A community-based nurse is assessing the needs of a family of four, which includes a physically challenged 9-year-old. which activity would the nurse prioritize to be an advocate for this family?

Answers

Answer 1

Establish eligibility for assistive devices for child.

The nurse observes that a new client’s medication regimen includes sumatriptan and what she prioritize?

The nurse should prioritize assessing the severity of the migraine or headache that the patient is feeling. He/she can do this by asking the patient through a Perceived Stress Scale of 1-10, with 10 being the most painful form of headache, and 1 at the lowest rate of pain. Sumatriptan is a drug that is actually used to treat or manage migraines and other cluster headaches. It can be drank orally, nasally sprayed, and injected subcutaneously.  Avoid coming during mealtimes. The emergency nurse is providing care for a pregnant woman admitted with a broken femur, blackened eye, and multiple contusions.

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Related Questions

Which term refers to application of anatomical study for the diagnosis and treatment of disease, particularly as it relates to surgical procedures?

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Term refers to application of anatomical study for the diagnosis and treatment of disease, particularly as it relates to surgical procedures is: Applied anatomy

How would you define applied anatomy?

The practical use of anatomical knowledge to diagnosis and therapy is known as applied anatomy. clinical anthropology Anatomy, or general anatomy, is the area of morphology concerned with animal structure.

Structure-function relationships are investigated in the context of related subjects such as diagnostic imaging, pathology, and other aspects of medicine in Applied anatomy.

What is anatomy?

The field of biology known as anatomy is concerned with the study of the structure of organisms and their parts (Greek: anatom, "dissection"). The structural organisation of living things is the focus of the natural science field of anatomy. It is an old science with roots in the Paleolithic era.

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Which characteristic of a skin lesion will the nurse report to the health care provider? (select all that apply.)

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Characteristics of a skin lesion such as

Irregular border

•       Asymmetry

• Size increase from last month

are reported by the nurse report to the health care provider.

Some types of skin lesions:

Macules are nonpalpable, flat lesions with a diameter of 10 mm or less on average. Macules are changes in color rather than elevations or depressions in the skin’s surface.

A patch is an enormous macule. Examples include a variety of drug-induced allergic reactions, freckles, flat moles, tattoos, port-wine stains, rickettsia illnesses, rubella, measles (which can also result in papules and plaques), and freckles.

• Papules are raised lesions with a diameter of less than 10 mm that can be felt or palpated.

Examples include actinic keratoses, seborrheic keratoses, nevi, warts, lichen planus, and skin cancer.

The term maculopapular, which should be avoided due to its ambiguity and ease of misunderstanding, is commonly and incorrectly used to describe a variety of red rashes

Bullae are fluid-filled, translucent blisters that are 10 mm or larger. Burns, insect bites, irritant or allergic contact dermatitis, and drug reactions may cause them.

Traditional autoimmune bullous diseases include pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid. Bullae can also appear in those who have inherited skin fragility issues.

Nodules are solid papules or lesions that extend into the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. Examples include cysts, lipomas, and fibromas.

• Vesicles are little, transparent, fluid-filled blisters with a 10 mm diameter.

Vesicles are a defining feature of several autoimmune blistering diseases, acute allergic contact dermatitis, and herpes infections (eg, dermatitis herpetiformis).

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A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety. the patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum. this patient is most likely experiencing:________.

Answers

The patient is most probably experiencing acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is a potentially fatal buildup of extra fluid in the lungs as a result of pressure in the heart. The excess fluid can be eliminated with medications, but your doctor may also need to perform surgeries. The reason determines the different treatments. The cause of your edema will determine the prognosis for your issue.

When the pulmonary lymphatics are unable to eliminate transupdated fluid, acute pulmonary edema (PE) develops. As fluid travels from the intravascular compartment into the interstitial space and, in extreme circumstances, the alveoli, the edema begins to take shape and finally manifests as overt, abundant, pink frothy sputum.

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Which intervention would the nurse initiate when a fetal heart pattern signifying uteroplacental insufficiency occurs?

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The intervention which the nurse would initiate when a fetal heart pattern signifying uteroplacental insufficiency occurs is helping the client turn to the side-lying position.

Assisting the client to turn to the side-lying position would improve uterine blood flow, and fetal oxygenation would increase. Inserting a urine retention catheter is unnecessary; additionally, it needs a primary healthcare provider's prescription. Oxygen is also administered eventually if necessary, however this is often not the primary intervention. Encouraging the client to pant together with her next contraction won't increase uterine blood flow or oxygen to the fetus.

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Which signs and symptoms would the nurse include when teaching a client about ketoacidosis? one, some, or all responses may be correct.

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The signs and symptoms that the nurse would include when teaching a client about ketoacidosis include malaise, generalized weakness, and fatigability.

Diabetes-related ketoacidosis (DKA)  can be a dangerous condition that affects people with diabetes and other people United Nations agency have diabetes which is undiagnosed. It happens once your body does not have enough internal secretion to use sugar for energy. Instead, your body breaks down fat for energy, that causes your body to unleash ketones.

Other symptoms of ketoacidosis  might embrace excessive thirst, frequent evacuation, nausea and inborn reflex in form of vomiting, abdomen pain, weakness or fatigue, shortness of breath fruity-scented breath and confusion.

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The nurse is caring for a patient with a head injury who is receiving a 5 5w infusion at 100 ml/hr. what statement by the patient requires an immediate action by the nurse?

Answers

A patient with a head injury is being cared for by the nurse who is administering a 100 ml/hr infusion over five days. "My headache is growing worse," the patient says, calling for the nurse's quick attention.

Why is this declaration urgent and demands action now?

An intensifying headache could be a sign of cerebral edema. This would happen because of the hypotonic solution's increased fluid shifts into the cells.

What is Traumatic brain injury (TBI)?

Traumatic brain injury (TBI), which can be brought on by a blow, bump, or shock to the head, the head abruptly slamming against something, or when an item pierces the skull and penetrates the brain tissue, is a disturbance in the normal operation of the brain. An variation in typical brain function might be identified by observing just one of the following clinical symptoms:

awareness decline or lossmemory loss for activities leading up to or following the incident (amnesia)focal neurological impairments characterized by speech changes, visual loss, and muscular weaknessalteration in mental state, such as confusion, sluggish thinking, or attention problemsDepending on the degree of brain injury, TBI symptoms can range from mild to severe.

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The abc corporation chose a high-deductible health plan (hdhp) for the purpose of:____.

Answers

The correct answer is working with the HSA it planned to provide to its 700 full-time workers .

health plan that offers drastically lower rates in alternate for the insured's willingness to pay a comparatively big deductible.

A health insurance plan having a excessive deductible for medical prices is known as a high-deductible fitness plan (HDHP).An HDHP regularly has cheaper month-to-month premiums however a better yearly deductible (on occasion inside the 4 figures) than a ordinary health plan. recurring preventive care is absolutely covered by using insurance plans, for this reason there are no copays or coinsurance requirements for clients. The bare minimal deductible modifications every 12 months. An HDHP is one which has a minimal deductible of $1,400 for humans and $2,800 for households for the years 2021 and 2022, in line with the IRS.

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Imani was in an automobile accident and suffered an injury to her brain, resulting in paralysis of her left arm. what part of imani's brain was injured?

Answers

Answer:

The right half of her brain

Explanation:

The right part of the brain controls the left part of the body.

Which nursing activity is performed during safety planning for a patient? one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The nursing activity which is performed during safety planning for a patient include consulting with activity and physical therapists for helpful devices and choosing interventions which will improve the security of the patient's home surroundings.

From a patient safety perspective, a nurse's role includes watching patients for clinical deterioration, sleuthing errors and close to misses, understanding care processes and weaknesses inherent in some systems, distinctive and communication changes in patient condition.

Some interventions that support patient safety include allowing patients access to EHR data, care for hospital environment, create a safe patient experience, simple and timely appointment scheduling, and encouraging family and caregiver engagement.

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Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless?

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Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless it causes a problem managing the airway.

Spinal injury may end up from harm to the vertebrae, ligaments or disks of the skeletal structure or to the medulla spinalis itself. A traumatic medulla spinalis injury will stem from a fast, traumatic blow to your spine that fractures, dislocates, crushes or compresses one or a lot of of your vertebrae.

A cervical collar is used for spine issues or injuries. It limits forward and backward movement over a soft one will. exhausting collars are typically solely used once surgical process or a significant injury, like a broken neck. you will get a tough cervical collar once you have used a halo brace.

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A nurse is in a conflict with a colleague, but both nurses are committed to collaboration. to promote collaboration, the nurses should:_____.

Answers

Both of the nurses should identify a common goal that is important to both of them

What are conflicts?

Conflict is defined as a clash between individuals arising out of a difference in thought process, attitudes, understanding, interests, requirements and even principles.

Various forms of conflict include:

Ideological conflict- a condition where there are differences in ideologies of two or more individuals or groups resulting in clashes. Behavioral conflicts- a condition in which there are differences in behavior of two or more individuals or groups resultingin clashes. Religious conflicts- this occurs as a result of different in religious beliefs.

Conflicts can be managed by setting to achieve a common goal that is important to both parties.

Conflict will always be found in every setting as there are differences in interest and goals but can be managed if appropriate measures are taken.

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A neonate weighing 5 lb 6 oz (2438 g) is born in a cesarean birth and admitted to the newborn nursery. which range of resting respiratory rate would the nurse anticipate?

Answers

The normal neonatal respiratory rate ranges from 30 to 60 breaths/min.

What is a neonate ?

A child under 28 days old is known as a newborn infant, neonate, or newborn. The infant is most at danger of passing away in the first 28 days of life. The great majority of neonatal deaths occur in developing nations with limited access to medical treatment.

The normal neonatal respiratory rate ranges from 30 to 60 breaths/min with brief apneic intervals after respiration is initiated. Bradypnea is defined as 20 breaths per minute. Tachypnea occurs when the respiratory rate exceeds 60 breaths per minute.

Question:

A neonate weighing 5 lb 6 oz (2438 g) is born in a cesarean birth and admitted to the newborn nursery. What range of resting respiratory rate should the nurse anticipate?

(A)20 to 40 breaths/min

(B)30 to 60 breaths/min

(C)60 to 80 breaths/min

(D)70 to 90 breaths/min

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Can someone help me please?

Answers

I think it is option 3.

Answer:

Explanation:

B is the right answer

Nurse is preparing to complete a comprehensive assessment on a client. when collecting objective data, what would the nurse do first?

Answers

After evaluating and documenting the information obtained from the client, the nurse needs to analyze the data collected.

What preparation needs to be completed by the nurse before performing the client's physical assessment?

The nurse should perform hand hygiene before starting the physical assessment. This includes before collecting equipment. Auscultation and palpitation should not occur until hand hygiene has been performed.

With this information, we can conclude that It is a deliberative, comparative and ongoing process and self-assessment to determine whether the initial questions have been answered and what lessons to be learned from the shortcomings identified. The final process serves to analyze all the variables that culminated in the final outcome.

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A patient has been diagnosed with an empyema. what interventions should the nurse anticipate providing to this patient? (select all that apply.)

Answers

helping to implant a chest tube. facilitating the sample of pleural fluid. making regular respiratory evaluations. supplying antipyretics as necessary. thorough suctioning every 4 hours. Interventions the nurse should plan to give to this patient

What are antipyretics?

An antipyretic is a drug that reduces fever. Antipyretics compel the hypothalamus to overcome an increase in body temperature brought on by prostaglandins. The body finally succeeds in bringing the temperature down, which causes the fever to subside.

Most antipyretic medications also have other purposes. The most widely used antipyretics in the US are ibuprofen, aspirin, and paracetamol (acetaminophen), analgesics without anti-inflammatory properties that are primarily used as anti-inflammatories and analgesics (pain relievers) but also have antipyretic effects.

Fever suppression increases influenza mortality in the US by at least 1% annually, or 700 additional deaths, according to study from the Royal Society.

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Which is the nurse's most therapeutic statement when the client and nurse move from the orientation stage to the working stage of the therapeutic relationship?

Answers

"Which identified problems would you like for us to initially address?" is the  nurse's most therapeutic statement when the client and nurse move from the orientation stage to the working stage of the therapeutic relationship.

Relationship which is based on mutual respect and faith while being sensitive to others and self while assisting patients physical, emotional needs through knowledge and skills is therapeutic relationship.

Identified goals are addressed through mutual therapeutic work which promotes client behavioral change.

Orientation stage of the nurse client relationship should be focused on establishing rapport and developing treatment goals. There are four stages in therapeutic relationship: commitment, process, change, and termination.

There are also four phases of  nurse client relationship which are  pre interaction, orientation, working and termination.

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You are ambulating joe in the hallway with his walker and a gait belt. a coworker is following behind with joe's wheelchair. joe becomes shaky and weak. the best thing to do is to:______.

Answers

You are ambulating Joe in the hallway with his walker and a gait belt. a coworker is following behind with Joe's wheelchair. Joe becomes shaky and weak. the best thing to do is to: put him in his wheelchair right away.

What is a wheelchair  ?

A wheelchair is a powered or manually propelled vehicle that is primarily intended for use by someone with a mobility impairment for both inside and outdoor locomotion. In any place that is accessible to foot traffic, people with mobility disabilities must be allowed to use wheelchairs and manually powered mobility aids, such as walkers, crutches, canes, braces, or other similar devices designated for their use.

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A middle-aged client with young children has been the victim of intimate partner violence (ipv). when providing initial care to this family, the nurse should?

Answers

A middle-aged client with young children has been the victim of intimate partner violence (IPV) and while providing initial care to this family, the nurse should provide support and advice.

Intimate partner violence (IPV) is abuse or aggression that happens in an extremely romantic relationship. “Intimate partner” is refered to every current and former spouses and conjointly the dating partners.

The role of nurses in caring for females who are IPV is looking for the distinctive abuse, taking care of patients' physical health needs, aiming to their safety, creating referrals, and providing support and recommendation.

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The nurse is teaching a nutrition class about dietary reference intakes (dris). the nurse would correctly state that this collection includes which reference set?

Answers

The nurse is teaching a nutrition class about dietary reference intakes (dris). the nurse would correctly state that this collection includes

Tolerable Upper Intake.

What is a Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)?

Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)  is the highest level of average daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population. The UL  is a component of five references that make up DRIs. The DRI doesn't provide physical activity recommendations or nutritional density values. Healthy People may be a  program conducted by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services that sets public health goals and objectives and monitors the nation's progress toward meeting those objectives.

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A person who following a head injury has difficulty recognizing emotional responses in others most likely suffered damage to the _____.

Answers

A person who following a head injury has difficulty recognizing emotional responses in others most likely suffered damage to the amygdala.

Amygdala: What is it?

The brain's amygdala, which is mostly connected to emotional functions. Since the structure resembles an almond, the name "amygdala" comes from the Greek word "amygdale" , which means "almond." Just anterior to (in front of) the hippocampus in the medial temporal lobe is where the amygdala is situated.

Several facets of emotion and memory are mediated by the limbic system, which includes the amygdala. It is now understood that the amygdala is also involved in the positive emotions induced by appetitive (rewarding) stimuli, despite the fact that historically it was thought that it was largely responsible for fear and other emotions linked to aversive (unpleasant) stimuli.

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It would be appropriate to recommend high-fiber foods to someone trying to lose weight because:_____

Answers

According to the research, the correct option is it promotes a feeling of fullness. It would be appropriate to recommend high-fiber foods to someone trying to lose weight because: Fiber promotes a feeling of fullness.

What is Fiber?

It is a food component with healthy characteristics present in legumes, cereals, vegetables and fruits that improves digestion.

In this sense, it retains water, reduces the glycemic index favoring satiety and facilitating intestinal transit, among the foods that are considered richer in fiber are plums, spinach, walnuts, figs, among others.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is it promotes a feeling of fullness. It would be appropriate to recommend high-fiber foods to someone trying to lose weight because: Fiber promotes a feeling of fullness.

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Ftec what is defined by the application of systematic assessments of research evidence to enhance treatment selection and promote efficacious care?

Answers

Evidence-based health care is defined by the application of systematic assessments of research evidence to enhance treatment selection and promote efficacious care.

What is Evidence-based health care ?

Evidence-based medicine is a method of doing medical practice with the aim of enhancing and assessing patient care. To make judgments concerning medical care, the best available scientific findings must be carefully weighed against the patient's values.

According to the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, the objective of EBP is to "increase the quality, efficacy, and appropriateness of health care by synthesizing the evidence and easing the translation of evidence-based research findings" (AHRQ).

What advantages do evidence-based practices offer?

Benefits

EBP lessens the possibility of injury while promoting the caliber, effectiveness, and cost-efficiency of psychotherapy interventions. ...The creation of new knowledge results from EBP. ...EBP makes it easier for practitioners to make therapeutic decisions by fostering knowledge translation.

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What are criterion-referenced standards for health-related youth fitness tests based on?

Answers

The correct option is "a" i.e analysis of health-related empirical data.

What are  health-related youth fitness tests?

Fitness-related tests of the body's systems

Hand grip dynamometer for strength.One-rep maximum test for strength.Multistage fitness test for cardiovascular endurance.Cooper run or swim for twelve minutes to test cardiovascular endurance.Ability to bend: Sit and reach test.30 meter sprint test for speed.

What does empirical research in health and social services mean?

Empirical data, often known as empirical evidence, broadly refers to knowledge discovered via experimentation or observation. Scientists collect and examine this data, which is essential to the scientific method.

Question:

What are criterion-referenced standards for health-related youth fitness tests based on?

a. analysis of health-related empirical data

b. tester's opinion of age-related health status

c. minimum skill levels

d. comparison among peers

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How would you design an experiment to test if a taller beak confers a fitness benefit during a drought?

Answers

To design an experiment to test if a taller beak confers a fitness benefit during a drought

1. State the hypothesis

2. Describe how you would set the rainfall pattern on each

What are the characteristics of an experiment?

A scientist has got to use numbers and units to describe his findings, and his experiment has got to facilitate the collection of that data. Finally, experiments need to control for multiple variables.  that if more than one variable is affecting the experiment, then just one variable should be affecting it at a time.

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The nurse is taking a sexual history on a new client. what action is considered appropriate at this time? (select all that apply.)

Answers

The action that is known to be  considered appropriate at this time are:

Affirm that your conversation is confidential.Note that you realize this information is highly personal.Explain why you are taking the sexual history.

What is the meaning of confidentiality of information?

"Confidential information" is known to be a term that is defined as any kind of information in which the public is not required to know or have general access to.

Note that this kind of policy rules over the use or further disclosure of such information.

Hence, The action that is known to be  considered appropriate at this time are:

Affirm that your conversation is confidential.Note that you realize this information is highly personal.Explain why you are taking the sexual history.

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The nurse is taking a sexual history on a new patient. What action is considered appropriate at this time? (Select all that apply.)

Explain to the patient what is considered to be normal sexual behavior

Explain why you are taking the sexual history

Note that you realize this information is highly personal

Relate that you gather this history on only high-risk patients

Affirm that your conversation is confidential

After abdominal surgery, a client reports pain. which action would the nurse take first?

Answers

After abdominal surgery, a client reports pain. nurse should first determine the characteristics of the pain.

What is abdominal surgery?

A wide range of surgical treatments carried out in the abdomen to either diagnose or treat a medical issue are categorized as abdominal surgery. Depending on the abdominal organ involved, such as the stomach, liver, or kidney, among others, different procedures are used.

The majority of these treatments are known as laparotomies or open abdominal surgeries, which are regarded as major operations that are followed by lengthy recuperation and downtime periods. They often include making a large incision in the belly. However, more recent methods have made it possible for laparoscopic procedures, which only call for much smaller incisions and result in fewer post-operative pain and scars.

Patients with diseases that affect any part of the abdominal cavity are given the recommendation to undergo abdominal surgery. Those who have the following conditions are potential patients:

Appendicitis abortion or fetal death. abdominal symptoms that are not explained by abdominal hemorrhage without apparent cause.

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The reasoning behind the use of fecal transplants from healthy individuals is that:_____.

Answers

The reason for using fecal transplants from healthy individuals is that:  competition with the introduction of other bacteria into the gastrointestinal tract keeps Clostridium difficile counts low.

Fecal transplant:

Fecal transplantation, also known as fecal microbiota transplantation (FMT), involves transplanting a healthy donor's stool into the colon of a recipient who has a diseased bowel.

According to DeVito, the gut microbiome, or the collection of bacteria and other microbes present in the digestive system, underlies the concept behind fecal transplantation.

Good and bad bacteria coexist harmoniously in a healthy gut, but the use of antibiotics can wipe out the good bacteria and allow the bad bacteria to take over, causing problems such as intestinal infections.

So the whole idea of ​​a fecal transplant is to restore some of the normal, healthy microbiome to a healthier balance and help the body fight off infection.

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A disease that will end in death is called a _____ disease.
a. chronic
b. exacerbation
c. palliative
d. terminal

Answers

A disease that will end in death is called a terminal disease.

A sickness in its final ranges, often called a terminal contamination, is one that cannot be efficaciously treated or cured and is probably to cause the affected person to bypass away.

In comparison to accidents, revolutionary illnesses like cancer, dementia, or extreme coronary heart ailment are extra regularly noted with the aid of this word. In not unusual utilization, it denotes a condition that, regardless of remedy, will almost genuinely proceed until loss of life. the sort of affected person can be known as a terminal patient, terminally unwell, or just as being terminal.

although it is typically months or fewer, there is no set existence expectancy for a affected person to be deemed terminal. The doctor will supply a initial estimate of the patient's life expectancy based totally on statistics from the past.

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The nurse is assisting a physician with an endotracheal intubation for a client in respiratory failure. it is most important for the nurse to assess for:_____.

Answers

It is important that the nurse assess for the symmetry of the client's chest expansion.

When someone is having trouble breathing, intubation is a technique that can assist save their life. A laryngoscope is used by a medical professional to insert an endotracheal tube (ETT) into the mouth, nose, voice box, and trachea. The tube maintains the airway's opening, allowing air to reach the lungs.

Typically, intubation is carried out at a hospital before or during a surgery. If both sides of the chest expand equally and simultaneously, the expansion is said to be symmetrical. Chest enlargement that is asymmetrical is abnormal. Less space is expanded on the abnormal side, which is behind the normal side.

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Which preoperative medication would the nurse administer to a patient with valvular heart disease to prevent complications related to this condition?

Answers

The nurse will administer antibiotics.

Preoperative pharmacotherapy (premedication) of anxiolytics and sedatives is intended to reduce these stresses. Benzodiazepines are most commonly used for this purpose due to their strong anxiolytic effects, good tolerability, and few side effects. A damaged or diseased heart valve is called a valvular heart disease. Valve disease has several causes. The right and left atria, the right and left ventricles make up her four chambers and her four valves in a typical heart. Located between the left atrium and left ventricle, the bicuspid or mitral valve allows blood to flow from one chamber to the other. The tricuspid valve allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

The correct answer is antibiotics.

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