A nurse is performing the history and physical examination of a client with parkinson disease. which assessments identified by the nurse support this diagnosis? select all that apply.

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Answer 1

A nurse is performing the history and physical examination of a client with Parkinson's disease. The following assessments identified by the nurse support this diagnosis:

Nonintention tremors.

Masklike facial expression.

Rigidity to passive movement.

What is Parkinson's disease?Parkinson's disease is a chronic condition that affects both the neurological system and the bodily components that are under the control of the nervous system.Symptoms emerge gradually. The initial sign might be a little tremor in only one hand.Although tremors are typical, the disease might also make you stiff or move more slowly.Your face may be expressionless in the early stages of Parkinson's disease.You might not swing your arms while you walk. Your speech might become slurred or dull.As your illness advances over time, your Parkinson's disease symptoms get worse.Despite the fact that there is no cure for Parkinson's disease, medicines may greatly reduce your symptoms.On rare occasions, your doctor may advise surgery to control specific brain areas and alleviate your symptoms.

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Related Questions

The nurse is caring for a client with allergic rhinitis who takes clemastine daily. what should the nurse teach the client about the action of the medication?

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The nurse should teach the client with allergic rhinitis who takes Clemastine daily that it blocks the effects of histamine.

Hay fever, also known as allergic rhinitis, is an allergic response that causes congestion, sneezing, an itchy nose, and a sore throat. Clemastine inhibits histamine action at histamine-1 receptor sites, reducing allergic reactions. It's used to cure allergic rhinitis. Both ventricular and atrial dysrhythmias are treated with antiarrhythmic medications.

Beta-hydroxy-beta-methyl glutaryl coenzyme A reductase blockers are administered to lower blood cholesterol by competitively hindering the rate-limiting liver enzyme. Β2-adrenergic nerve cells in the bronchi and bronchiole smooth muscles are stimulated by beta-adrenergic agents, which cause bronchodilation.

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Which antibiotic would the most effective treatment for a person with an infection with both b. cereus and e. coli? explain your response.

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While the Ampicillin was the most effective at treating the E. coli, it wasn't the only antibiotic that was effective to the same time degree (it just worked as faster). In treating both the E. Coli and the B. Cereus it would be best to use the Chloramphenicol because it had the largest zones of the inhibition on both the side of bacteria cultures at the 48 hour mark (same as Ampicillin at 48 hours, the Ampicillin would be best used for ONLY for the E.coli treatment due to the faster results, but with both it would be best to use of Chloramphenicol).

Chloramphenicol is the medication used in the management of and the treatment of the superficial eye infections such as the bacterial conjunctivitis, and the otitis externa. It has also been to used for the treatment of the typhoid and the cholera. the Chloramphenicol is the antibiotic and is was the class of antimicrobials that inhibits the protein synthesis

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What should the medical assistant do for an insurance claim pending more than 45 days?

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Call the carrier to inquire about the status of the claim's processing and to confirm whether the claim was received.

What do you understand by insurance?

In an insurance contract, one party is indemnified by the insurer against losses resulting from particular calamities or hazards. It aids in against financial loss for the insured person or their family. Insurance coverage come in a variety of forms. Life, health, homeowners, and vehicle insurance are the most common varieties.

In the event of a tragedy, such as a fire, theft, legal action, or automobile accident, insurance works as a financial safety net to aid you and your loved ones in recovering. When you get insurance, you will receive an insurance policy, which is a contract that is legally enforceable between you and your insurance company.

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Areas that have a large prevalence of malaria, such as africa, have a high frequency of children who have sickle cell anemia or are carriers of the trait. What role does the concept of natural selection play in this trend?.

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Being a carrier of, or having sickle cell anemia is adaptive in this region, because it protects against malaria. Subsequently, children born with sickle cell anemia are less likely to die from malaria.

What is malaria?

A parasite that frequently infects a particular kind of mosquito that feeds on people can result in the severe and occasionally deadly illness known as malaria. Malaria often causes severe disease, including high fevers, shivering chills, and flu-like symptoms. Humans are infected by Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae, four different types of malaria parasites. Additionally, P. knowlesi, a kind of malaria that infects macaques naturally in Southeast Asia, infects people as well, resulting in malaria that is transferred from animal to human ("zoonotic" malaria). The kind of malaria known as P. falciparum is the most likely to cause severe infections and, if untreated, may be fatal.

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Which structure prevents the outward movement of contracting muscles in the thigh, making muscular contractions more efficient in compressing veins to assist in the return of blood back towards the heart?.

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Answer:

Fascia lata

Explanation:

Among patients with sickle cell disease, which disorder is the leading cause of mortality and morbidity?

Answers

Explanation:

acute chest syndrome

A client is admitted to hospital with signs of acidosis. compensation takes place in the kidney as well as in the lungs. which action takes place specifically at the respiratory membrane?

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The target cells for the hormone ACTH are mainly located in the adrenal cortex.

The adrenal cortex is the outer part of the adrenal gland. that produces the hormones which support the important organ functions and the body processes. Many illnesses can also be affect the adrenal cortex. Some of cause the overproduction of the hormones, while others limit the hormone production. The adrenal cortex was the outer region and also the largest part of the adrenal gland. It is divided into the three separate zones: the zona glomerulosa, the zona fasciculata and the zona reticularis. Each zone is responsible for the producing specific hormones. The adrenal gland which secretes the steroid hormones such as the cortisol and the aldosterone. It also makes the precursors that can be converted to the sex steroids (androgen, estrogen).

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In the not too distant past, many professionals tended to believe that parents of children with disabilities were.

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The correct answer is option b. to blame for many of their child's problems.

Most parents find it challenging to raise a child with a disability because they live in a society that places blame on them. Parents frequently experience guilt because they believe that they contributed in some way to the child's impairment, whether it resulted from genetics, alcohol usage, stress, or other rational or illogical factors. If this guilt is not addressed, it may be detrimental to the parent's emotional wellbeing. Some parents go through a spiritual crisis or blame the other parent of not providing the necessary support. Moreover, most parents face religious repercussions as well, because it was widely assumed that the parents' sins caused disabilities in their children.

However, the majority of these negative opinions are more commonly misconceptions that result from an ignorance about disabilities and how they influence the functioning of those who are affected. As a result, negative attitudes frequently serve as obstacles to the complete acceptance of the impaired individual.

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In the not too distant past, many professionals tended to believe that parents of children with disabilities were

a. virtually faultless with respect to their child's problems.

b. to blame for many of their child's problems.

c. unable to work effectively with their child unless they first experience an emotional catharsis or cleansing.

d. unable to cope with their child if he or she was the first-born child.

Ranslate the term thoracentesis as literally as possible. group of answer choices
a. chest removal
b. lung removal
c. chest puncture
d. lung incision

Answers

The term thoracentesis as literally as possible. group of answer choices chest puncture.

What is thoracentesis?

A procedure called thoracentesis is used to remove air or fluid from the region around the lungs. A needle is inserted through the chest wall to the pleural area. The pleural space is the little opening between the inner chest wall and the pleura of the lung. A double layer of membranes called the pleura encircles the lungs. There is a tiny amount of fluid inside the area. When you breathe, the fluid keeps the pleura from grinding against one another. Pleural effusion is the medical term for extra fluid in the pleural space. As a result, breathing becomes more difficult since the lungs are unable to expand completely. Pain and difficulty breathing may result from this. Exercise might make these sensations worse.

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What is the guideline that is set at a level 100 times less than the level at which no harmful effects were noted in animal studies

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The guideline is set at a level 100 times less than the level at which no harmful effects are acceptable daily intake (ADI).

What do you mean by acceptable daily intake (ADI)?

The amount of a substance that can be eaten daily over the course of a lifetime without posing a significant danger to health is known as the acceptable daily intake (ADI). The Acceptable Daily Intake (ADI) is defined as an estimate of the amount of a food additive, expressed on a bodyweight basis, that can be consumed on a daily basis over the course of a lifetime without posing an appreciable risk to health. It pertains to chemical substances including food additives, pesticide residues, and veterinary medications, and is typically represented as milligrams of the material per kilogram of body weight.

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Which condition is most likely to have a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit?

Answers

Answer:

Gastric ulcer

Explanation:

Gastrointestinal issues, blood loss (internal or external), inadequate fluid intake, and renal disorder are all things that can place a patient at risk for fluid volume deficit.

Under the american recovery and reinvestment act suspected breach of phi has been confirmed a hospital must report the violation to?

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Under the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule, covered entities and their business partners are required to report breaches that affect more than 500 patients within 60 days of becoming aware of them. According to the Privacy Rule, a breach is "an unauthorized use or disclosure that jeopardizes the security or privacy of the protected health information."

What is the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule?

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA) is a Federal statute that establishes security and privacy requirements for patient data. More patient control over healthcare information is provided. According to the HIPAA Breach Notification Rule, covered businesses must alert the media, HHS, the impacted individuals, and other parties in the event that unsecured PHI is compromised. Most notifications must be sent out without undue delay and no later than 60 days after a violation is discovered.

To comply with HIPAA rules, healthcare providers will develop systems to safeguard patients' health information.

HIPAA's principal goal is to safeguard patient data's confidentiality while also facilitating the information flow necessary to deliver high-quality healthcare.

The HIPAA's fundamental guidelines include the Security Rule, the Privacy Rule, and the Breach Notification Rule.

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____is a procedure for treatment-resistant depression that involves the implantation of electrodes in the brain. the electrodes emit signals to alter the brain's electrical circuitry.

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Deep brain stimulation is a procedure for treatment-resistant depression that involves the implantation of electrodes in the brain. the electrodes emit signals to alter the brain's electrical circuitry.

Several parts of the brain are implanted with electrodes during deep brain stimulation (DBS). Electrical impulses generated by these electrodes control aberrant impulses. Or the brain's cells and molecules may be affected by the electrical impulses.

An electronic device that resembles a pacemaker that is positioned beneath the skin in your upper chest regulates the intensity of deep brain stimulation. This gadget is linked to the electrodes in your brain by a cable that passes beneath your skin.

Several disorders including deep brain stimulation is frequently used to treat these problems:

Parkinson's conditionA necessary tremorDystoniaEpilepsyObsessive-compulsive disorder

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The prescriber ordered novolin insulin 20 units subcut stat for a client. the nurse administered novolin n (nph). what medication right was violated?

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a. Did not specify the novolin medication type.

b. Didn't make clear and guessed NPH.

c. Making a call to MD and requesting the full order details.

Novolin- Novolin R is a synthetic insulin of recombinant DNA origin that is used to treat diabetes mellitus in both adults and children.

Insulin- A hormone produced by the pancreatic islet cells. By delivering sugar towards the cells, so that it can be utilized by the body for energy, insulin regulates the amount of glucose in the blood.

Cells- The research of structure and function of cells is known as cell biology, and it is based on the idea that a cell is the basic building block of all life.

The given question is incomplete, find below the complete question,

Scenario: The prescriber ordered Novolin insulin 20 units subcut stat for a client. The nurse administered Novolin N (NPH).

(a) What error did the prescriber make?

(b) What error did the nurse make?

(c) How could the error have been prevented?

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A client who is receiving an immune suppressant has been admitted to the hospital unit. what action should the nurse prioritize?

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The person should be kept in protective isolation for continuous monitoring.

What is an immunosuppressant?

An immunosuppressant can be defined as a substance or an agent that when taken suppresses the immune responses in a body.

The immune system under the effect of immunosuppressant will not be fully functional and hence, will be prone to exposure to foreign bodies.

The chances of an infection increase in the body as the body will not produce sufficient antibodies under the action of immunosuppressants.

Immunosuppressants are commonly prescribed during and after an organ transplant. This is to minimize the chances of organ rejection in a patient.

Immunosuppressants are also used in the treatment of autoimmune diseases - a condition where the body's cells attack its own immune system by producing antibodies.

Use of immunosuppressants leads to immunodeficiency in general. In some cases other effects like hypertension, hyperglycaemia or vitals like liver and kidney may be affected.

Therefore, immunity is decreased with the use of immunosuppressants.

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Patient r.m., who had suffered lesions of both the left and right parietal lobes, exhibited:____.

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Impaired detection of conjunction targets but not feature targets

Illusory conjunctions even when given several seconds to look at the stimuli

Impaired ability to localize single words even though he could read them

What is parietal lobes?

The top and rear of the skull are home to the parietal lobes. They are crucial for decoding and understanding somatosensory information. Eg. Through physical contact with our skin, they provide us with information about items in our environment as well as the location and movement of our bodily parts (proprioception). The parietal lobes are crucial for sensory perception and integration, including the control of taste, hearing, sight, touch, and smell. They are also in charge of integrating sensory data and creating a spatial coordinate system to represent the world around us.

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How should the nurse record the client's obstetrical history using the g-t-p-a-l designation?

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5-2-1-1-4 Gravidity (G) is defined as the number of times pregnant, including the current pregnancy.

What is gravidity?

Gravidity alludes to the all-out number of pregnancies no matter what its result. A pregnancy can end in a live birth, unsuccessful labor, untimely birth or an early termination. The term Gravida alludes to an at present pregnant. lady. In science and human medication, gravidity and equality are the times a lady is or has been pregnant (gravidity) and conveyed the pregnancies to a suitable gestational age (equality). These terms are typically coupled, now and again with extra terms, to demonstrate more subtleties of the lady's obstetric history. While utilizing these terms.

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What are non-digestible carbohydrates that promote gi health, increase satiety, and reduce risks of heart disease, diseases, and some cancers?.

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fiber is the non-digestible carbohydrates that promote gi health, increase satiety, and reduce risks of heart disease, diseases, and some cancers.

Answer:

Explanation:fiber is the non-digestible carbohydrates that promote gi health, increase satiety, and reduce risks of heart disease, diseases, and some cancers.

any five challenges experienced by mothers .write full sentences .​

Answers

Taking care of their kids. Paying bills and taxes. Buying necessities for their kids.

biological mothers experience the hardship of childbirth.

biological mothers can also experience bodily changes.

surrogate mothers can face social ostracism.

trans mothers could also face social ostrasization and not be considered “real mothers”

all mothers experience the joys and difficulties of raising a child.

A client admitted to the hospital with an acute episode of rheumatoid arthritis (ra) asks why physical therapy has not been prescribed. which response would the nurse make?

Answers

Answer:Your joints are still inflamed, and physical therapy can be harmful."

Explanation:

A physician orders lithium carbonate for a client who has just been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. the nurse is teaching the client about signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity, which include:_____.

Answers

A patient who has just been given a bipolar illness diagnosis receives a prescription for lithium carbonate from a doctor ,the nurse is teaching the client about signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity, which include  lethargy, vomiting, and diarrhea.

What do you mean by  bipolar disorder?

Bipolar disorder, formerly known as manic-depressive illness or manic depression, is a mental condition that causes uncharacteristic swings in mood, energy, activity level, focus, and the ability to do everyday tasks.

There are three types of bipolar disorder. There are noticeable alterations in each of the three groups' levels of energy, mood, and activity. These emotions might be exceedingly "down," depressed, uninterested, or despairing, or they can be extraordinarily "up," ecstatic, impatient, or energized (known as manic episodes) (known as depressive episodes).

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The quality of evidence supporting an rda is ______ the quality of evidence supporting an ai.

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The quality of evidence supporting an rda is greater than the quality of evidence supporting an ai.

When an RDA cannot be determined, acceptable intake (AI) is the suggested average daily intake amount based on approximate or estimated nutrient consumption by a group (or groups) of seemingly healthy individuals that are thought to be adequate.

The Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) is the number of nutrients that should be consumed on a daily basis in order to fulfill the needs of 97 to 98 percent of healthy persons in a given life stage and gender. When there is insufficient data to establish an RDA, the AI is the recommended intake for an individual.

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The nurse is caring for a client with acute primary respiratory acidosis. when determining the cause of the acidosis the nurse is aware that which imbalance is most common?

Answers

Answer:Impaired alveolar ventilation

Explanation:

Patients who experience anemic episodes when exposed to certain drugs most likely have?

Answers

Patients who suffer from bouts of anemia after taking particular medications most often possess glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency.

G6PD (glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency) is an RBC deficient condition. This anemia typically manifests up following an infectious sickness or after exposure to certain medications. The primary method of treating G6PD deficiency is to stay away from oxidative stimuli.

Rarely, anemia can be so bad that a blood transfusion is necessary. In general, splenectomy is not advised. When a person is anemic, the body doesn't produce much healthy red blood cells to supply the tissues with enough oxygen.

Being anemic, or to have low hemoglobin, can make a person feel exhausted and frail. There are various forms of anemia and each have its own characteristics.

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The ability to perform movements with a full range of motion is a benefit of?

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The ability to perform movements with a full range of motion is a benefit of flexibility exercises.

What is flexibility exercises(stretching)?flexibility exercises (Stretching) is a type of physical activity in which a particular muscle, tendon, or muscle group is purposefully flexed or stretched in order to increase the muscle's perceived flexibility and attain a comfortable level of muscular tone.Increased muscular control, flexibility, and range of motion are the effects.Stretching is further applied medically to relieve cramps and enhance everyday function by extending range of motion.Stretching is an instinctual and natural behavior that is carried out by humans and many other creatures in its most basic form.There may be yawning as well. After awakening from sleep, after extended periods of inactivity, or after leaving restricted rooms and regions, stretching frequently happens reflexively.

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What type of responsibility is it when the medical assistant helps the physician during a physical exam?

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It is clinical responsibility when the medical assistant helps the physician during a physical exam.

In a healthcare setup, the responsibility of a medical assistant is to assist the doctor in providing treatments to patients. In a clinical setup, a medical assistant helps the physician in various functions. A physical exam of a patient is carried out in a clinical setting and the medical assistant plays an active role in assisting the doctor.

It is the responsibility of the medical assistant to record the medical history of the patient. The medical assistant also educates the patient about the examination procedure. The specimens are collected and managed by the medical assistant. The equipment needed for a physical procedure is also looked after and sterilized by a medical assistant in a clinical setting. The medical assistant also assists in managing medications for the patient.

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During labor, a primigravid client receives an epidural anesthetic, and the nurse assists in monitoring maternal and fetal status. which finding suggests an adverse reaction to the anesthesia?

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Maternal hypotension—A common physiological effect of epidural and spinal anesthesia is hypotension, primarily due to blockade and SNS, leading to arterial and venous vasodilation with subsequent 'functional' hypovolemia increase.

What is Anesthesia?

Anesthesia is a controlled temporary loss of sensation or consciousness induced for medical purposes may include some or all of analgesia (reduction or prevention of pain), paralysis (relaxation of muscles), amnesia (loss of memory), and loss of consciousness. A person under the influence of an anesthetic is said to be anesthetized. Anesthesia can be used to painlessly perform procedures that cause severe or excruciating pain in the unanesthetized person or are otherwise technically infeasible.

Broadly speaking, he has three categories of anesthetics.

General anesthesia suppresses central nervous system activity and uses injections or inhalants to cause loss of consciousness and complete paralysis. Sedation suppresses the central nervous system to some extent, suppressing anxiety and long-term memory formation without loss of consciousness.Local and regional anesthesia that blocks the transmission of nerve impulses from certain parts of the body. Depending on the situation, it can be used alone (where the person remains fully conscious) or in combination with general anesthesia or sedation. Drugs can target peripheral nerves and paralyze isolated parts of the body. For example, numbing a tooth for dental work or using a nerve block to cut off sensation in an entire limb. Alternatively, epidural and spinal anesthesia can be applied to areas of the central nervous system itself to suppress incoming sensations from nerves that supply areas of obstruction.

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Drug use that is not common within a social group and that is disapproved of by the majority, causing members of a group to take corrective action when it occurs is?

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Drug use that is not common within a social group and that is disapproved of by the majority, causing members of a group to take corrective action when it occurs is called deviant drug use.

What is drug?

Any molecule that, when consumed, alters the physiology or psychology of an organism qualifies as a drug. Usually, foods and other substances that help nutrition are segregated from drugs. Drugs can be ingested, inhaled, injected, smoked, absorbed via the skin using a patch, suppository, or dissolved under the tongue. In pharmacology, a drug is a chemical compound, usually one with a well-known structure, that, when given to a living thing, has a biological impact. A pharmaceutical drug is a chemical compound that is used to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose an illness, as well as to improve wellbeing. It is also known as a medication or medicine. In the past, drugs were extracted from medicinal plants, but more recently, they were also created organically. Pharmaceutical medications may be taken for a brief time or on an as-needed basis.

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Surgical fixation or attachment of a testicle in the scrotum as a treatment for undescended testis is termed:_____.

Answers

Cryptorchido-pexy refers to the surgical attachment or fixation of a testicle in the scrotum as a therapy for undescended testis.

What is a testicle?

The male gonad , often known as a testicle or testis (plural testes), is present in all bilaterians, including humans. It resembles the female ovary. The production of sperm and androgens, chiefly testosterone, is carried out by the testes. While the anterior pituitary follicle-stimulating hormone and gonadal testosterone both influence sperm production, the anterior pituitary luteinizing hormone regulates the release of testosterone.

In the scrotum, which is an outgrowth of the abdominal wall, males have two testicles that are identical in size. It's typical to have scrotal asymmetry, in which one testicle protrudes farther into the scrotum than the other. This is as a result of the variations in the anatomy of the vasculature. Right testis hangs lower than left testis for 85% of men.

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Heavy drinkers with wernicke's disease (vitamin b1 deficiency) also usually exhibit memory deficits and other mental problems associated with?

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Heavy drinkers with Wernicke's disease (vitamin b1 deficiency) also usually exhibit memory deficits and other mental problems associated with Korsakoff's psychosis

Korsakoff's psychosis is an extreme thiamine deficiency-induced amnesia. It is most commonly seen among alcoholic patients with extremely poor nutrition, but it is essential to keep in mind that the vital factor is a dietary deficiency, not alcohol.

Korsakoff's psychosis can thus arise in any disease in which vitamin b1 intake is not maintained, and heavy drinking is involved. Korsakoff's psychosis may cause memory deficits and other mental problems in them.

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