osmosis can be used to your advantage.
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please use the figure of the two sets of force curves to answer the question. a higher myosin atpase activity would change the curve or curves within which set? group of answer choices
A higher myosin ATPase activity would change the curve or curves in set 2.
What is myosin?The first molecular motor, myosin, is a protein that transforms chemical energy in the form of ATP into mechanical energy to produce force and movement.
a fibrous protein that contributes to the motion of other cell types and, along with actin, helps form the contractile filaments of muscle cells. Myosins are a class of motor proteins well recognized for their functions in the contraction of muscles and a variety of other eukaryotic motility processes.
The size of the myosin heavy chain (MHC), which makes up about 25–30% of all muscle proteins, is crucial for skeletal muscle growth.
A superfamily of proteins known as myosin binds actin, breaks down ATP, and transmits force. So, the majority are found in muscle cells.
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A regulatory protein that speeds up transcription is called a _________, while a regulatory protein that slows down transcription is called a __________.
A regulatory protein that speeds up transcription is called a transcription factor, while a regulatory protein that slows down transcription is called a transcriptional repressors.
What is regulatory protein?Transcriptional factors (TFs), a class of regulatory proteins, shield the DNA sequences they bind from nuclease cleavage, greatly enhancing accessibility around their binding sites and over nearby chromatin.
Transcriptional repressors are regulatory proteins that slow down transcription, whereas transcription factors are regulatory proteins that speed it up.
Thus, the answers are transcription factor and transcriptional repressors respectively.
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which erythrocyte cell-surface antigens determine a person's abo blood group? multiple select question. d b a o
Antigens A and B present in the surface of erythrocytes which determine the blood group of an individual. So,correct options are a and b.
In the ABO blood group system the properties of erythrocytes are determined by the presence or absence of carbohydrate sugars(N- acetylgalactosamine and D- galactose respectively) that code for two antigens that are A and B on their cell surface. The presence or absence of these antigens purely depend upon inheritance.
Under the ABO blood group system an individual can have any one of the blood groups out of the set of four i.e group A, group B, group O and group AB.The ABO blood bunch framework is utilized to signify the presence of one, both, or neither of the An and B antigens on erythrocytes. For human blood bondings, it is the most significant of the 43 different blood classification (or gathering) arrangement frameworks right now perceived by the Global Society of Blood Bondings.
Hence, correct options are a and b.
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(Complete question) is:
which erythrocyte cell-surface antigens determine a person's abo blood group? multiple select question.
a)A
b)B
c)AB
d)O
if you wanted to record a cell's rate of action potentials, where would be the best place to put your electrode to identify when an action potential occurs?
If I want to record a cell's rate of action potentials, the best place to put an electrode to identify when an action potential occurs is on the plasma membrane of the cell.
Action potentials are electrical signals that propagate along the plasma membrane of a cell and are caused by changes in the membrane potential. To detect these changes, electrodes can be placed on or near the cell's plasma membrane to measure the electrical activity.
A common method for recording action potentials is to use an extracellular electrode, which is placed outside the cell. This allows the electrode to detect the changes in the membrane potential without interfering with the normal functioning of the cell. Another approach is to use an intracellular electrode, which is inserted into the cell, but this method is more invasive and can disrupt the normal functioning of the cell.
In general, the best place to put the electrode will depend on the specific experimental setup and the type of cell being studied, but the plasma membrane is typically the most effective location for measuring action potentials.
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Classify whether each given factor would increase or decrease heart rate. - Bundle branch block
- Calcium channel blockers - Exercise
- SA node damage
- Vagal tone - Sympathetic stimulation - Cutting the vagus nerve - Psychological stress
Cutting the vagus nerve, sympathetic stimulation, exercise, psychological stress cause an increased heart rate whereas vagal tone, SA node damage, calcium channel blockers cause a decreased heart rate.
Heart rate, also known as the pulse rate is basically the frequency of the heartbeat which is measured by the number of contractions of the heart which take place per minute and is known as beats per minute, or bpm.
The heart rate can be measured with the help of ECG or electrocardiogram. An electrocardiogram basically records the electrical signals of the heart. It is a common as well as painless test which is used to quickly detect any possible heart problems and also monitor the heart's health.
Vagal tone, SA node damage, calcium channel blockers cause a decreased heart rate whereas cutting the vagus nerve, sympathetic stimulation, exercise, psychological stress cause an increased heart rate.
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select the correct statement regarding tissue repair. a. granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection. b. the clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers. c. granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot. d. histamine causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.
c. granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot. Granulation tissue is a highly vascularized mixture of macrophages and fibroblasts embedded in a collagen and fibrin matrix.
It is crucial because it promotes early blood flow and strength to the wound, creates a surface for fibroblasts and epithelial cells to migrate on, and fights off infection. In order to repair the damaged tissues, our body automatically sets into motion a sequence of actions known as the "cascade of healing" when the skin is harmed. Hemostasis, Inflammatory, Proliferative, and Maturation are the four overlapping stages that make up the healing cascade. Inflammation is the initial step in tissue restoration. Injury to tissues causes inflammation.
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fertilizers are classified as which kind of water pollutant. true or false
Bacteria and other organic pollutants from sewage, fertilizers, agricultural runoffs, forestry, food processing, tree and brush debris, industrial waste, and other sources are considered organic water pollutants.
Water bodies can get contaminated by human activity, commonly referred to as aquatic pollution, which has a negative effect on how the water is used. 6 Bodies of water include aquifers, reservoirs, lakes, rivers, oceans, and groundwater. Water contamination happens when contaminants are introduced into these bodies of water. The four main causes are sewage discharges, industrial activities, agricultural practices, and urban runoff, including stormwater. The two categories are surface water pollution and groundwater pollution (either fresh water pollution or marine pollution). For instance, improperly treated wastewater discharged into natural waters may result in the decline of these aquatic ecosystems.
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is sweetened condensed milk the same as evaporated milk
The primary distinction between evaporated milk and condensed milk is that the latter is sweetened while the former is not.
What do items with added sweetened?Any liquid that has been sweetened with additional sugars, such as brown sugar, corn sweeteners, high fructose corn, dextrose, glucose, hypoglycemia, high-fructose high fructose corn, honey, lac, malt syrup, maltodextrin, molasses, raw sugar, or sucrose, is called a sugar-sweetened beverage.
Why is anything "naturally sweetened"?A product has been treated with plant compounds such aloe nectar, honey, stevia, or xylitol when it is labeled as "naturally sweetened." Moderation is crucial when it comes to sweets, according to experts. "These sweeteners taste similar sugar but have fewer calories.
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1. which of the following is trna's job? bring any codon to the ribosome so it can be added to the growing protein. bring any amino acid to the ribosome so it can be added to the growing protein. bring a specific amino acid to the ribosome so it can be added to the growing protein. bring a specific codon to the ribosome so it can be added to the growing protein.
Answer:
Ribosomes, Transcription, Translation
Explanation: