A client with hodgkin's disease is to receive the cyclic antineoplastic vincristine as part of a therapy protocol. Which mechanism of action would the nurse associate with this medication?

Answers

Answer 1

Cyclic antineoplastic vincristine (Oncovin) will be administered to patients with Hodgkin disease as part of a treatment protocol.

B-lymphocytes, a specific type of lymphocyte, begin to multiply abnormally and begin to accumulate in specific lymphatic system regions, such as the lymph nodes, in Hodgkin lymphoma (glands). You become more susceptible to infection as a result of the damaged lymphocytes losing their ability to fight infection.

In contrast to the side effects of most chemotherapeutic agents, what is a common side effect of vincristine?

A chemotherapeutic medication used to treat cancer is vincristine.Weight loss, diarrhea, headaches, nausea, vomiting, constipation, numbness, mouth sores, stomach/abdominal pains or cramps, and many other adverse effects are possible. Hodgkin lymphoma are diagnosed because of a painless, enlarged lymph node in the neck

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Related Questions

A client is prescribed misoprostol. the nurse would expect to administer this drug by which route?

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A client is prescribed misoprostol. The nurse would expect to administer this drug by ORAL route.

Misoprostol can be administered orally, vaginally, sublingually, buccally, or raptorially. Studies on the pharmacokinetics of misoprostol administered vaginally vs orally have revealed that vaginal misoprostol had delayed absorption, lower peak plasma levels, and slower elimination, much like an extended-release medication. 4–6 Additionally, misoprostol administered vaginally is linked to stronger cervix and uterine effects as well as a larger area under the curve (AUC) and a bigger total exposure to the medication. 5 However, there is a considerable range in the way that different women absorb misoprostol via the vaginal epithelium.

3 Between vaginal misoprostol administered dry and vaginal misoprostol moistened with water, saline, or acetic acid, there is no clinically discernible difference.

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Which question would be most helpful in beginning an initial assessment interview for a client who has just been admitted to a psychiatric inpatient unit?

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The question which would be most helpful in beginning an initial assessment interview for a client who has just been admitted to a psychiatric inpatient unit is "What brings you into the hospital today?"

Initial assessment is that the method of distinctive a human learning and support must change set design of a personal learning plan which can offer the structure for his or her learning. In different words it determines the learner's place to begin for his or her learning program.

The focus in psychiatric unit is on treating mental state by providing medicine assessments, prescribing medications, and giving therapies like cognitive-behavioral medical care (CBT), dialectical behavior therapy (DBT), supportive psychotherapy, and family therapy.

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A nurse is teaching an inservice regarding prevention of venous thromboembolism. which nursing interventions should be included in the teaching?

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Administer the recommended anticoagulants.Set sequential compression techniques to use.Encourage customers to walk as often as they can.Tell clients to stretch and point their feet in bed.

When a thrombus (like deep vein thrombosis) forms and  embolize into the bloodstream, it is termed as venous thromboembolism (VTE) (eg, pulmonary embolism). Hospitalized patients sometimes have several risk factors for VTE, such as endothelial damage from operations or IV catheter placement, as well as venous stasis from prolonged immobility.

Which type of venous thrombosis occurs most frequently?

The most common kind of venous thrombosis is DVT (Deep vein thrombosis) in the leg. A clot can develop anywhere within the venous system. An embolus is a blood clot that has either partially or completely separated from the vein where it developed and is now moving through the venous system.

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Infections and infectious diseases begin in a place where disease organisms grow and reproduce. what is this place called?

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Infections and infectious diseases begin in a place where disease organisms grow and reproduce, its called:

Reservoir/Susceptible host

What is Reservoir/Susceptible host?

The person, animal, thing, or substance from which an infectious agent is transmitted to the host is referred to as a source of infection. Reservoirs are locations where infectious agents that are still alive and active can infect people.

Diseases caused by organisms like bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites are referred to as infectious diseases. Numerous species live inside of our bodies. They are generally advantageous or even secure. But in specific circumstances, some bacteria have the capacity to cause disease.

Some infectious diseases have the potential to spread from person to person. Others are transmitted by insects or animals. And if you consume contaminated food or water or come into contact with environmental organisms, you could catch others.

Though they may differ depending on the organism causing the infection, fatigue and fever are frequent indications and symptoms of infection. While moderate infections can be treated with rest and at-home remedies, severe illnesses that could be fatal might necessitate hospitalisation.

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A registered nurse is caring for a patient experiencing fluid volume excess. which assessment finding is anticipated?

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Edema is a symptom of excess fluid in the tissues and outside the vascular space. TTT: Define the terms "excess" and "deficit."

What is edema?

Edema is the accumulation of fluid in your body tissues, which causes swelling. Any part of your body can develop edema, however it usually shows up more noticeably in the hands, arms, feet, ankles, and legs. Edema may result from taking medication, being pregnant, or having an underlying condition, which is commonly liver cirrhosis, congestive heart failure, or renal disease.

Taking drugs to drain excess fluid and ingesting less salt are two common ways to treat edema. The underlying condition must be addressed separately when edema is a symptom..

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Which type of ventilation relies on doors and windows on the same level as the fire?

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Fire-prone areas should have horizontal fire ventilation.

How is horizontal ventilation set up?

In buildings, it is frequently impossible to create openings above the fire. This could happen, for example, if there is a fire in an apartment within an apartment complex or in an industrial structure with a lightweight concrete roof, in which case the only available ventilation is through the windows or doors already in place.

The fundamentals of so-called horizontal ventilation are outlets that are situated at the same level as the fire.

Because of this, fire gases often do not move upward through the building and instead exit via the outlets in a horizontal pattern (normally windows or doors).

Utilizing the building’s permanent apertures (windows, doors, or vents) to the fullest extent is how horizontal ventilation is often carried out in order to exhaust the fire gases.

Outlets should be used in high-position openings on the leeward side. As inlets, you should use openings that are low to the ground on the windward side.

In this manner, the gases can be vented out while making the best use of the thermal buoyancy force of the hot gases and the wind pressure

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For patients to be eligible for hospice care, physicians using must certify that they are not expecting to live beyond how many months?

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For patients to be eligible for hospice care, physicians using must certify that they are not expecting to live beyond 6 months or less.

Hospice care focuses on the care, comfort, and quality of lifetime of someone with a significant health problem who is approaching the top of life. At some purpose, it's going to not be potential to cure a significant health problem, or a patient could opt for to not endure sure treatments.

Patients admitted to hospice from a hospital are possibly to die at intervals six months. Those admitted from home are possibly to die at intervals six months and people admitted from nursing homes are least likely.

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A patient presents to the emergency department with fever, lethargy, headache, stiff neck, and a petechial rash. which neurologic disorder should you suspect?

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A patient presents to the emergency department with fever, lethargy, headache, stiff neck, and a petechial rash. which neurologic disorder should you suspect is Vasopressors.

which will administer fluid resuscitation and vasopressors as a part of in all likelihood sepsis therapy, you ought to advantage the proper vascular get admission to.

whilst your blood stress is so low that your organs are not receiving enough blood, vasopressors assist you to enhance it. shock patients and people with diverse scientific disorders that purpose extraordinarily low blood pressure are examples of this. You frequently receive vasopressor medicinal drugs thru an IV from your company.

Vasopressors tighten or constrict your blood vessels, causing your heart to overcome quicker. All of those aid to your frame's blood flow to the organs that matter most.

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An adolescent girl with a seizure disorder controlled with phenytoin and carbamazepine asks the nurse about getting married and having children. which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

Answers

The response by the nurse for an adolescent girl with a seizure disorder controlled with phenytoin is to consult with her healthcare provider to change medication.

What is phenytoin?

Phenytoin is a special drug medication used for the treatment of seizures which has been associated with increased risks during the pregnancy stage.

In conclusion, the response by the nurse that would be most appropriate if an adolescent girl with a seizure disorder controlled with phenytoin and carbamazepine asks the nurse about having children is to consult with her healthcare provider to change medication.

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A nurse may administer norethindrone to a female client for which reason?

Answers

Answer:

• Treatment of amenorrhea

• Treatment of endometriosis

• Prevention of pregnancy

Explanation:

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Nursing implications for a client taking central nervous system (cns) stimulants include monitoring the client for which conditions?

Answers

Nursing implications for a client taking central nervous system (cns) stimulants include monitoring the client for conditions such as tachycardia, weight loss, and mood swings.

What is a central nervous system (cns) stimulant?

A central nervous system (cns) stimulant is a type of drug that has the ability to bind to the receptors in the Central nervous system which helps to enhance its activities.

Examples of central nervous system (cns) stimulants include the following:

amphetamines,

methylphenidate,

atomoxetine,

modafinil,

armodafinil,

pitolisant and solriamfetol.

The side effects or adverse effects that may be encountered when taking central nervous system (cns) stimulant include the following:

tachycardia,

weight loss, and

mood swings.

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The nurse in the health center is conducting assessment related to risk for infection on different age clients. Which clients are at higher risk of acquiring infection?

Answers

older people bc they have harder times with their body’s healing compared to young

According to occam's razor, if you have a headache, what is the mostly likely explanation of this symptom?

Answers

Answer:

It means that you are dehydrated.

Explanation:

The nurse is admitting a client with frothy pink sputum. what does the nurse suspect is the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema?

Answers

The nurse should suspect that the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema (or impaired ventilation) is decreased left ventricular pumping.

What is pulmonary edema?

Pulmonary edema is a medical condition associated with the accumulation of fluid in the respiratory airways (lungs) of an individual.

This condition (pulmonary edema) represents a severe risk for life because it decreases the oxygen saturation level, and therefore should be treated immediately in clinical settings.

In conclusion, The nurse should suspect that the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema (or impaired ventilation) is decreased left ventricular pumping.

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Julie has three years of experience as a nurse practitioner. As a nurse practitioner, Julie must hold a(n) ________ degree.
A. associate
B. bachelor's
C. doctorate
D. master's

Answers

A) Associate degree
An associates degree

Irene has excellent fine motor coordination. In what activity would she MOST likely excel based on this skillset?

Answers

The correct answer about fine motor coordination.

Fine-motor coordination is the capacity to synchronise the actions of the eyes and hands in order to carry out precise manipulating motions. It requires the regulation of the body's tiny muscles (eye-hand coordination). The reflexive grab and avoidance behaviours, which become integrated and improved with advancing age and experience, appear to be the first precursors of fine-motor control.

The majority of manipulative tasks need the use of two hands working together. These actions are known as bi-manual ones. Uni-manual activities are actions like opening a door that need only one hand. The third category of manipulating activities is graphic, which includes things like handwriting and drawing.

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Answer:

Playing the piano

Explanation:

Took the test and got it right,

if you want the reason though fine motor coordination is the ability to execute smooth, accurate, controlled motor responses.  Fine motor coordination exercises are designed to improve the coordination of small muscles in the hands, fingers, and wrists that enable precision and dexterity of movement. These exercises can be broken down into different motor components that impact the ability to use the hands in functional tasks and tool use.

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How would the nurse explain the purpose of standard precautions to the nursing assistant on a surgical unit?

Answers

On a surgical unit, the nurse would describe to the nursing assistant the goal of conventional measures in order to reduce the possibility of spreading unknown germs.

No matter the diagnosis or suspected infectiousness of a client, all staff members take the same measures for all client situations.

Standard precautions mandate that healthcare professionals, not patients, wash their hands and wear personal protective equipment to keep others and themselves safe from bodily fluids. A client's identified illness supports the use of transmission-based precautions, such as airborne, droplet, and contact precautions.

Describe pathogens.

Phylogenetically, Pathogens Disease in humans is caused by a wide variety of infections. The most well-known are bacteria and viruses. Diseases caused by viruses range from the common cold and smallpox to AIDS.

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The nurse is assessing a patient for the movement of the hip ball-and-socket joint. which range-of-motion (rom) exercise should the nurse ask the patient to perform to assess adduction?

Answers

The nurse should ask the patient to move the leg back toward the medial position.

What is nursing assessment?

A nursing assessment is a process of gathering relevant patient information by a registered nurse.

The nurse should ask the patient to move the leg back toward the medial position and beyond if possible so as to check for adduction in the hip joint.

Nursing assessment helps a nurse to give accurate help to a patient and reduce the risk of wrong medications.

In conclusion, there are specific range of motion exercises for different nursing assessments as it helps to identify the needs of a particular client.

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A parent brings a 6-year-old to the clinic and informs the nurse that the child is tired all the time, even though the child sleeps 7 to 8 hours each night. what is the best response by the nurse?

Answers

Answer:

The response should be: It is completely normal for a child this age to be tired because he is growing alot more now.

Which one of the three models of healthcare delivery is used in the united states?

Answers

The three models of healthcare delivery is used in the United States are  the Beveridge Model, the Bismarck model, and the out-of-pocket model.

A healthcare delivery models are a company of individuals, establishments, and resources to deliver health care services to fulfill the health wants of a target population.

The Bismarck Model (also referred as "National Health insurance Model") may be a health care system within which folks pay a fee to a fund that successively pays health care activities, that may be provided by State-owned establishments, different Government body-owned establishments, or a non-public establishment.

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Descriptive epidemiology describes the determinants of a health problem.
a. true
b. false

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Option B) False

Descriptive epidemiology does not describe the determinants of a health problem.

Descriptive epidemiology entails the distribution, and pattern, of a disease in a population by describing details of the distribution, pattern, and parameters involved.

What is descriptive epidemiology?

Descriptive epidemiology is defined as epidemiological studies that include activities that either fall within the descriptive region of the descriptive-analytic spectrum or have descriptive components that are much stronger than their analytical components.

In simple terms, descriptive epidemiology describes the outbreak in terms of a person, place, and time.

Descriptive epidemiology can also generate hypotheses of any etiologic research. Ecologic and cross-sectional studies are the most commonly applied descriptive epidemiology studies.

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The current recommendation is to drink

O a 8 glasses of water a day

1 gallon of water per hour

O 1 pint of water per day

Od 16 your body weight in ounces every day

Answers

Answer:

8 glasses of water every day.

Explanation:

8 glasses is the correct answer

Which nursing theory is useful in promoting self-management for a patient with diabetes taking insulin?

Answers

The rationale would the nurse understand for placing a chest tube after an infants open-heart surgery is to reduce intracranial pressure.

What is the problem of myelomeningocele repair?

The side-lying position with the head slightly elevated promotes venous return by gravity, which helps reduce intracranial pressure, a problem after myelomeningocele repair.

Although preventing aspiration, promoting respiration, and maintaining cleanliness of the suture line are all important, the reason for this position that is unique with this type of surgery is that it minimizes intracranial pressure.

Therefore, The rationale would the nurse understand for placing a chest tube after an infants open-heart surgery is to reduce intracranial pressure.

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A physician orders an intestinal tube to decompress a client's gi tract. when gathering equipment for this procedure, a nurse should obtain a?

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A physician orders an intestinal tube to decompress a client's GI tract and when gathering equipment for this procedure, a nurse should obtain a Miller-Abbott tube.

An intestinal tube (feeding tube or clyster tube) is required once a baby encompasses a condition that stops traditional consumption or internal bowel movements. They assist guarantee a patient receives the nutrients they have.

GI tract, conjointly known as digestive tract or alimentary canal, pathway by that food enters the body and solid wastes are expelled. The duct includes the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestine, intestine, and anus.

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Bonnie calls complaining of pain and bleeding, she is 26 weeks pregnant. when should i give this patient an appointment?

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Bonnie calls complaining of pain(cramp) and bleeding, she is 26 weeks pregnant. Stat and/or today should you give this patient an appointment.

What is a cramp?Muscle cramps are an abrupt, painful contraction or over shortening that can cause significant discomfort and immobility that resembles paralysis. They are frequently related to pregnancy, vigorous exercise or overexertion, aging (common in elderly people), or they may be a symptom of a motor neuron condition. Both smooth muscles and skeletal muscles may experience cramps. Skeletal muscle cramps can be brought on by overworking the muscles or by a lack of electrolytes like sodium, potassium, or magnesium (a condition known as hyponatremia) (also known as hypomagnesemia). Some skeletal muscle cramps have an underlying cause that is unknown.

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You're at a party with some of your closest friends when, to your surprise, your best friend pulls out a marijuana joint. she asks you if you'd like to smoke it with her, and when you decline, she says that one little puff can't really hurt and that you should try it. this is an example of which type of negative peer pressure?

Answers

This is an example of direct negative peer pressure, where the pressure to engage in a certain behavior comes directly from one's peers.

What is a Negative Peer Pressure?

Negative peer pressure is a form of social influence where peers encourage or pressure an individual to engage in behaviors that go against their values, beliefs, or best interests.

In this case, the type of here is  direct negative peer pressure, where the pressure to engage in smoking marijuana, comes directly from one's peers. The friend is attempting to persuade the person to engage in the behavior by downplaying the potential risks and using peer influence to make the person feel like they should comply.

The person in this situation may feel conflicted between their desire to fit in with their friends and their personal values or beliefs, and it is essential to recognize and stand up to direct negative peer pressure in order to make the right decisions for oneself.

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The manager schedules a staff nurse to attend a motivational interviewing training session. which nurse behavior caused the manager to make this decision? select all that apply.

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The manager schedules a staff nurse to attend a motivational interviewing training session and the nurse behavior which caused the manager to make this decision include interrupting the client, minimizing the client’s concerns and arguing with a client over agreed upon plans.

Training in motivational interviewing is a guide. Motivational interviewing (MI) is an evidence-based treatment which will facilitate people to resolve feeling regarding change. Specifically, it's a “collaborative, person-centered variety of guiding to elicit and strengthen motivation for change”

Benefits of motivational interviewing include: serving to clients to require responsibility for themselves and their actions, encouraging clients to examine a future freed from abuse or psychological state struggles and making ready clients to become additional receptive to treatment.

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A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (ra). Which assessment finding does the nurse expect to assess?

Answers

According to the research, the correct option is persistent inflammation of the joints. It is the assessment finding that the nurse should expect to assess.

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

It is a systemic and chronic inflammatory disease in which the joints become inflamed, producing pain, deformity and difficulty in movement, although it can also affect other parts of the body.

In this sense, the joints that are most frequently inflamed are the wrists, fingers and toes, and there may be difficulty starting movements, said persistent inflammation can end up damaging the bones and ligaments.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is persistent inflammation of the joints. It is the assessment finding that the nurse should expect to assess.

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Whats the difference between Marijuana and Cannabinoids?

Answers

Answer:

Cannabis is a plant that makes a thick substance full of compounds called cannabinoids. There are more than 100 of these chemicals in cannabis. They cause drug-like reactions in your body. CBD (cannabidiol) and THC (tetrahydrocannabinol) are the most common cannabinoids found in cannabis products.

Explanation:

.

You are alone with an injured person who is unconscious but breathing normally. you must leave the person to call 9-1-1 or the local emergency number. what should you do before leaving the person?

Answers

You should place the person who is unconscious but breathing normally in a side-lying recovery position.

What is a person who is unconscious?When a person is unconscious, they are unable to respond to stimuli and appear to be sleeping. They could be unconscious for a few seconds, as when someone faints, or they could be unconscious for several minutes. Unconscious people are unable to respond to events or people. Doctors may refer to this as being in a coma or being comatose. There are other ways for awareness to shift without going unconscious. These are referred to as altered or changing mental states. When a person is unconscious, he or she is unable to respond to people or activities. Doctors often refer to this as being in a coma or comatose state. Other shifts in awareness can occur without the person becoming unconscious.

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