Blood test are only for measuring the number of red blood cells a person has------ True
What are the common names for blood tests?A basic metabolic panel (BMP) examines eight distinct blood components. It provides crucial information about the metabolic process and chemical makeup of your body. The way the body uses food and energy is called the metabolic process.
Which three types of blood tests are the most common?A blood test is made up of a complete blood count, a metabolic panel, and a lipid panel. These are the three main tests.
What are red blood cells used for?a kind of blood cell that comes from the bone marrow and is found in the blood. Hemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells, transports oxygen throughout the body from the lungs.
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the mother of a 5-year-old asks the nurse how often her child should undergo a dental examination. when should the nurse tell the mother the child should have dental examinations?
Dental care for children aged 5 years should be done every 6 months.
You should take your child to the dentist for the first time six months after the new child's first tooth appears.
Ideally, the child's first dental check-up is no later than they're first to second birthday. After that, start routinely taking your child for dental check-ups every six months.
During your child's first visit, the dentist will examine the growth and development of your child's teeth, including the jaw and roof of the mouth.
In addition, the dentist will also inform parents about how to properly care for children's teeth. After the first visit, it's best to schedule regular visits every six months.
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a nurse is teaching a group of primigravida women who are in their first trimester. one of the women asks the nurse about sexual activity during pregnancy. which information would the nurse most likely incorporate into the response?
The nurse most likely incorporate into the response Because of pelvic congestion.
Which of the following is one of the critical events of the first trimester?
The digestive system, heart, and circulatory system start to take shape, as well as the neural tube (which develops into the brain and spinal cord). The first stages of the eyes and ears are growing. Little limb buds start to form, eventually growing into arms and legs. Heartbeat is audible.
What is something that occurs to the woman during the 1st trimester of a pregnancy?
The placenta, your breasts, your uterus, and additional blood make up the majority of this weight. Your breathing and heartbeat are moving more quickly. Your breasts get swollen, heavier, and more painful. You experience frequent urination because your expanding uterus puts pressure on your bladder.
Hence above given is a correct answer.
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which method would the nurse teach a client on a rehabilitation unit after a cerebrovascular accident (cva) with residual hemiparesis to help achieve the goal of safe walking with a cane? shorten the stride of the unaffected extremity. advance the cane and the affected extremity simultaneously. lean the body toward the side with the cane when ambulating. hold the cane on the same side as the affected extremity and increase the base of support.
The nurse would use D)Advance the cane and the affected extremity simultaneously.
Advancing the cane and the affected extremity simultaneously supports stability. The body is supported partially on the affected limb and partially on the cane as the unaffected limb moves forward. Shortening the stride of the unaffected extremity will produce an awkward gait and instability; normal ambulation should be approximated. Leaning the body toward the cane when ambulating will change the center of gravity and cause instability. The cane is held on the unaffected, not the affected, side and advanced at the same time as the affected extremity to increase the base of support and provide stability.
Do you use a cane on the affected or unaffected side?
If you are using a cane because one leg is weak or painful, hold the cane on the opposite side of the weak or painful leg. For example, if your right hip is sore, hold the cane in your left hand. If you are using the cane for a little help with balance and stability, hold it in the hand you use less.
What is the order of cane good leg affected leg while walking with using a cane?
Put your cane on the step first. Then, put your injured leg on the step. Finally, put your good leg, which carries your body weight, on the step.
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the nurse is caring for a 7-year-old child who has difficulty concentrating and completing tasks and who cannot seem to sit still. which diagnostic test may be ordered to assist with a diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (adhd) in this child?
The inability to concentrate on little details and constant squirming are both signs of ADHD and show how inattentive, hyperactive, and impulsive the youngster is.
How is ADHD managed in 7-year-olds?The recommendations for children aged 6 and older include medication in conjunction with behaviour treatment, parent training in behaviour management for kids up to age 12, and additional forms of behaviour therapy and training for teenagers. Schools may also be included in the treatment.
What are three ADHD treatments?Effective treatments for managing ADHD include medication treatment, parent-delivered behaviour therapy, and teacher-delivered behaviour therapy.
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the nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition to a pediatric client. how often should the nurse monitor the child's blood glucose level during the initial phase of the infusion?
The nurse should monitor the child's blood glucose level during the initial phase of the infusion of parenteral nutrition every 4 to 6 hours.
Parenteral nutrition is the act of feeding nutritional products to a person intravenously. This procedure allows the patient to gain nutrients without having to eat and digest food. It is usually done for people whose digestive systems are either unable to absorb or cannot tolerate adequate food eaten by mouth.
Some people that need parenteral nutrition are people who are suffering from disorders such as bowel obstruction, short bowel syndrome, ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease, and even cancer or people in comatose.
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the nurse correlates which findings to the pathophysiology of chronic malignant pain? a. recent trauma b. rapidly dividing cells c. direct damage to nerve fibers d. persistent pain with no known etiology
The correct option is "d. persistent pain with no known etiology." Chronic malignant pain is a type of chronic pain that is resistant to standard medical treatments.
It is often associated with significant physical and emotional distress. The pathophysiology of chronic malignant pain is not well understood, but it is thought to involve changes in the way the nervous system processes pain signals.
One key factor in the development of chronic malignant pain is the presence of persistent pain with no known etiology. This type of pain can persist for weeks, months, or even years, despite the absence of any apparent injury or underlying medical condition. This type of pain is often described as burning, aching, or shooting, and it can be accompanied by a range of physical and psychological symptoms, such as fatigue, depression, and anxiety.
The mechanism by which chronic pain persists in the absence of an underlying injury or disease is not well understood, but it is thought to involve changes in the way the nervous system processes pain signals. This can include changes in the sensitivity of pain receptors, changes in the way the brain processes pain signals, and changes in the way the body responds to pain.
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a school nurse is addressing dental health issues. which activity would be most appropriate at the community level
One of the most appropriate activities would be conducting oral health education programs for parents, teachers, and community members.
This would involve educating individuals about the importance of good oral hygiene, such as brushing teeth twice a day and flossing, as well as the impact of diet on dental health. The nurse could also discuss the importance of regular dental check-ups and the dangers of tobacco and excessive alcohol consumption.
In addition, the nurse could collaborate with local dentists and community organizations to provide free or low-cost dental screenings and cleanings for children and families in need. This would help to identify and treat dental problems early on and promote overall oral health in the community.
Another effective activity would be advocating for increased access to dental care, such as advocating for the inclusion of dental coverage in health insurance plans or working with local government and community organizations to establish mobile dental clinics in underserved areas.
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ms. thomas was a patient at your facility. she has been told that there are some records that she cannot have access to. these records are most likely:
Ms. Thomas was a patient at your facility. She has been told that there are some records that she cannot have access to. These records are most likely: psychotherapy notes.
What is psychotherapy?
The practise of treating mental health concerns through dialogue with a psychiatrist, psychologist, or other mental health professional is referred to as "psychotherapy."
During psychotherapy, you learn more about your illness as well as your emotions, thoughts, and behaviour. With the help of psychotherapy, you can regain control over your life and create useful coping mechanisms.
There are many different types of psychotherapy, each with a different approach. The type of psychotherapy that will work best for you will depend on your unique situation. Additional titles for psychotherapy include talk therapy, counselling, psychosocial treatment, and simply therapy.
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Premature babies are especially likely to gain weight if stimulated by a.sound and music. b.light and colors. c.touch and massage.
C) touch and massage. Premature babies are often at a higher risk for weight gain and other health issues, and it is important to provide them with proper care to help them thrive.
Touch and massage have been shown to be especially effective in helping premature babies gain weight. Massaging a premature baby has been shown to increase their circulation, promote digestion, and enhance the release of hormones that stimulate growth and weight gain. Additionally, skin-to-skin contact with a parent or caregiver can help promote bonding and a sense of security, which can also positively impact the baby's weight gain and overall health. While sound and music can have a calming effect and may be beneficial for premature babies, touch and massage are the most effective form of stimulation for weight gain.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled to have a thoracotomy. when planning preoperative teaching, what information should the nurse communicate to the client?
The nurse should communicate information about the procedure, anesthesia, breathing exercises, pain management, and thoracotomy deep breathing and coughing.
A thoracotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making anesthesia an incision in the chest wall to access the organs inside the thorax. When planning preoperative teaching for a client who is scheduled to have a thoracotomy, the nurse should communicate several key pieces of information. The nurse should explain the purpose thoracotomy and details of the procedure, including the type of incision that will be made and the expected length of the procedure. The nurse should also discuss the type of anesthesia that will be used, such as general or regional anesthesia, and any associated risks and side effects.
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a nurse plans to have an education session with a client who has cardiomyopathy and the client's spouse about ways to decrease the sense of powerlessness. what action by the nurse will provide this information?
Remain in bed with the patient to lessen the workload on the heart. Keep a close eye out for arrhythmias and take the necessary action if you find one. Identify the symptoms and indicators of heart failure by doing routine physical examinations.
What makes RNs unique from regular nurses?The term "RN" refers to a nurse who has previously attained all academic and licensing criteria and has been given a license to practice nursing in the state. There will also be a title or position listed next to "registered nurse."
How would I know whether choosing a nursing career is the best move for me?It may be an indication that you were meant to be a nurse if you have the emotional stability to deal with people and just a need to assist them.
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Which of the following statements about disease is not true?A. Disease is a state of health in which people cannot function normally.B. Disease describes an overall optimal state of health. C. Disease can affect the body and the mind.D. Disease describes an overall poor state of health.
Of the given statements about disease not true is option B that is disease describes an overall optimal state of health.
Disease is any adverse variation from an organism's normal structural or functional condition that is often accompanied by a set of symptoms and is different from physical damage in origin. Symptoms or signals that point to an organism's aberrant status are frequently displayed by ill organisms. In order to identify the symptoms of sickness, it is necessary to comprehend an organism's normal state. But there isn't usually a clear line separating sickness from wellness. When it comes to chemical, physical, and functional activities, an organism's normal state is characterized by a delicate physiological balance, or homeostasis, which is maintained by a complex of poorly understood systems.
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what is the odds ratio of being overweight for those who exercise compared to those who do not? exercise is the exposure and overweight is the disease.
0.37 is the odds ratio of being overweight for those who exercise compared to those who do not.
Obesity or being overweight refers to having more body fat than is optimally healthy. Obesity is more common in locations where food is readily available and lifestyles are sedentary. By 2003, excess weight had reached epidemic proportions globally, with over 1 billion people classed as overweight or obese.
Exercise is a physical activity that enhances or maintains physical fitness as well as overall health and wellness. It is done for a number of reasons, including promoting development and strength, building muscles and the cardiovascular system, sharpening athletic ability, weight loss or maintenance, enhancing health, or simply for enjoyment. Many individuals prefer to exercise outside, where they may socialise and improve their physical and mental health.
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which patient information is usually included in the biographical information that may be collected by the admitting office staff
The key biographical details of the patient collected by the admitting office staff are birth date, occupation, marital status and healthcare insurance taken by the patient.
The biographical details refers to the minute details of the patient which helps in unique identification and also provides information about their personal life and some previous history related to their health, work status and medical facilities enjoyed by them. These details are important because in case of accidents, people get easy access to information about someone so that necessary benefits can be transferred to them or their family. The sources of getting some information regarding someone can be surveys, administrative and medical records, claims data, etc.
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on a health history, a client reports no visual disturbances, last eye exam being 2 years ago, and not wearing glasses. the nurse notices that the client squints when signing the consent for treatment form and holds the paper close to the face. what should the nurse do next?
The next thing the nurse should do is run the visual acuity tests for both distance and up close.
What situations call for caution regarding visual disturbances?If you experience rapid changes in your eyesight or an eye injury, get emergency medical attention. Urgent medical issues connected to vision that may accompany certain causes include rapid onset of: severe eye discomfort or suffering. loss of vision or double vision
What triggers sudden onset of blurred vision?While vision blurring typically becomes worse over time, there are several diseases that might cause it to start suddenly. These diseases, which include stroke and transient ischemia attack, can be life-threatening (TIA).
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the majority of beneficiaries receiving health care through medicare are group of answer choices disabled elderly those suffering from end-stage renal disease financially poor
The majority of beneficiaries receiving health care through medicare are groups of elderly. Therefore, the correct answer is the second option.
Medicare is the government's national health insurance program in the United States of America. This program began in 1965 under the SSA and now is administered by the CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services).
Nowadays, medicare primarily provides health insurance for elder people, aged 65 and older. However, some of the people from the younger generation can also receive medicare; most people who have disability status as determined by the SSA. As of 2022, 48% of eligible Medicare beneficiaries are enrolled in Medicare plans.
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a dental office in a busy metropolitan area would like to improve its patient scheduling process. what is the team's next step?
The next step of the team can be to analyze the changes they made and the possible improvement which was seen so that it can be extended to every patient.
The people in metropolitan cities are always in rush and they do not like wasting their time sitting for their appointment call for long. In such cases, scheduling of the patients as per their availability is very important. It can be taken from the PDSA cycle in which the plan of action is given due priority. PDSA stands for plan do study act. The different approaches used by the team can be applied to the patients which comes in plan approach. Later its consequences can be analyzed for better actions.
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Refer to complete question below:
An orthopedic clinic in a busy metropolitan area would like to improve its patient scheduling process. More specifically, the clinic wants to improve its efficiency and the satisfaction of its patients. The orthopedic clinic plans the change to improve scheduling, and then it carries out a small test of change with three patients on Tuesday morning.
What's the next thing the clinic's improvement team should do?
which three statements are supported by the data in the graph? which three statements are supported by the data in the graph? 1.77% of the total fat in heart attack patients is trans fats. non-heart attack patient would have nearly 3g of trans fats in 200 g of adipose tissue, on average. people who have lower trans fats levels are more likely to have a heart attack. non-heart attack patients have trans fats levels that are just under half of the levels in heart attack patients. heart attack patients have higher levels of trans fats in their adipose tissue than non-heart attack patients.
On average, 200 grams of adipose tissue from non-heart attack patients would include over 3 grams of trans fat.Patients who have had a heart attack have more trans fats on their adipose tissue compared to those who have not.Trans fats make about 1.77% of the fat .
What distinguishes trans fat mostly from saturated fat?Red dairy and meat items naturally contain saturated fat.Additionally, it can be found in fried and baked items.Red dairy and meat products naturally contain trace quantities of trans fat.Hydrogen can also be added to vegetable oil to create trans fat.
Does total fat include saturated and trans fat?The many forms of fat that make up a product's total fat are also listed on the nutrition facts label.This includes the grams (g) of saturated and trans fats and the percentage of the daily value (%DV) for saturated fat per serving.
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which of the following periodontal diagnoses can receive total dental and periodontal maintenance in a general dental practice? group of answer choices a) mild chronic periodontitis b) moderate chronic periodontitis c) severe chronic periodontitis d) aggressive periodontitis
a)Mild chronic periodontitis can receive total dental and periodontal maintenance in general dental practice. The treatment of moderate, severe, and aggressive periodontitis usually requires special care in a periodontal practice.
Total Dental and Periodontal Maintenance in General Dental PracticeTotal dental and periodontal maintenance is an essential aspect of oral health care that involves cleaning, polishing, and scaling teeth to remove plaque and tartar buildup. It is a routine procedure that helps prevent gum disease, cavities, and other oral health problems. In general dental practices, total dental and periodontal maintenance can be performed for patients with mild chronic periodontitis, which is a condition characterized by inflammation and progressive loss of gum attachment to the teeth. The treatment plan for mild chronic periodontitis may include non-surgical procedures such as scaling and root planing, as well as regular cleaning appointments to maintain oral health. On the other hand, moderate, severe, and aggressive periodontitis are more severe forms of gum disease that usually require special care in a periodontal practice. These forms of periodontitis are typically treated with a combination of non-surgical and surgical procedures, along with ongoing maintenance to manage the condition.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with anxiety. the nurse knows that according to hildegard peplau, there are different levels of anxiety that include which? select all that apply
The nurse would know that four levels of anxiety that a patient can show are Mild ,Panic ,Severe ,.Moderate.
Concern is a sensation of unease and unease brought on by a sense of danger. Although the cause of the person's concern may be unknown to them, anxiety is frequently accompanied with powerless and uncertain sensations. A paradigm defining four levels of anxiety was created by psychiatric mental health nurse theorist Hildegard Peplau. These levels are mild, moderate, severe, and panic.
Mild anxiety is characterised by tension that is felt in response to daily life occurrences.
Someone with moderate anxiety is less aware of events happening around them. The person's attention span and concentration skills deteriorate, but he or she may still be able to attend to demands given direction.
Severe anxiety- The person has a very short attention span and struggles to finish even the simplest work. There may be both visible physical symptoms (such as headaches, palpitations, and insomnia) and emotional symptoms (such as perplexity, fear, and horror).
Panic anxiety: Associated with a feeling of terror, sufferers may believe they have a serious illness or worry that they are losing control, going mad, or emotionally fragile. Wild and desperate acts or severe seclusion from social interactions may describe behaviour.
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The above quesion is incomplete. Check below the complete question-
The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with anxiety. The nurse knows that according to Hildegard Peplau, there are different levels of anxiety that include which? Select all that apply.
1.Mild
2.Panic
3.Severe
4.Rational
5.Moderate
6.Hallucinatory
the nurse is providing care for a patient receiving curative care who is experiencing chronic pain as a result of cancer. which type of care should the nurse plan for on discharge for this patient?
The goal of palliative care is to improve quality of life and lessen suffering in patients with serious, complex, and frequently terminal illnesses. Palliative care is defined in a variety of ways in the published literature.
Home health care gives patients who are confined to their homes specialized care. This is not the patient's best option.
2 Palliative care is a specialized type of medical attention that emphasizes the reduction of pain and other symptoms, as well as the stress, brought on by serious illness.
3 Hospice care concentrates on providing care for patients who have less than six months to live.
4 Patients who need strengthening after being hospitalized can receive rehab services from rehabilitation care.
The goal of palliative care is to enhance the quality of life for patients (both adults and children) and their families who are dealing with a terminal illness.
The targets are: relieve other symptoms and pain. Address your own and your caregivers' emotional and spiritual worries.
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when assessing a lesion diagnosed as basal cell carcinoma, the nurse most likely expects to note which findings? select all that apply.
When assessing a lesion diagnosed as basal cell carcinoma, the nurse most likely expects :
A pearly papule with a central crater and a waxy borderLocation in the bald spot atop the head that is exposed to outdoor sunlight.Basal cell carcinoma appears as a pearlescent papule with a central crater and a spiral waxy rim. UV radiation exposure is a significant risk factor. Melanomas are irregularly shaped pigmented papules or patches that are red, white, or blue in color. Actinic keratosis, a premalignant lesion, appears as small patches or papules with dry, rough, adherent yellow or brown scales. Squamous cell carcinoma is a firm, nodular lesion covered by a central area of crusts or ulcers.
Basal cell carcinoma presents as skin changes that: A non-healing growth or wound. These skin changes (lesions) are usually characterized by one of the following: It is a translucent glossy skin-colored bump. This means that the surface is slightly see-through.
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Complete question :
When assessing a lesion diagnosed as basal cell carcinoma, the nurse most likely expects to note which findings? Select all that apply.
1. An irregularly shaped lesion
2. A small papule with a dry, rough scale
3. A firm, nodular lesion topped with crust
4. A pearly papule with a central crater and a waxy border
5. Location in the bald spot atop the head that is exposed to outdoor sunlight
e nurse is caring for a client 1-day post-op after colon resection with anastomosis. the client has a nasogastric tube in place, which requires nothing-per-oral (npo) status. the nurse is aware the client will be in what physiological state?
The nurse is caring for a client status one day after colon resection with anastomosis. The client has a nasogastric tube in place, putting him on NPO status. The nurse is aware this places the client in negative nitrogen balance state.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.
The primary component of amino acids, which are the fundamental units of protein synthesis, is nitrogen. Therefore, the study of protein metabolism can benefit from monitoring nitrogen intakes and losses. Growth spurts, hypothyroidism, tissue healing, and pregnancy are all linked to a positive nitrogen balance.
This indicates that there is a rise in the overall amount of protein in the body because the nitrogen that is taken in by the body exceeds the nitrogen that is lost from it. Burns, severe tissue damage, fever, hyperthyroidism, wasting illnesses, and fasting periods are all related with negative nitrogen balance. This indicates that more nitrogen leaves the body through excretion than through ingestion. The conventional method of calculating dietary protein requirements is nitrogen balance.
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The nurse is caring for a client status one day after colon resection with anastomosis. The client has a nasogastric tube in place, putting him on NPO status. The nurse is aware this places the client in what state?
A) Protein-energy malnutrition
B) Negative nitrogen balance
C) Marasmus
D) Neutral nitrogen balance
which information obtained by the nurse is most likely to influence natalie's perception of her pain?
Explanation:
Natalie's younger child is an infant who feeds every 3 hours.
the nurse is caring for a client in the critical care unit. the nurse is reviewing the critical care family needs inventory. the nurse knows that the most important issues of family members of critically ill clients include which factors? select all that apply.
Receiving confirmation, information, Caring for a patient in a critical care unit involves having help available and staying close to the patient.
A Level 3 critical care unit is what?Patients needing level three critical care must either have advanced respiratory support alone or just need basic respiratory support while also needing at least two organ systems to be supported. All complicated patients that need assistance for multiple organ failure fall under this class.
What is critical care at Level 1?While a level 2 ICU can offer intrusive monitoring and basic life support for a brief period, a level 1 ICU can offer oxygen, noninvasive monitoring, and more extensive nursing care than on a ward.
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the nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who requires a venipuncture. to prepare the child for the procedure, which explanation is most appropriate?
To get the youngster ready for the surgery. The doctor will examine your blood to determine the cause of your illness. Option A is correct.
In age-appropriate terminology, the nurse should describe and justify the process. The nurse should avoid using terminology like culture and strep throat since they are inappropriate for a four-year-old. The nurse should also avoid using ambiguous language like "taking your blood," which might be read literally.
A process in which blood is drawn from a vein using a needle, generally for laboratory testing. Venipuncture can also be used to treat blood problems by removing excess red blood cells from the blood. Also known as a blood pull and phlebotomy. Blood is usually extracted from a vein on the inside of the elbow or the back of the hand.
The complete question is
The nurse is caring for a 4-year old who requires a venipuncture. To prepare the child for the procedure, which explanation is most appropriate?
a. "The doctor will look at your blood to see why you are sick."
b. "The doctor wants to see if you have strep throat."
c. "The doctor needs to take your blood to see why you are sick."
d. "The doctor needs to culture your blood to see if you have strep."
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the client asks the nurse to explain the reason for a chest tube insertion in treating a pneumothorax. which is the best response by the nurse?
The best response by the nurse is "The tube will drain air from the space around the lung."
A pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air between the lung and the chest wall. The most typical symptoms are sudden, one-sided chest pain and shortness of breath. A one-way valve is established by an area of injured tissue in a minority of instances, and the amount of air in the gap between the chest wall and the lungs rises; this is known as a tension pneumothorax.
This might lead to a gradually developing oxygen shortage and low blood pressure. This causes a form of shock known as obstructive shock, which can be lethal if not reversed. A pneumothorax might damage both lungs in rare cases. It is commonly referred to as a "collapsed lung," while the word can also apply to atelectasis.
The complete question is:
The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for a chest tube insertion in treating a pneumothorax. Which is the best response by the nurse?
"The tube will drain air from the space around the lung.""The mechanism is very complex.""The tube helps you breathe.""The system is not at disclosure."To learn more about pneumothorax, here
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what is the medical term for a surgical incision or opening into the skull?
Cranioplasty is the surgical repair of a bone defect in the skull resulting from a previous operation or injury.
What is surgical repair of the skull called?A craniotomy is a surgical method to cut and temporarily remove a piece of skull bone (bone flap) to enter the brain. After brain surgery, this bone flap is reconnected to the skull at its original position with small metal plates and screws. Over time, the bone heals just like any other broken bone.
In which a small hole is built in the skull or a piece of bone from the skull is removed to show part of the brain. A craniotomy may be done to detach a brain tumor or a sample of brain tissue.
So we can conclude that A craniotomy is the surgical removal of part of the bone from the skull to reveal the brain.
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a nurse is preparing to administer a cough syrup containing codeine to a client. the nurse understands that this drug would be classified as which schedule of a controlled substance?
Before beginning codeine therapy, professionals must conduct a history check, physical exam, and necessary tests, including determining the likelihood of substance addiction, abuse, or misuse.
Why is cough syrup with codeine used?
It is usually blended with other medications in cough and cold medications that are available both on a prescription and over-the-counter (OTC). In order to function, codeine modifies the way the brain responds to pain and reduces activity in the region of the brain that regulates coughing.
Why should a pharmacist exercise caution while dispensing cough medications that contain codeine?
In particular, during the first 24 to 72 hours of treatment and any time your dose is raised, codeine can result in serious or even fatal breathing issues.
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Complete ques is here:
a nurse is preparing to administer a cough syrup containing codeine to a client. the nurse understands that this drug would be classified as which schedule of a controlled substance?
A)C-V
B)speeding up chemical reactions
C)first-pass effect.
D)Maintain homeostasis
During electrical cardioversion, the defibrillator is set to synchronize with the electrocardiogram (ECG) so that the electrical impulse discharges during
the QT interval.
ventricular depolarization.
ventricular repolarization.
atrial depolarization.
During electrical cardioversion, the defibrillator is set to synchronize with the electrocardiogram (ECG) so that the electrical impulse discharges during ventricular depolarization.
What is electrical cardioversion?
Electrical cardioversion is a procedure used to treat certain types of heart rhythm problems, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. The goal of the procedure is to shock the heart and restore its normal rhythm.
By synchronizing the discharge of the electrical impulse with the ECG, the defibrillator can deliver the shock at the optimal time in the cardiac cycle, when the heart is in a depolarized state, which can help ensure that the shock is effective in restoring a normal rhythm.
Discharging the electrical impulse during the QT interval, ventricular repolarization, or atrial depolarization would not be as effective in achieving this goal.
Hence, During electrical cardioversion, the defibrillator is set to synchronize with the electrocardiogram (ECG) so that the electrical impulse discharges during ventricular depolarization.
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