a client admitted for placement of heart stents was started on clopidogrel. the nurse knows that a daily assessment of this client should include what data?

Answers

Answer 1

The daily assessment of this client should include Monitor daily platelet count and Assess for new ecchymosis.

What is clopidogrel used for heart?

Clopidogrel is a medication used to reduce the risk of heart attack and stroke in people who have already had a heart attack or stroke, or who have other conditions that increase their risk of having a heart attack or stroke. It works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots, which can block arteries and lead to a heart attack or stroke. Clopidogrel is usually taken along with aspirin, another medication that helps prevent blood clots. Together, these medications can help reduce the risk of a heart attack or stroke in people with a high risk.

Monitor daily platelet count is that Clopidogrel can reduce platelet count, so it is important to monitor platelet count on a daily basis. Assess for new ecchymosis means Clopidogrel can cause bruising, so it is important to assess for any new ecchymosis.

Therefore, Monitor daily platelet count and Assess for new ecchymosis are the answer.

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the nurse administers morphine 6mg iv push to the client for postoperative pain. following administration of the medication, the nurse observes bp 100/86, pulse 68, respirations 8, client sleeping quietly. which nursing action is most appropriate?

Answers

The most appropriate nursing action would be to document the observations.

you can generally trust nutritional information that comes from qualified professionals. what credential is given to a nutrition expert that must complete a specialized degree in nutrition, dietetics, public health, or another related science? a.) certified in public health b.) dietitian c.) nutritionist d.) registered dietitian nutritionist

Answers

registered dietitian nutritionist is given to a nutrition expert that must complete a specialized degree in nutrition, dietetics, public health, or another related science.

What is dietetics?

Dietetics is the science of using food and nutrition to promote health and manage disease. It involves the study of food and nutrition, the planning and management of meals, and the provision of nutrition counseling and education. Dietitians are the professionals who specialize in this field.

Therefore, Option D is correct.

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following emergency administration of epinephrine subcutaneously (sq) for an acute asthmatic attack, the physician prescribes terbutalin (brethine)tablets three times daily. how is this drug classified? what is it supposed to do? what are its advantages over epinephrine in the treatment of chronic asthma?

Answers

Alpha- and beta-adrenergic agonists are a group of medicines that includes epinephrine oral inhalation (sympathomimetic agents). To facilitate breathing, it relaxes and widens airways in the lungs.

What is the ideal asthma treatment?

Inhalers, which are devices that let you breathe in medication, are the main therapy option. If your asthma is severe, you could also need tablets and other therapies. Typically, a doctor or asthma nurse will help you develop a personal action plan.

Does epinephrine worsen asthma symptoms?

Rarely, this medicine has resulted in a sudden, severe, and fatal worsening of breathing issues or asthma (paradoxical bronchospasm). Wheezing that comes on suddenly should be treated right away.

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the emergency responders enter the emergency department with a client in cardiac arrest. one of the responders is performing chest compressions. what is the best assessment for the nurse to determine if the responder is compressing with enough force and depth?

Answers

The client can be connected to a heart monitor by the UAP after receiving cardiac arrest. If the UAP is not pregnant and is wearing a shield, they can assist in assisting the patient sit up for a portable chest x-ray.

Which duties could a nurse on a cardiac unit assign to unlicensed support staff?

Keep in mind that the RN cannot assign the UAP to handle an unstable client, assessment, instruction, evaluation, or medication. The UAP might bathe the customer who is wearing telemetry.

What responsibilities may you assign to unlicensed assistive persons (UAP)?

An experienced UAP can be trusted with routine chores including taking vital signs, monitoring ambulation, changing the bed, assisting with hygiene, and daily living activities.

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The energy to sustain moderate to intense exercise is provided mostly by?

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The energy to sustain moderate to intense exercise is provided mostly by Carbohydrates.

What are Carbohydrates?

Sugar molecules are what make up carbohydrates. Along with proteins and fats, carbohydrates are one of the three primary nutrients present in foods and beverages. Glucose is produced by your body from the breakdown of carbohydrates. The body's cells, tissues, and organs primarily use glucose, also known as blood sugar.

Carbohydrates and fats are the main fuels used during exercise. Blood glucose, muscle glycogen, and liver glycogen are all sources of carbohydrates for the muscle. Before they can be used to produce energy, glucose and glycogen are converted to glucose-6-phosphate.

As a result, carbohydrates are primarily responsible for providing the energy needed to maintain moderate to intense exercise.

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the client has developed a pressure area on the hip that has become infected. if the wound culture reveals vancomycin-resistant enterococci (vre), which medication will the nurse expect to be prescribed?

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The medication that the nurse expects to be prescribed for a client who has an infection in the hip is an antibiotic.

What is a pelvic infection?

Pelvic inflammation is an infection of the female reproductive organs, such as the cervix, uterus, and ovaries. Pelvic inflammation can be characterized by pain in the pelvis or lower abdomen. This condition needs to be treated to prevent complications, such as ectopic pregnancy or infertility, so antibiotics are needed to prevent enterococci.

Types of bacteria that often cause pelvic inflammation are bacteria that cause sexually transmitted infections, such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

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the nurse is caring for a client who requires a vegan diet. the nurse notices that most of the client's meal was not eaten. lunch consisted of a burrito that was made with refried beans, lettuce, tomato, and soy cheese; a side salad without dressing; fresh watermelon; and a glass of coconut milk. which food item did the client not consider part of the vegan diet?

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The nurse is caring for a client who requires a vegan diet but she notices that most of the client's meal was not eaten and the lunch consisted of a burrito that was made with refried beans, lettuce, tomato, and soy cheese, a food item the client did not consider part of the vegan diet.

All animal products, such as dairy, meat, and eggs, are forbidden in a vegan or plant-based diet. When vegan diets are properly followed, they may be very nourishing, lower the risk of developing chronic illnesses, and help individuals lose weight. However, those who primarily consume plant-based meals must be more knowledgeable about how to receive certain minerals, such as iron, calcium, and vitamin B-12, which are often found in an omnivorous diet. A 2017 research found that adopting a vegan diet may 15% lower one's chance of developing cancer. The fact that plant-based diets are rich in fiber, vitamins, and phytochemicals biologically active plant molecules that fight cancer may be the cause of this health advantage.

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blood test are only for measuring the number of red blood cells a person has. T/F

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Blood test are only for measuring the number of red blood cells a person has------ True

What are the common names for blood tests?

A basic metabolic panel (BMP) examines eight distinct blood components. It provides crucial information about the metabolic process and chemical makeup of your body. The way the body uses food and energy is called the metabolic process.

Which three types of blood tests are the most common?

A blood test is made up of a complete blood count, a metabolic panel, and a lipid panel. These are the three main tests.

What are red blood cells used for?

a kind of blood cell that comes from the bone marrow and is found in the blood. Hemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells, transports oxygen throughout the body from the lungs.

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flvs driver education according to lesson 4.5, what are 3 of the 4 questions you can ask yourself when assessing your fitness to drive?

Answers

3 of the 4 questions you can ask yourself when assessing your fitness to drive are:

If you really have the psychological capabilities to drive at that moment.If my paperwork granting me the permission to drive are still valid.If I am familiar with traffic laws

What is driving education?

Driver's education, often known as driver's ed, driving tuition, or driving lessons, is a structured class or programme that gets a new driver ready to get their learner's permit or driver's licence. Current licence holders may also be prepared for a driving test, medical evaluation, or refresher course through the formal class programme. A mixture of the above may be used, as well as a classroom, a car, or the internet.

What is driving ?

Driving, which can apply to cars, motorbikes, trucks, buses, and bicycles, is the controlled operation and movement of a vehicle. Drivers are required to abide by the local traffic and road laws when driving on public highways. Permission to drive on public highways is granted subject to a number of requirements being met.

If you really have the psychological capabilities to drive at that moment.

If my paperwork granting me the permission to drive are still valid.

If I am familiar with traffic laws

Therefore, Assessing the driver, the four questions i would ask are mentioned one by one .

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a client has sublingual (sl) nitroglycerin prn added to the medication regimen. which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that teaching has been effective?

Answers

Nitroglycerin sublingual pills should not be chewed, crushed, or inhaled. Placing the tablet beneath your tongue or in the space between your cheek and gum will allow it to dissolve more quickly.

I need the real name of the client.

A individual who has asked for or already received assistance from a welfare group is referred to as a client. To find information or data, a workstation or software application that is linked to a server can be used.

Give the example of a client.

Any time you buy a cup of coffee from one of the cafe kiosks at the train station, you are supporting the company. However, while credit terms are in place, the owner of the coffee shop is the supplier's client.

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which action can the nurse take to ensure a quality blood sample when drawing blood from a patient's central venous access device (cvad) site?

Answers

The nurse should discard the first 4 to 5 mL of blood drawn.

By discarding the initial sample, the possibility of drug concentrations or a diluted specimen is reduced. Allowing fluid infusions to continue until the sample is taken may affect the sample. The quality of the sample would be unaffected by flushing the catheter after aspirating for blood return. The patient is not required to relax before the sample is collected.

A central line is a thin, soft, flexible tube that is also known as a central venous access device (CVAD). This lengthy tube, sometimes known as a catheter, is inserted into a vein leading to your heart. The opposite end of the CVAD catheter either emerges at the skin's surface or rests right under it.

Central venous access devices (CVADs) or central venous catheters (CVCs) are devices that are placed into the body through a vein to allow fluids, blood products, medicine, and other treatments to be administered to the bloodstream.

The complete question is:

Which action can the nurse take to ensure a quality blood sample when drawing blood from a patient's central venous access device (CVAD) site?

A. Allow fluid infusions to continue to flow right up to the time of the sample.B. Flush the catheter after aspirating for blood return.C. Ensure that the patient has been resting quietly for at least 15 minutes before taking the sample.D. Discard the first 4 to 5 mL of blood drawn.

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a nurse is preparing to administer oxacillin 375 mg im. the nurse reconstitutes a vial of oxacillin to yield a final concentration of 250 mg/1.5 ml. how many ml should the nurse administer? (round the answer to the nearest tenth. use a leading zero if it applies. do not use a trailing zero.)

Answers

Answer:

1.5 ml

Explanation:

375 mg / 250 mg/1.5 ml = 1.5 ml

The nurse should administer 1.5 ml of oxacillin (rounded to the nearest tenth).

What is dosage?

A dosage is the quantity of a medication or substance that a person takes or ought to take, as well as the frequency with which they should do so.

To calculate the amount of oxacillin to administer, we can use the following formula:

Amount of oxacillin (mg) = Dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/ml)

First, we need to convert the dose from milligrams (mg) to micrograms (μg), since the concentration is given in milligrams per milliliter (mg/ml).

375 mg = 375,000 μg

Next, we can plug in the values into the formula:

Amount of oxacillin (mg) = 375,000 μg / 250 mg/ml

Simplifying, we can cancel out the units of milligrams (mg):

Amount of oxacillin (ml) = 375,000 / 250 ml

Amount of oxacillin (ml) = 1500/10 ml

Amount of oxacillin (ml) = 150 ml

Thus, the nurse should administer 1.5 ml of oxacillin.

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a nurse is administering darbepoetin alfa to a client. the nurse assesses an elevated hemoglobin level and prepares to take necessary steps to avoid which potential complication(s)? select all that apply.

Answers

Answer is a and b, respectively. Used to stimulate the production of erythrocyte and Drug is a glycoprotein. Injections of darbepoetin alfa are also used to treat anemia brought on by chemotherapy in patients with specific cancers.

Darbepoetin alfa has not been proven to reduce fatigue or a lack of well-being that may be brought on by anemia, and it cannot be used in place of a red blood cell transfusion to treat severe anemia. Subcutaneous injections of this drug can be administered into the thigh, arm, or belly. Additionally, this medicine may be infused directly into a vein. Your height and weight, general health or other health issues, the type of cancer or illness being treated, and the amount of darbepoetin alfa you will receive are just a few of the variables that will determine how much you will receive.

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Question- A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the darbepoetin alfa which the health care provider has prescribed. Which facts about this drug should the nurse incorporate in the teaching? Select all that apply.

A. Used to stimulate the production of erythrocytes

B. Drug is a glycoprotein.

C. Used to stimulate thrombopoiesis

D. Helps stimulate differentiation of leukocytes.

E. Promotes the maturation of megakaryocytes.

after initial placement verification using radiography, what action should the nurse take to verify placement before implementing enteral tube feedings? how will the nurse use this information to determine whether the feeding tube is in the stomach, intestines, or respiratory tract?

Answers

After initial placement verification using radiography, the nurse should use additional methods to confirm the correct placement of the enteral feeding tube before implementing feedings.

What is the nursing intervention for enteral tube feeding?

Some common methods include auscultation for the presence of air sounds in the stomach, measuring residual volume before and after feedings, and visualization of gastric content through the tube.

The nurse can use this information to determine the location of the feeding tube by analyzing the characteristics of the air sounds or gastric content. For example, if the nurse hears high-pitched or continuous air sounds, the tube is likely in the small intestine or respiratory tract and not in the stomach. If the nurse sees acidic gastric content, it is a strong indication that the tube is in the stomach. However, it's always important to confirm placement using multiple methods to ensure accuracy.

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the nurse is caring for a client with a gastrointestinal bleed who has a nasogastric (ng) tube. after administering the medications via the ng tube, what would the nurse do next?

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After administering the drug through the NG tube, what the nurse will do next is turn off the nasogastric tube for 30 minutes.

A nasogastric tube is a special tube that is inserted through the nose through the throat and then into the esophagus and the stomach (stomach).

The nasogastric tube should be kept closed for 30 minutes to enhance drug absorption and restore decompression. The nasogastric tube must be reinserted for suction according to the doctor's instructions. The nasogastric tube should be rinsed with 5-10 ml of warm water after each treatment and with 30-60 ml of warm water after the last treatment.

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a dairy farmer wants to mix a 75% protein supplement and a standard 50% protein ration to make 1600 pounds of a high-grade 70% protein ration. how many pounds of each should he use?

Answers

Let the protein supplement be equal to x. Protein ration be 1600-x compound.

75% protein supplement = x pounds.

50% protein ration = (1600-x) compound.

0.75x + 0.50(1600 - x) = 1600 x 0.7

0.75x + 800 - 0.50x = 1120

0.75x - 0.50x = 1120- 800

0.25x = 320

x = 1280

75% protein supplement = 1280 pounds

50% protein ration = 1600 - 1280= 320 pounds.

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in an experiment to test the effectiveness of a new drug to treat diabetes, the independent variable will be

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In an experiment to test the effectiveness of a new drug to treat diabetes, the independent variable will be medication therapy.

The medication treatment is the independent variable when a researcher administers an active medication to one group and an inactive medication, or placebo, to another group. The dependent variable is how each person responds to the active medication or the placebo.

The proportion of glycated hemoglobin was used as a measure of blood glucose, which was a dependent variable. Two regression analyses reveal a correlation between elevated blood glucose and the absence of texture associated with lower blood glucose levels. Complications were found to have a confusing effect.

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a nurse is reading a journal article about seasonal allergies and comes across the name of the drug loratadine. the nurse determines this drug name as which type?

Answers

The nurse determines this drug name as generic.

Which of the following labels could be put on a medicine during development?

Drugs may be given numerous names along the development process, such as a chemical name, a generic (nonproprietary) name, an official name, and a commercial or brand name.

What area of pharmacology employs medications to treat, prevent, and diagnose illness?

Pharmacotherapeutics, which is also referred to as medical pharmacology, may be considered to be the proper field for such intentional therapeutic uses (i.e., drugs used to prevent, diagnose, and treat diseases). Pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics are additional subcategories of pharmacotherapeutics.

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a client seen at the health department has been diagnosed with a communicable sexually transmitted disease. the nurse realizes the client will need patient education. what is the best rationale for this education?

Answers

The insurance company's desire to stop paying for your benefits and medical care rather than communicable diseases as the main cause for this education.

The actual name of the client?

The client is a person who has applied for assistance from a welfare group or has received it at some point in the past. Software or a workstation connected to a server can be used to conduct an information or data search.

As an example, use a client.

When you buy a cup of coffee at a cafe kiosk at the train station, you are a customer of the establishment. The proprietor of the coffee shop is the supplier's client, nevertheless, when credit terms are in place.

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the nurse is caring for a patient with a healing stage iii pressure ulcer. upon entering the room, the nurse notices an odor and observes a purulent discharge, along with increased redness at the wound site. what is the next best step for the nurse?

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The nurse is caring for a patient with a healing Stage III pressure ulcer. Upon entering the room, the nurse notices an odor and observes a purulent discharge, along with increased redness at the wound site. The next best step for the nurse is complete the head-to-toe assessment, including current treatment, vital signs, and laboratory results.

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

A sore on the skin or mucous membrane that is also accompanied by tissue disintegration is called an ulcer. The epidermis, frequently sections of the dermis, and even subcutaneous fat can all be completely lost as a result of ulcers. The skin of the lower extremities and the digestive system both frequently develop ulcers.

An ulcer that develops on the skin is frequently noticeable as an area of swollen tissue and reddish skin. In the event of exposure to heat or cold, inflammation, or a difficulty with blood circulation, a skin ulcer is frequently noticeable. Additionally, they may be brought on by immobility, which puts sustained pressure on the tissues.

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The nurse is caring for a patient with a healing Stage III pressure ulcer. Upon entering the room, the nurse notices an odor and observes a purulent discharge, along with increased redness at the wound site. What is the next best step for the nurse?

a. Complete the head-to-toe assessment, including current treatment, vital signs, and laboratory results.

b. Notify the health care provider by utilizing Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation (SBAR).

c. Consult the wound care nurse about the change in status and the potential for infection.

d. Check with the charge nurse about the change in status and the potential for infection.

chase is easily winded during tennis practice and wants to focus on his cardiorespiratory fitness. which activity should he eliminate from his exercise plan? lifting weights playing basketball running in a 5k race swimming laps

Answers

He ought to cut weightlifting out of his program in order to concentrate on cardiorespiratory fitness. Option 1 is the best choice.

Cardiorespiratory fitness is what?The capacity of the respiratory and circulatory systems to deliver oxygen to the skeletal muscle mitochondria for generating energy during physical activity is known as cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF).CRF is a crucial measure of young people's academic success, physical health, and emotional health.Lower rates of death from all causes and cardiovascular disease are associated with physical activity and cardiorespiratory fitness, or "fitness."On the other hand, weightlifting is an anaerobic sport that normally does not permit your heart rate to increase for a prolonged amount of time.So it is recommended for Chase to stay away from this kind of exercise regimen.

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physicians draw on numerous sources of information on patient health. the function of lungs, for instance, can be checked through careful listening with a stethoscope. such practice is called auscultation and falls under which of the following particular physiological specialties?

Answers

Auscultation falls under the specialty of pulmonology, which is the study of the respiratory system and the diseases related to it.

Pulmonology: The Study of Respiratory Health and Auscultation

Pulmonology is a medical specialty that focuses on the study of the respiratory system and the diagnosis and treatment of respiratory diseases. This specialty is concerned with the function and structure of the lungs, bronchi, trachea, and alveoli, as well as the muscles used for breathing. One of the important diagnostic techniques used in pulmonology is auscultation, which involves listening to the sounds made by the lungs and chest with a stethoscope. Auscultation is a valuable tool for evaluating the function of the lungs and detecting any abnormal sounds that may indicate the presence of a respiratory condition. In combination with other diagnostic tools and medical history, auscultation helps pulmonologists diagnose and treat a wide range of respiratory diseases, including asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), lung cancer, and more.

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what is a non pharmacological measure that is effective in treating nausea and vomiting in pregnant clients?

Answers

Eating little meals throughout the day rather than three large meals and choosing foods with a high protein content are two nonpharmacologic ways to manage nausea and vomiting.

What anti-nausea drugs are suitable during pregnancy?

Pregnancy-related nausea can be treated with meclizine (Antivert), diphenhydramine (Benadryl), and dimenhydrinate (Dramamine). These antihistamines were confirmed to be secure in an evaluation of over 35 research. Additionally, studies show that they effectively alleviate pregnant nausea when compared to placebo.

Most often, minor and self-limiting nausea and vomiting occur throughout pregnancy. It often begins four weeks or less after the last menstrual cycle and reaches its peak at nine weeks' gestation. According to estimates, 87% of cases are resolved by 20 weeks of gestation and 60% are resolved by the end of the first trimester.

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Elise, an emergency medical technician renders aid to a participant in Forest Trail Marathon, an athletic event. Regarding a suit by the participant against Elise for negligence, Elise is immune from liability under​
a. ​the "danger invites rescue" doctrine.
b. ​the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur.
c. ​an applicable Good Samaritan statute.
d. ​no circumstances.

Answers

Elise, an emergency medical technician renders aid to a participant in Forest Trail Marathon, an athletic event. Regarding a suit by the participant against Elise for negligence, Elise is immune from liability under​ ​an applicable Good Samaritan law.

The Good Samaritan law provides immediate assistance or assistance to a person injured in an accident, accident, or medical emergency without any expectation of payment or reward, and without a duty of care or special relationship. We allow you to act voluntarily to seek emergency treatment. The Good Samaritan Law was written to encourage bystanders to get involved in these and other emergencies without fear of being sued if they inadvertently cause injury or death to someone.

His four key elements of the Good Samaritan Law are: Permission from the sick/injured if possible. Caring in a rational (uncaring) way. A person who falls under the law of the Good Samaritan is not the person who caused the accident.

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Complete question :

Elise, an emergency medical technician renders aid to a participant in Forest Trail Marathon, an athletic event. Regarding a suit by the participant against Elise for negligence, Elise is immune from liability under​

a. ​an applicable Good Samaritan statute.

b. ​no circumstances.

c. ​the "danger invites rescue" doctrine.

d. ​the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur.

a nurse should monitor a client taking short-term high-dose methylprednisolone (medrol) for signs and symptoms of cushing's syndrome that include what sign or symptom? (select all that apply.)

Answers

Long-term usage of high dosages of glucocorticoids can result in the condition known as Cushing's syndrome. The common symptoms are buffalo hump, moon face, oily skin, acne etc. So, option E is correct.

A nurse should monitor a client taking short-term high-dose methylprednisolone for signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome, which can include the following:

1. Weight gain: Most patients with Cushing's syndrome experience rapid weight gain, especially in the face, neck, trunk, and upper extremities.

2. Round face: The face may become rounded, with full cheeks and a moon-like shape.

3. Bruising: Easy bruising is a common side effect of Cushing's syndrome, and the skin may also be thin and fragile.

4. Acne: The skin may get infected with acne, hirsutism, and a purple-red stretch mark.

5. Fatigue: Patients frequently experience weakness and fatigue, and they may experience this even after getting a good night's sleep.

6. Hypertension: High blood pressure can develop, increasing the risk of stroke and heart disease.

7. Mood changes: People who have Cushing's syndrome may experience mood changes such irritability, despair, and anxiety.

Finally, it is critical for the nurse to keep an eye out for any signs or symptoms of Cushing's syndrome in the patient receiving short-term, high-dose methylprednisolone and to notify the doctor of any changes. By doing so, the client will receive the right care, helping to stop or slow the development of Cushing's syndrome.

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The question seems incomplete. The complete question seems to be :-

A nurse should monitor a client taking short-term high-dose methylprednisolone (Medrol) for signs and symptoms of Cushing's syndrome that include which of the following? Select all that apply:

A) Buffalo hump

B) Moon face

C) Oily skin

D) Acne

E) All of the above

which governmental organization is the main assessment and epidemiologic agency for the nation?

Answers

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is the main assessment and epidemiological agency for the United States.

The CDC is a federal agency within the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and is responsible for protecting public health and safety through the control and prevention of disease, injury, and disability. The CDC conducts and supports health promotion, prevention, and preparedness activities and works closely with state and local health departments, as well as national and international partners, to monitor and respond to public health threats. The CDC also provides guidance and support for disease control and prevention efforts, and works to improve health outcomes by advancing research and promoting best practices in public health. The CDC is a critical resource for public health information and guidance, and plays a crucial role in protecting the health and safety of the nation.

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a middle-aged client, frustrated by increasingly frequent episodes of constipation, is highly reluctant to take medications. what nonpharmacologic measure should the nurse recommend?

Answers

Using a fibre dietary supplement. Ginger, ginseng, and low-fat diets haven't been proven to help customers with constipation.

There is some proof that fibre supplements increase bowel frequency and regularity. There is no evidence to support consuming more fluids than usual.  Always consider the patient's most recent stool characteristics before giving a laxative or stool softener, and if loose stools or diarrhoea are present, hold off on giving the drug. Suppositories containing glycerin and bisacodyl can be purchased over-the-counter to treat constipation. In the rectum, glycerin seems to stimulate an osmotic action. Defecation is induced by bisacodyl's effect on rectum neurons.

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a doctor orders 5.0 ml of phenobarbital elixir. if the phenobarbital elixir is available as 60. mg per 15 ml , how many milligrams is given to the patient?

Answers

A barbiturate is PHENOBARBITAL. You might use it to aid with sleep or to assist reduce seizures. If you have any questions, speak with your doctor or pharmacist.

The phenobarbital elixir in an image Phenobarbital produces blood levels of around 20 mcg/mL quickly after administration in paediatric patients and newborns when given at a loading dose of 15 to 20 mg/kg. Phenobarbital has been used to prevent febrile seizures as well as treat them. One technique entails replacing each 100- to 200-mg dose of barbiturate the patient has been taking with a 30-mg dose of phenobarbital. The total daily dose of phenobarbital is then given in 3 or 4 divided doses, with a maximum daily dose of 600 mg.

Solution:

Minimal dose.

= 60/15

= 4

Dosage of phenobarbital

= 4* 5.0

= 20 mg.

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which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (opas)? question 1 options: a) they require the use of a water-soluble lubricant. b) they do not come in pediatric sizes. c) they cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture d) they cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex

Answers

A disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways is that 'they cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex'.

What do you mean by airways?

Airways refer to the passages that allow air to flow into and out of the lungs, including the nose, mouth, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. In humans, the airways are part of the respiratory system, which is responsible for taking in oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide.

A gag reflex is an automatic reaction of the body to prevent foreign objects from entering the throat. When a patient has an active gag reflex, the introduction of an oropharyngeal airway can cause the patient to gag and potentially vomit. This can make the airway ineffective and, in some cases, can even cause aspiration. For this reason, oropharyngeal airways should not be used in patients with a gag reflex.

Hence, option D is correct.

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which client would the medical-surgical nurse identify as appropriate for transfer or discharge to make room for admission of victims of a disaster? select all that apply.

Answers

Third post-operative day of a total knee replacement for a 68-year-old patient

A client, who is 80 years old, is being prescription meds for transient ischemic attacks.

For a deep vein thrombus, a 72-year-old patient is starting oral anticoagulant therapy.

Priority 1 or "Red" Triage tag codes are given to victims who have life-threatening injuries or illnesses, such as internal injuries, severe burns, severe bleeding, heart attacks, or head injuries (meaning first priority for treatment and transportation).

The triage nurse does have a suggestion for how the next mass killing event can be handled better. Which choice does the nurse choose to present this concept. In order to better prepare for the subsequent mass casualty event, the triage nurse utilises the Administrative review panel to present suggestions. Clients with a yellow tag have severe injuries that need attention in the next 30 to 2 hours.

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