According to the pediatric client's bill of rights, the nurse manager should privately counsel a staff nurse to change her behavior in situations are-
-The nurse manager hears the staff nurse call the patient "kiddo."
-The nurse manager hears the parents ask the name of the surgeon that has been consulted and the staff nurse responding, "I'm not sure, it's best if you ask your doctor."
Bill of Rights- The Bill of Rights is the collective name for the first 10 Amendments of the Constitution. It describes Americans' constitutional rights in relation to their government. People are granted civil freedoms and rights, such as the freedom of expression, the press, and religion.
"The full question is not available"
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The first destination for absorbed nutrients is the __________, transported via the __________.
Answer:
liver; hepatic portal vein
Explanation:
Vaginal porostaglandin gel is used to induce labor for a woman who is at 42 weeks gestation. thirty minutes after insertion of the gel, the client complains of vaginal warmth, and is experiencing?
When a lady is 42 weeks along in her pregnancy, vaginal prostaglandin gel is administered to start the labor process. The client is experiencing turn to a side-lying position while complaining of vaginal warmth.
What is porostaglandin ?The prostaglandins (PG) are a class of eicosanoids, which are lipid molecules with physiological activity and have a variety of effects on animals that resemble those of hormones. Prostaglandins are present in practically all of the tissues of both humans and other animals. Enzymatically, they are produced from the fatty acid arachidonic acid. Twenty carbon atoms, including a 5-carbon ring, make up each prostaglandin. They are an eicosanoids subclass.
Prostaglandins differ structurally, which explains why they have various biological actions. In rare circumstances, the actions of a particular prostaglandin in several tissues may be varied or even contradictory. Depending on the type of receptor it binds to, a prostaglandin may be able to promote a reaction in one tissue while inhibiting the same reaction in another tissue.
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The pericardial sac that encloses the heart is a two-layered structure. The outer layer is the ________.
The pericardium, also called pericardial sac, is a double-walled sac containing the heart and the roots of the great vessels. It has two layers, an outer layer made of strong connective tissue (fibrous pericardium), and an inner layer made of serousmembrane (serous pericardium).
the client whose health care provider has instructed them to reduce intake of saturated fat indicates an unwillingness to give up eating red meat. what suggestion can the nurse make to help the client ensure saturated fat consumption is within the recommended range?
The nurse should suggest the patient to pay close attention to the portions of meat intake.
Dietary fat contains saturated fatty acids. It is one of the harmful fats along with trans fat. Most of these fats are solid at room temperature. Large amounts of saturated fat are found in foods such as butter, cheese, red meat, palm oil, coconut oil, and butter. Eating too much saturated fat can lead to heart disease and other health problems. risk of heart disease. Your body needs healthy fats for energy and other bodily processes. However, eating too much saturated fat can cause cholesterol to build up in your arteries (blood vessels). Saturated fat increases LDL (bad) cholesterol. High LDL cholesterol and weight gain increase the risk of heart disease and strokeTherefore, the patient should pay attention to the portions of meat intake.
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If a physician obtains a pap smear specimen from a non-medicare patient and incurs the cost for it to be transferred to an outside laboratory. how is this coded?
CPT Code 99000 is used when a physician obtains a pap smear specimen from a non-medicare patient and incurs the cost for it to be transferred to an outside laboratory
When a practice accrues expenses to handle or carry a specimen to a lab, CPT code 99000, "Handling or delivery of sample for transfer from the doctor's office to a laboratory," is meant to be reported.
If the practice, for example, uses a messenger to deliver a specimen, that delivery can be coded as 99000. In contrast, if lab personnel pick up a sample at no extra charge to the practice, reporting code 99000 would be inappropriate. Code 99000 is also not meant for reporting the acquisition of a specimen.
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The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines. True or false?.
Answer:
false
Explanation:
A nurse doing a presentation on cancer to a local community group identifies which factors to be high-risk and associated with cancer development? select all that apply.
A nurse doing a presentation on cancer to a local community group identifies below factors to be high-risk and associated with cancer development:
HeredityHormonal factorsEnvironmental agentsImmunologic mechanismsHereditary factors, hormonal influences, immunological mechanisms, and environmental factors are some of the conventional risk factors that have been connected to cancer. A contributing issue has also been mentioned: obesity.
The main risk factor for acquiring cancer is getting older for the majority of people. The risk of cancer is highest for those above 65 in general. Younger people are substantially less at risk.
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Which combination of maternal and infant blood type would be an indication for administration of rho (d) immune globulin (rhogam) to the postpartum client?
Mother A positive and infant O positive, mother O negative and infant O positive - this combination of maternal and infant blood type would be an indication for administration of rho (d) immune globulin to the postpartum client.
What is postpartum?The post pregnancy period starts following labor as the mother's body, including chemical levels and uterus size, gets back to a non-pregnant state. The post pregnancy period starts in no less than about a month and a half after labor as the mother's body, including chemical levels and uterus size, gets back to a non-pregnant state. The terms puerperium, puerperal period, or quick post pregnancy period are usually used to allude to the initial a month and a half following childbirth. The World Wellbeing Association (WHO) depicts the post pregnancy time frame as the most basic but the most dismissed ease in the existences of moms and children, most maternal and infant passings happen during this period. In logical writing, the term is usually condensed to Pox, where x is a number; for instance, "day P5" ought to be perused as "the fifth day after birth". This isn't to be mistaken for the clinical terminology that utilizes G P to represent number and results of pregnancy.
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The order for the patient reads: ondansetron (zofran) 2 mg iv now. the vial of zofran on the floor contains 4mg/5ml. how many ml should be administered?
The order for the patient reads ondansetron (zofran) 2 mg iv now. the vial of zofran on the floor contains 4mg/5ml. 2.5 ml should be administered.
What is ondansetron (zofran) injection?For the prevention of nausea and vomiting brought on by initial and subsequent courses of emetogenic cancer treatment, particularly high-dose cisplatin, ZOFRAN Injection is recommended. Patients must be at least 6 months old to use ZOFRAN. It is recommended to take Zofran Injection to stop postoperative nausea and/or vomiting. Routine prophylaxis is not advised for individuals in whom there is little likelihood that postoperative nausea and/or vomiting will occur, as is the case with other antiemetics. Even when there is a low likelihood of postoperative nausea and/or vomiting, Zofran Injection is advised for patients in whom it is necessary to prevent it. If a patient does not receive preventive Zofran Injection and develops postoperative nausea and/or vomiting, Zofran Injection may be administered to stop subsequent occurrences.
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_____________ of medicare is for payment of medical expenses such as office visits and x-ray and laboratory services.
Part B of medicare is for payment of medical expenses such as office visits and x-ray and laboratory services.
Outpatient medical treatment, such as doctors appointments, some home healthcare services, some lab tests, X-rays, some medicines, and some medical instruments, are covered by Medicare Part B. Medicare Part A covers skilled nursing clinic stays and hospital, as well as some home healthcare services.
If you are eligible for Medicare Part A, you are also eligible for Medicare Part B. If you are 65 or older and already receive Social Security benefits, you are automatically registered. You may, however, decline.
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A client in labor is attached to an electronic fetal monitor (efm). which finding by an efm indicates adequate uteroplacental and fetal perfusion?
Fetal heart rate variability within 5 to 10 beats/minute
What is electronic fetal monitor (efm) ?The moment has arrived. As your child is about to be born, you are headed to the hospital. You meet the nurse who will connect you to a monitoring device that will track both your contractions and the heartbeat of the unborn child. What is this, and why is it crucial for your unborn child's care. The sole means through which the fetus can interact with the healthcare professionals is through electronic fetal monitoring (EFM). EFM is a method used by medical professionals to assess how well your baby is doing during labor and delivery. It counts uterine contractions and fetal heartbeat.
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How many years of a residency program are required for newly graduated m.d.s choosing to specialize in family practice, internal medicine, or pediatrics?
Newly graduated m.d.s choosing to specialize in internal medicine, family practice, or paediatrics require a three years residency program.
The length of your residency training is determined by the speciality you choose. The shortest residency programs are in primary care, while the longest is in surgery. Newly graduated m.d.s choosing to specialize in internal medicine, family practice, or paediatrics require a three years residency program.
Regardless of your residency program length, your sense of independence, responsibility, and autonomy grows with every year of residency until you are operating independently in your desired field by the close of your residency program. All residency areas of expertise also provide the option for additional specialization following residency, known as fellowship training.
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While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an emt's eyes. this is an example of?
While caring for a trauma patient, blood splashes into an EMT's eyes. This is an example of exposure.
A person who has sustained a bodily injury, whether slight, major, life-threatening or possibly life-threatening, is referred to as a trauma patient. Typically, traumatic wounds are categorized as blunt or penetrating wounds.
The doctor should be aware of the traumatized person's diverse requirements. When patients feel ready, listen to them and encourage them to discuss their reactions. Accept the person's emotional responses. An intense, agonizing reaction is a typical reaction to a distressing incident.
Anxiety and panic attacks, fear, rage, irritability, obsessions and compulsions, shock and disbelief, emotional numbing and detachment, depression, shame and guilt (especially if the person dealing with the trauma survived while others did not), obsessions and compulsions, obsessions and compulsions, and shame and guilt.
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Which information indicates a good understanding of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (pamps)?
Inflammation indicates a good understanding of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (pamps).
What is Inflammation?A vital component of your body's healing process is inflammation. Inflammatory cells that have travelled to the site of an injury or a foreign substance like germs cause it to happen. Inflammatory cells that stay too long may cause chronic inflammation. Rheumatoid arthritis, among other medical diseases, can show signs of chronic inflammation. Your healthcare professional might suggest medication or at-home treatment. By eating anti-inflammatory foods and controlling your stress, you can lessen inflammation.
Chronic inflammation is different from short-term (acute) inflammation (chronic). Inflammation that is acute disappears in a few days or hours. Even after the initial trigger has subsided, chronic inflammation can persist for months or even years.
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The existence of prevention methods for some types of cancer means it is appropriate to assign blame for the disease to people with cancer.
a. true
b. false
False, it is inappropriate to assign blame for the disease to people with cancer because prevention methods exist for some types of cancer.
What is cancer?A set of disorders known as cancer involve aberrant cell proliferation and have the ability to invade or spread to different bodily regions. These stand in contrast to benign tumors, which do not spread. A lump, unusual bleeding, a persistent cough, unexplained weight loss, and a change in bowel habits are some of possible signs and symptoms. These signs of cancer might be present, but there may be other causes as well. About 100 distinct forms of cancer harm people.
About 22% of cancer fatalities are attributable to tobacco smoking. 10% more are attributable to obesity, a poor diet, inactivity, or excessive alcohol consumption.
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A medical imaging facility recently purchased a new open mri machine to cater to patients who find the older closed machines claustrophobic. this new machine is an example of?
A medical imaging facility recently purchased a new open MRI machine to cater to patients who find the older closed machines claustrophobic. This new machine is an example of Capital.
MRI- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which examines the organs and structures inside our body, uses radio waves and a strong magnet. Medical professionals utilize MRI scans to diagnose a variety of conditions, from cancer to torn ligaments. MRIs are very useful for researching the brain and spinal cord.
Claustrophobic- Claustrophobia, the well-known dread of being trapped in small, confined spaces, is usually considered to be a conditioned response to traumatic occurrences. Unexpectedly, researchers found that changes in a single gene that produces a stress-regulated neuronal protein might cause claustrophobia.
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Etiology and manifestation instructional notes assist coders in the proper sequencing of the codes; thus, a(n) __________.
Etiology and manifestation instructional notes assist coders in the proper sequencing of the codes; thus, a(n) etiology code.
Before the code for a related symptom, the etiology or "cause" code for the underlying illness must be stated. The HHA is supposed to make sure that a valid manifestation code is sequenced right after the assignment of the etiology code when a diagnosis is being considered as an etiology diagnosis.
The relevant condition brought on by the underlying disease is referred to as the manifestation diagnosis, which is never given as the patient's primary diagnosis.
Codes with this title are a part of the etiology/ manifestation convention, and the manifestation code will typically have "in diseases classified elsewhere" in the title. It is clear from the code's title that it is a manifestation code.
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The nurse is reviewing the data of patients who have undergone surgery. which patient would be at the highest risk of orthostatic hypotension based on the given data?
3. Patient C: hip replacement
The risk of orthostatic hypotension increases with the amount of time a patient stays immobile. The person who had a hip replacement and had to stay in bed for 90 days would therefore be most at risk for orthostatic hypotension.
Orthostatic hypotension- When we rise up from a supine (lying down) position, we experience orthostatic hypotension, or a drop in blood pressure. Since the name "orthostasis" indicates standing up, it is defined as low blood pressure (hypotension) that occurs when a person stands up.
Some of the pathophysiological causes of OH include the dependent pooling of blood in organs and the periphery, poor venous return, stroke volume, and changes in cardiac and baroreceptor function.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,
Q. The nurse is reviewing the data of patients who have undergone surgery. Which patient would be at the highest risk of orthostatic hypotension based on the given data?
1. Patient A: appendectomy
2. Patient B: lobotomy
3. Patient C: hip replacement
4. Patient D: bypass surgery
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A primary care physician is concerned with the course of a disease in an individual, while an epidemiologist is concerned with the course of disease in a population. True or false?.
Answer:
true
Explanation:
A client is admitted to the hospital after sustaining a head injury. which is the most reliable sign of increased intracranial pressure the nurse can monitor for?
A client is admitted to the hospital after sustaining a head injury. Decrease in the level of consciousness is the most reliable sign of increased intracranial pressure the nurse can monitor.
Intracranial pressure- A medical ailment or a brain damage may cause the skull to become more compressed. ICP, or elevated intracranial pressure, is a dangerous condition that can result in headaches. Existing brain or spinal cord damage may become worse under the strain.
Consciousness- A physical component of the brain called the Dynamic Core is responsible for producing the stream of coherent mental creations that make up consciousness. Consciousness is a consequence of dynamic patterns of reentrant signaling in the Global Workspace, which is composed of complex, widely scattered, linked neuronal networks.
The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question.
Q. A client is admitted to the hospital after sustaining a head injury. Which is the most reliable sign of increased intracranial pressure the nurse can monitor for?
Rise in respiratory rateNarrowing of pulse pressureDecrease in the level of consciousnessIncrease in the diastolic blood pressureTo know more about the Intracranial pressure, click on the below link,
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The medical assistant auscultates an apical pulse of 70 bpm in an older adult patient who is taking digoxin (lanoxin). how should the medical assistant interpret this finding?
The medical assistant auscultates an apical pulse of 70 bpm in an older adult patient who is taking digoxin (lanoxin). The medical assistant interpreted that Heart rate for the patient is within normal ranges.
Digoxin- Digoxin is a member of the group of drugs known as digitalis glycosides. It is used to regulate the heartbeat's rhythm and rate or to strengthen and operate the heart more effectively. In individuals with cardiac issues, this improves blood circulation and lessens swelling of the hands and ankles.
Heart Rate- The number of contractions per minute (or bpm) is the unit used to measure heart rate. Each ventricular contraction drives a wave of blood through the arteries, which may be felt as a pulse. A healthy adult's normal pulse rate ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute.
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Populations disproportionately affected by food insecurity, hunger, and malnutrition include?
Populations disproportionately affected by food insecurity, hunger, and malnutrition include young children and women.
Young children and women in a country fall victim to food insecurity, malnutrition and hunger as they cannot make money for sustaining families.
In a developing society. where many people fall under the poverty line, the majority of these people are young children and women. Grown up man usually can work and produce food for themselves. Young children need a family so that they can grow up in a proper environment. If not, then they end up getting affected by malnutrition.
Women from the under developed countries do not have so much exposure to jobs and hence are affected by poverty, hunger and malnutrition.
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the hospitalized client is experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding with a platelets at 9,000/mm³. the client is receiving prednisone and azathioprine. what action will the nurse take?
Perform a neurologic assessment with vital signs.
A platelet count less than 10,000/mm3 may indicate spontaneous bleeding involving the cranial vault. To rule out this possibility, a nurse will do a neurological examination. Clients do not require contact protection despite being on immunosuppressants.Take contact precautions when interacting with clients known or suspected to have an infectious disease. increase. Diphenoxylate and atropine can cause constipation, making it difficult to accurately gauge the extent of a client's internal bleeding. Patients should not floss too vigorously. This can cause bleeding. Ecchymosis and petechiae can be caused by a low platelet count. A platelet count of less than 10,000/mm3 may result in greater bleeding.Therefore, the correct answer is neurologic assessment.
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A client with diagnosis of aids has developed pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. what will be important for the nurse to include in the nursing care plan?
The nurse should Wear a gown and gloves when assisting the client with personal hygiene.
What is AIDS?A group of diseases caused by infection with the retrovirus known as the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), including HIV infection and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (HIV/AIDS). After the initial infection, a person may not exhibit any symptoms or may experience a brief period of influenza-like illness. Typically, a long period of incubation without symptoms follows. The risk of contracting common illnesses such as tuberculosis (TB), other opportunistic infections, and tumors—all of which are uncommon in people with healthy immune systems—increases as the infection progresses because it interferes with the immune system more. These post-infection symptoms are referred to as "acquired immunodeficiency syndrome" (AIDS). Unintentional weight loss is also frequently associated with this time period.
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The palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips are the posterior inferior iliac spines. True or false?.
The given statement that the palpable hip bone projections in the front of the body felt when you put your hands on your hips is the posterior inferior iliac spines is False.
The anterior superior iliac spines can be palpable with hands on the hips. The anterior extremity of the pelvic iliac crest is referred to as the anterior superior iliac spine. This prominent surface feature is easily palpable.
The anterior superior iliac spine is the highest projection on the anterior border of the ilium, located at the intersection of the crest and anterior border. Its extremity allows attachment to the inguinal ligament and serves as the origin of the Sartorius, while its outer border provides attachment to the fascia lata and inner border to the Iliacus. The notch from which the Sartorius arises and through which the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve flows is located beneath this eminence.
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Why is the use of fetal monitors considered a factor in the increase of cesarean sections performed in the united states?.
fetal monitors considered a factor in the increase of cesarean sections performed in the united states because Fetal monitors have high rates of false readings for fetal distress
Electronic fetal monitoring (EFM), regardless of risk status, is employed constantly throughout labor in many hospitals in the United States. Application of Electronic fetal monitoring EFM, especially around the time of labor admission, may set off a series of interventions that raise the likelihood of caesarean delivery in low-risk women. This review's objectives were to identify research gaps and synthesize the available data on the use of EFM in low-risk work situations.
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the effect of a practice-based multicomponent intervention that includes health coaching on medication adherence and blood pressure control in rural primary care.
Poorer outcomes are influenced by low anti-hypertensive drug adherence.
To determine the effects of health coaching interventions on medication adherence and blood pressure (BP), and to determine whether changes in long-term medication adherence were associated with changes in blood pressure over time in 477 hypertensive patients, the authors conducted a secondary investigation. data analysis. Medication adherence and blood pressure data were collected at baseline, 6, 12, 18, and 24 months. Over time, the intervention improved medication adherence (5.75–5.94, P=0.04) and reduced diastolic blood pressure (81.6–76.1 mm Hg, P=0.001). Longitudinal decreases in diastolic blood pressure were associated with changes in medication adherence (p=0.047). Improvements in medication adherence and blood pressure over time were significantly greater in patients with low baseline adherence than in those with high baseline adherence.Therefore, the mentioned experiment explains the effect of a practice-based multicomponent intervention.
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Explain the agonist-to-antagonist spectrum of action of psychopharmacologic agents, including how partial and inverse agonist functionality may impact the efficacy of psychopharmacologic treatments.
A ligand that binds to a receptor and changes the receptor's state to cause a biological response is an antagonist.
A complete agonist activates the system's maximum reaction capacity.
Even with 100% receptor occupancy, a partial agonist falls short of the system's maximum response capacity.
When a full agonist is present, a partial agonist becomes an antagonist (if they compete for the same receptors)
A ligand known as an inverse agonist decreases the proportion of receptors in an active state by binding to them.
An allosteric modulator has no impact on its own but boosts (or diminishes) the effects of a primary agonist.
You must have a solid foundation in basic neuroscience in order to be a successful psychiatric mental health nurse practitioner. This includes understanding the antagonist-to-antagonist spectrum of action of psychopharmacologic agents
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If rubella vaccine is administered to a postpartum patient, instructions to the patient include:_____.
If rubella vaccine is administered to a postpartum patient, instructions to the patient include an explanation of the risks of becoming pregnant within 28 days following injection.
If a woman contracts rubella while she is pregnant, it might result in a miscarriage or major birth problems in the unborn child. With the MMR vaccine, rubella can be avoided. This offers defense against three illnesses: rubella, mumps, and measles.
In the event that pregnancy develops within three months of receiving the rubella vaccine, there may be potential dangers to the fetus. The mother must be aware of any potential negative effects as well as the three-month pregnancy ban.
Before receiving the immunization, the mother should be afebrile. Even while a little quantity of the vaccine does get into breast milk, experts do not feel that nursing should be stopped.
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Administration of canagliflozin most directly increases urinary output by increasing the:____.
i'm not sure if this is what u were asking sins u didn't give answer choices but from the research i did this is what i found. hope this helps.
Explanation:
Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure are two opposing forces that regulate fluid movement between capillaries and the tissues that surround them. Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by a liquid on the walls of its container. Accordingly, the hydrostatic pressure of blood, or blood pressure (BP), is the force exerted by blood on the vessel walls. This pressure pushes fluid through capillary wall pores and into the interstitial fluid (the extracellular fluid surrounding cells of a tissue). The kidneys regulate BP by increasing water reabsorption (thereby increasing blood volume and, consequently, BP) when BP is low and by decreasing water reabsorption when BP is high.In contrast, osmotic pressure causes a solution to take in water by osmosis, the passive movement of water molecules from an area of low to an area of high solute concentration. Osmotic pressure increases as solute concentration (osmolarity) increases. When blood osmolarity is high, the kidneys respond by increasing water reabsorption and decreasing solute reabsorption. Conversely, when blood osmolarity is low, the kidneys react by decreasing water reabsorption and increasing solute reabsorption.
The passage states that SGLTs transport glucose out of the proximal tubule so it can be returned to circulation through the peritubular capillaries. Administration of a SGLT inhibitor prevents glucose reabsorption, increasing solute concentration within the tubule and consequently increasing the osmotic pressure of the tubular filtrate. As a result, water is drawn back into the renal tubule, increasing urine output.